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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 5 January 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 5 January 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Polity, Geography, Modern History, Physics.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 5 January 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (15) · Current Affairs (5) · Polity (8) · Geography (3) · Modern History (4) · Physics (1) · Economics (5) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (3) · Biology (4)

Static GK (15)

National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q1. Who is the first woman Prime Minister of India?

  1. (a) Indira Gandhi
  2. (b) Pratibha Patil
  3. (c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
  4. (d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi

The correct answer is (a) Indira Gandhi.
Indira Gandhi served as the first (and so far only) woman Prime Minister of India. She served three terms: 1966-1977 and 1980-1984. She was the daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru and was assassinated on October 31, 1984.
(b) Pratibha Patil: Became the first woman President of India (2007-2012), not Prime Minister.
(c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur: Served as India's first Health Minister (1947-1957); never served as Prime Minister.
(d) Sarojini Naidu: Known as the Nightingale of India; became the first woman Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, 1947); never served as Prime Minister.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q2. Rajput forts, such as Chittorgarh and Mehrangarh , are well-known for their defensive features. Which architectural characteristic primarily defines these fortresses?

  1. (a) Lotus motifs
  2. (b) Massive thick walls with bastions
  3. (c) Stupa-shaped domes
  4. (d) Mughal arches
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Massive thick walls with bastions

The correct answer is (b) Massive thick walls with bastions.
Rajput forts like Chittorgarh (Rajasthan) and Mehrangarh (Jodhpur) are primarily defined by their massive thick stone walls with bastions ( burjs /towers) at regular intervals. These fortifications were built for strategic defensive purposes — thick walls could withstand siege weapons, and bastions allowed defenders to cover flanking attacks.
(a) Lotus motifs: While decorative lotus motifs appear in Rajput art and architecture, they are an ornamentation feature, not the primary defensive characteristic of these forts.
(c) Stupa-shaped domes: Stupas are Buddhist structures; Rajput forts are characterized by ramparts and bastions, not stupa domes.
(d) Mughal arches: Mughal architecture features cusped arches; Rajput forts predate Mughal architectural influence and are defined by their defensive walls.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q3. Women's wrestling was first included in the Olympic Games in:

  1. (a) 1996 Atlanta
  2. (b) 2000 Sydney
  3. (c) 2004 Athens
  4. (d) 2008 Beijing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2004 Athens

The correct answer is (c) 2004 Athens.
Women's wrestling (freestyle) was first included in the Olympic Games at Athens 2004, Greece. It debuted with four weight categories. India's Alka Tomar was among the participants. Before 2004, only men's wrestling was part of the Olympics.
(a) 1996 Atlanta: Women's wrestling was not part of the 1996 Atlanta Olympics.
(b) 2000 Sydney: Women's wrestling was not yet included in the 2000 Sydney Olympics.
(d) 2008 Beijing: Women's wrestling had already been included in Athens 2004; Beijing 2008 was the second Olympics with women's wrestling.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q4. The maximum length of a hockey stick allowed by FIH rules is:

  1. (a) 105 cm
  2. (b) 103 cm
  3. (c) 110 cm
  4. (d) 120 cm
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 105 cm

The correct answer is (a) 105 cm.
According to the Rules of Hockey set by the International Hockey Federation (FIH), the maximum permitted length of a field hockey stick is 105 cm (approximately 41.3 inches). The stick must also weigh between 340 g and 790 g.
(b) 103 cm: Not the FIH-prescribed maximum length for hockey sticks.
(c) 110 cm: Exceeds the FIH-prescribed maximum of 105 cm; not permitted.
(d) 120 cm: Well above the maximum permitted length; not FIH-compliant.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q5. Who authored The Sea of Poppies, a historical novel exploring opium trade, colonial exploitation, and migration in India prior to the First Opium War?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Vikram Seth
  3. (c) Shashi Tharoor
  4. (d) Rohinton Mistry
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

The correct answer is (a) Amitav Ghosh.
Amitav Ghosh wrote The Sea of Poppies (2008), the first book of his Ibis Trilogy. The novel explores the opium trade in colonial India, the cultivation of poppies by indentured farmers in Bihar, and the migration of indentured laborers. It was shortlisted for the Man Booker Prize.
(b) Vikram Seth: Author of A Suitable Boy and The Golden Gate; not associated with The Sea of Poppies.
(c) Shashi Tharoor: Known for political non-fiction and novels like The Great Indian Novel; not the author of The Sea of Poppies.
(d) Rohinton Mistry: Canadian-Indian author known for A Fine Balance and Such a Long Journey; not the author of The Sea of Poppies.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q6. Chhau dance is primarily performed in which Indian states, blending martial, folk, and tribal elements into dynamic performances with masks and vibrant movements?

  1. (a) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand
  2. (b) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka
  3. (c) Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand

The correct answer is (a) Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand.
Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance form with three distinct traditions: Seraikella Chhau (Jharkhand), Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha), and Purulia Chhau (West Bengal). Each style has different characteristics — Seraikella and Purulia Chhau use masks, while Mayurbhanj Chhau does not. UNESCO inscribed Chhau on the Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2010.
(b) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka: These states have their own folk dance traditions (Lavani, Garba, Dollu Kunitha ); Chhau is not associated with them.
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh: These states have Bhangra, Giddha , and Nati as folk dances; not Chhau .
(d) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka: South Indian classical and folk dance traditions; Chhau is an eastern Indian tradition.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q7. Which author is known for the novel A House for Mr Biswas, portraying the struggles of identity, family, and colonial legacies in Indo-Caribbean life?

  1. (a) V.S. Naipaul
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) Rohinton Mistry
  4. (d) Jhumpa Lahiri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) V.S. Naipaul

The correct answer is (a) V.S. Naipaul.
V.S. Naipaul ( Vidiadhar Surajprasad Naipaul, 1932-2018) wrote A House for Mr Biswas (1961), considered his masterpiece. The novel portrays the life of Mohun Biswas, a man of Indian descent in Trinidad, struggling to establish his own identity and own a house — a metaphor for independence and self-determination in a post-colonial society. Naipaul won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2001.
(b) Salman Rushdie: Indian-British author known for Midnight's Children and The Satanic Verses; not the author of A House for Mr Biswas.
(c) Rohinton Mistry: Canadian-Indian author known for A Fine Balance (set in India); not the author.
(d) Jhumpa Lahiri: Known for The Namesake and Interpreter of Maladies; not the author of A House for Mr Biswas.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q8. Who authored The Kite Runner, a novel reflecting Afghanistan's tumultuous history, family bonds, and redemption, set against political upheaval and personal betrayal?

  1. (a) Khaled Hosseini
  2. (b) Orhan Pamuk
  3. (c) Mohsin Hamid
  4. (d) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Khaled Hosseini

The correct answer is (a) Khaled Hosseini.
Khaled Hosseini, an Afghan-American author, wrote The Kite Runner (2003). The novel follows Amir, a boy from Kabul, and his friend Hassan, set against the backdrop of Afghanistan's political upheavals from the fall of monarchy to the Taliban regime. It explores themes of betrayal, redemption, and father-son relationships.
(b) Orhan Pamuk: Turkish Nobel laureate known for Snow and My Name is Red; not the author of The Kite Runner.
(c) Mohsin Hamid: Pakistani author known for The Reluctant Fundamentalist and Exit West; not the author of The Kite Runner.
(d) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie: Nigerian author known for Half of a Yellow Sun and Americanah ; not the author of The Kite Runner.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q9. Sitar gained global popularity through the efforts of which musician, who introduced Indian classical music to international audiences in the 20th century?

  1. (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar
  2. (b) Ustad Bismillah Khan
  3. (c) Ali Akbar Khan
  4. (d) L. Subramaniam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar

The correct answer is (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar.
Pandit Ravi Shankar (1920-2012) is credited with bringing Indian classical music — specifically the sitar — to international audiences. His collaborations with George Harrison of The Beatles and his performances at Woodstock (1969) and the Concert for Bangladesh (1971) made him a global icon. He received three Grammy Awards and was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1999.
(b) Ustad Bismillah Khan: Master of the shehnai (oboe-like instrument); not the primary figure who introduced Indian classical music globally through the sitar.
(c) Ali Akbar Khan: Renowned sarod player who also contributed to global appreciation of Indian music; but the sitar's global popularity is most associated with Ravi Shankar.
(d) L. Subramaniam: Renowned violinist; contributes to Indian classical music globally but not specifically known for introducing the sitar.
Tribes, Languages and Religions · Tribes by state

Q10. The 'Gond' tribe is one of the largest tribal groups, found mainly in?

  1. (a) North-East India
  2. (b) Central India
  3. (c) South India
  4. (d) Himalayan Region
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central India

The correct answer is (b) Central India.
The Gond tribe is one of India's largest tribal communities and is found mainly in Central India — primarily in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh. They are Dravidian-speaking people known for their distinctive Gond art (Gondi painting).
(a) North-East India: The northeastern states have their own distinct tribal communities (Naga, Mizo, Bodo, etc.); Gond tribes are not predominantly found there.
(c) South India: While some Gond presence exists in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, their primary concentration is in Central India.
(d) Himalayan Region: The Himalayan region has its own tribal communities (Gujjar, Ladakhi, Bhotia , etc.); not primarily where Gond tribes are found.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q11. Sopana Sangeetham is a classical music tradition associated with temple rituals. From which Indian state does this devotional music style originate?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kerala

The correct answer is (a) Kerala.
Sopana Sangeetham is a classical devotional music tradition from Kerala, associated with temple rituals. It is characterized by slow, meditative singing at the sopa (steps) leading to the inner sanctum ( sreekovil ) of Kerala temples. It uses the sopana raga system and is accompanied by the idakka drum. The legendary singer Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer and others propagated this art form.
(b) Karnataka: Has its own classical traditions (Carnatic music, Harikatha); Sopana Sangeetham is specific to Kerala.
(c) Tamil Nadu: Known for Carnatic classical music and Bharatanatyam; Sopana Sangeetham is not from Tamil Nadu.
(d) Odisha: Known for Odissi music and dance traditions; Sopana Sangeetham is specific to Kerala.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian armed forces - structure and ranks

Q12. India's only tri-service command located in the Indian Ocean region is at which location, combining the Army, Navy, and Air Force under a unified command?

  1. (a) Lakshadweep
  2. (b) Car Nicobar
  3. (c) Port Blair
  4. (d) Kavaratti
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Port Blair

The correct answer is (c) Port Blair.
India's only tri-service (joint) command is the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), headquartered at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Established in 2001, it integrates the Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, and Indian Coast Guard under a single unified command. It is strategically located in the Indian Ocean region.
(a) Lakshadweep: A Union Territory in the Arabian Sea; has INS Dweeprakshak but no tri-service command.
(b) Car Nicobar: An island in the Andaman & Nicobar group; hosts an Air Force station but not the tri-service command HQ.
(d) Kavaratti: The capital of Lakshadweep; not the location of the tri-service command.
Space, Defence and Technology · International space missions and agencies

Q13. Which was the first artificial satellite to orbit Earth, marking the beginning of the space age in 1957?

  1. (a) Sputnik 1
  2. (b) Explorer 1
  3. (c) Vanguard 1
  4. (d) Luna 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sputnik 1

The correct answer is (a) Sputnik 1.
Sputnik 1, launched by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957, became the first artificial satellite to orbit Earth, marking the beginning of the Space Age. It completed one orbit every 96 minutes and transmitted radio signals for 21 days before its batteries died.
(b) Explorer 1: The first American satellite, launched on January 31, 1958 — over three months after Sputnik 1.
(c) Vanguard 1: Launched by the USA on March 17, 1958; the oldest satellite still in orbit, but not the first.
(d) Luna 1: Launched by the Soviet Union in January 1959; it was the first spacecraft to escape Earth's gravity and reach the vicinity of the Moon; not an Earth-orbiting satellite.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q14. The "Queen's Gambit Declined" is an opening strategy in which sport, emphasizing central control and a solid positional approach?

  1. (a) Chess
  2. (b) Table Tennis
  3. (c) Badminton
  4. (d) Volleyball
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chess

The correct answer is (a) Chess.
The 'Queen's Gambit Declined' (QGD) is one of the most classical and popular opening strategies in Chess . It arises after the moves 1.d4 d5 2.c4 e6, where Black declines White's gambit pawn offer (c4 pawn) and instead builds a solid, positional defense. It is renowned for emphasis on central control and long-term strategic play.
(b) Table Tennis: Uses terms like 'serve,' 'rally,' 'backhand,' 'topspin'; no concept of 'gambit' or 'opening theory' as in chess.
(c) Badminton: Uses terms like 'smash,' 'net shot,' 'clear'; no strategic 'openings' as in chess.
(d) Volleyball: Uses terms like 'spike,' 'block,' 'set'; no opening strategy nomenclature like chess.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q15. All India Senior National Shooting Championship is conducted by which governing body for shooting sports in India?

  1. (a) National Rifle Association of India
  2. (b) Indian Olympic Association
  3. (c) Sports Authority of India
  4. (d) National Anti-Doping Agency
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Rifle Association of India

The correct answer is (a) National Rifle Association of India.
The National Rifle Association of India (NRAI), founded in 1951, is the national governing body for shooting sports in India. It is affiliated with the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) and the Indian Olympic Association. NRAI organizes the All India Senior National Shooting Championship and selects athletes for international competitions.
(b) Indian Olympic Association: The umbrella body for all Olympic sports in India; does not directly conduct shooting championships.
(c) Sports Authority of India: A government body responsible for infrastructure and elite athlete training; does not conduct sport-specific national championships.
(d) National Anti-Doping Agency: Manages doping control and testing for Indian athletes; does not conduct shooting championships.

Current Affairs (5)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q16. Nayab Singh Saini led the BJP to victory in the 2024 Haryana assembly elections. He was first made the Chief Minister in March 2024, replacing whom?

  1. (a) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
  2. (b) Anil Vij
  3. (c) Manohar Lal Khattar
  4. (d) Dushyant Chautala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manohar Lal Khattar

The correct answer is (c) Manohar Lal Khattar.
Manohar Lal Khattar served as Chief Minister of Haryana from October 2014 to March 2024. He resigned in March 2024 when he was appointed as Union Minister in the Modi government. Nayab Singh Saini replaced him as Chief Minister in March 2024 and subsequently led the BJP to victory in the October 2024 Haryana Assembly elections.
(a) Bhupinder Singh Hooda: Congress leader and former CM of Haryana (2005-2014); was in opposition at the time.
(b) Anil Vij: Senior BJP leader from Haryana; was a Cabinet Minister, not the CM.
(d) Dushyant Chautala: Leader of JJP and former Deputy CM of Haryana; not the CM replaced by Nayab Saini.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q17. Who was appointed as the new Governor of Goa by the President of India on 14 July 2025?

  1. (a) Ashim Kumar Ghosh
  2. (b) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju
  3. (c) Kavinder Gupta
  4. (d) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju

The correct answer is (b) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju.
Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju was appointed as the Governor of Goa on 14 July 2025 by the President of India. He is a prominent political figure who previously served as Union Minister of Civil Aviation.
(a) Ashim Kumar Ghosh: Not the person appointed as Governor of Goa on this date.
(c) Kavinder Gupta: BJP leader from Jammu & Kashmir; not appointed as Goa's Governor in July 2025.
(d) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar: Served as Governor of Bihar and Kerala; not appointed as Goa's Governor in July 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q18. Which ministry organised the Chintan Shivir held in Udaipur in January 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
  3. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
  4. (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development.
The Chintan Shivir held in Udaipur, Rajasthan in January 2025 was organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Such Chintan Shivirs (brainstorming retreats) are held to discuss policy implementation, new initiatives, and review performance of ministry programs.
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare: Not the organiser of this particular Chintan Shivir in Udaipur, January 2025.
(c) Ministry of Rural Development: Organises its own programs; not the organiser of this specific event.
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment: A different ministry with its own programs; not the organiser of this Chintan Shivir .
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q19. A rare 'Golden Tiger', known for a color variation, was spotted in which national park in 2024?

  1. (a) Jim Corbett
  2. (b) Bandipur
  3. (c) Ranthambore
  4. (d) Kaziranga
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kaziranga

The correct answer is (d) Kaziranga.
In 2024, a rare Golden Tiger (also called a Tabby Tiger or Strawberry Tiger) was spotted in Kaziranga National Park, Assam. The golden coloration is caused by a recessive mutation affecting the pigmentation genes. Kaziranga, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is home to a significant tiger population.
(a) Jim Corbett: A major tiger reserve in Uttarakhand; golden tiger was not the 2024 sighting noted here.
(b) Bandipur : A tiger reserve in Karnataka; not the location of the 2024 golden tiger sighting.
(c) Ranthambore: A famous tiger reserve in Rajasthan; not the location of the 2024 golden tiger sighting.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q20. Which ISRO launch vehicle successfully delivered the NISAR satellite to orbit?

  1. (a) PSLV
  2. (b) GSLV-F16
  3. (c) GSLV Mk-III
  4. (d) SLV
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) GSLV-F16

The correct answer is (b) GSLV-F16.
The NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite, a joint Earth observation mission by NASA and ISRO, was successfully launched aboard ISRO's GSLV-F16 launch vehicle on March 30, 2025. NISAR is designed to observe changes in the Earth's surface and is one of the most advanced radar imaging satellites ever built.
(a) PSLV: India's workhorse rocket primarily used for smaller and medium payloads in polar orbits; NISAR was launched on GSLV-F16 due to its heavier mass (~2,800 kg).
(c) GSLV Mk-III (LVM3): The heaviest Indian launch vehicle, used for heavier geostationary payloads; NISAR was launched on GSLV-F16.
(d) SLV: India's first rocket, launched in 1979 and retired; used for small payloads; not capable of launching NISAR.

Polity (8)

Union Executive · Attorney General and Solicitor General

Q21. What is the main constitutional role of the Attorney General?

  1. (a) To be the Chief Justice of India
  2. (b) To be the chief legal advisor to the Government of India
  3. (c) To be the Union Law Minister
  4. (d) To be the head of the CBI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To be the chief legal advisor to the Government of India

The correct answer is (b) To be the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
Article 76 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Attorney General of India. The Attorney General is appointed by the President and acts as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India. He also represents the Union in the Supreme Court.
(a) To be the Chief Justice of India: The CJI is the head of the Supreme Court, appointed by the President on seniority conventions; a completely separate position.
(c) To be the Union Law Minister: The Union Law Minister is a cabinet minister and member of Parliament; a different position from the AG.
(d) To be the head of the CBI: The CBI director is appointed by a committee; has no constitutional basis and is not the AG's role.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. Which parliamentary body examined the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 after its introduction in the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Standing Committee on Defence
  2. (b) Standing Committee on Finance
  3. (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs
  4. (d) Standing Committee on Personnel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs

The correct answer is (c) Standing Committee on Home Affairs.
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), was introduced in the Lok Sabha and referred to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs for examination. Since BNSS relates to criminal procedure — a subject under the Home Affairs domain — the Home Affairs committee examined it.
(a) Standing Committee on Defence : Examines matters related to defence , armed forces, and defence production; not the appropriate committee for criminal procedure law.
(b) Standing Committee on Finance: Examines financial legislation and economic matters; not criminal procedure.
(d) Standing Committee on Personnel: Examines matters related to DoPT , CBI, and pension; not criminal procedure reform.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q23. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, a sessions court must frame charges within how many days from the first hearing on such charges?

  1. (a) Thirty days
  2. (b) Forty-five days
  3. (c) Sixty days
  4. (d) Ninety days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sixty days

The correct answer is (c) Sixty days.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), a Sessions Court is mandated to frame charges within 60 days from the date of the first hearing on the charge framing. This provision was introduced to ensure faster trial proceedings and timely justice delivery.
(a) Thirty days: Not the prescribed time limit under BNSS for Sessions Courts to frame charges.
(b) Forty-five days: Not the prescribed time limit; BNSS mandates 60 days.
(d) Ninety days: 90 days is mentioned in some other BNSS provisions (e.g., completion of investigation), but for sessions court charge framing, the limit is 60 days.
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q24. Who chaired the Constituent Assembly of India, overseeing the drafting of the Constitution, and later became the first President of independent India?

  1. (a) Rajendra Prasad
  2. (b) B.R. Ambedkar
  3. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. (d) Sardar Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajendra Prasad

The correct answer is (a) Rajendra Prasad.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as the President (Chairman) of the Constituent Assembly of India from December 9, 1946 until it completed the Constitution on November 26, 1949. He then became the first President of independent India (1950-1962), serving two terms.
(b) B.R. Ambedkar: Chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constitution (not the Constituent Assembly itself); known as the Father of the Indian Constitution; became India's first Law Minister.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru: Became India's first Prime Minister; moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly; not the Assembly's president.
(d) Sardar Patel: Served as India's first Home Minister and played a crucial role in integration of princely states; not the Constituent Assembly's president.
Constitutional Development and Making · Committees of the Constituent Assembly

Q25. Who served as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly's Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee, responsible for drafting key civil liberties?

  1. (a) H.C. Mookherjee
  2. (b) G.V. Mvalankar
  3. (c) J.B. Kripalani
  4. (d) A.V. Thakkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) J.B. Kripalani

The correct answer is (c) J.B. Kripalani.
J.B. Kripalani (Jivatram Bhagwandas Kripalani, also known as Acharya Kripalani) served as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly's Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee. This sub-committee was responsible for drafting the fundamental rights provisions that became Part III of the Indian Constitution.
(a) H.C. Mookherjee : Served as Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly; not the chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee.
(b) G.V. Mavalankar : First Speaker of the Lok Sabha; not directly associated with the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee chairmanship.
(d) A.V. Thakkar: Also known as Thakkar Bapa; a social worker active in tribal welfare; not the chairman of this committee.
Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q26. Which constitutional amendment subject requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority approval by Parliament before becoming effective under Article 368(2)?

  1. (a) Creation of new states
  2. (b) Change in Union List
  3. (c) Official languages
  4. (d) Formation of municipalities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Change in Union List

The correct answer is (b) Change in Union List.
Under Article 368(2) of the Indian Constitution, certain provisions require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to a special majority in both Houses of Parliament. These include changes to the Seventh Schedule (which contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List). A change in the Union List requires such ratification because it affects the distribution of powers between the Centre and States.
(a) Creation of new states: Done under Article 3 by Parliament alone with a simple majority; does not require State Legislature ratification.
(c) Official languages: Changes to provisions in Part XVII can generally be done without mandatory State ratification.
(d) Formation of municipalities: Governed by Part IX-A; not specifically requiring State ratification under Article 368(2).
Amendments and Important Articles · Basic structure doctrine

Q27. In which landmark Supreme Court judgment was the "Basic Structure Doctrine" established, limiting Parliament's amending powers by prohibiting changes that alter the Constitution's essential features?

  1. (a) Golaknath
  2. (b) Kesavananda Bharati
  3. (c) Maneka Gandhi
  4. (d) Berubari Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kesavananda Bharati

The correct answer is (b) Kesavananda Bharati.
The Basic Structure Doctrine was established in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973) case, decided by a 13-judge Constitutional Bench by a 7:6 majority. The Court ruled that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure' — features like federalism, secularism, democracy, and judicial review.
(a) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967): Held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights; was overruled in Kesavananda Bharati.
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978): Expanded the interpretation of Article 21 (Right to Life); did not establish the Basic Structure Doctrine.
(d) Berubari Union case (1960): Dealt with the transfer of territory to Pakistan; not related to the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q28. The 'Prohibition of Child Marriage Act' (PCMA), which sets the current legal age of marriage, was passed in?

  1. (a) 1955
  2. (b) 1978
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2006

The correct answer is (c) 2006.
The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) was enacted in 2006, replacing the Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929. PCMA sets the minimum age of marriage at 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys. It declares child marriages voidable (not automatically void) and provides for punishment of those who promote child marriages.
(a) 1955: The Hindu Marriage Act was passed in 1955, setting minimum marriage ages, but PCMA came in 2006.
(b) 1978: The Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act of 1978 amended the 1929 Act, raising the minimum age to 18 for girls and 21 for boys; but the current PCMA was passed in 2006.
(d) 2019: No major Child Marriage legislation was passed in 2019; PCMA has been in force since 2006.

Geography (3)

India - Population and Census · Religious and linguistic composition (census data)

Q29. According to the 2011 Census, which is the second most spoken language in India after Hindi?

  1. (a) Marathi
  2. (b) Telugu
  3. (c) Tamil
  4. (d) Bengali
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bengali

The correct answer is (d) Bengali.
According to the 2011 Census, the most spoken language in India is Hindi (~52.83 crore speakers), and the second most spoken language is Bengali (~9.72 crore speakers). Bengali is the official language of West Bengal and Tripura.
(a) Marathi: Ranked 4th in India with approximately 8.3 crore speakers.
(b) Telugu: Ranked 3rd in India with approximately 8.1 crore speakers.
(c) Tamil: Ranked 5th in India with approximately 6.9 crore speakers.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q30. What is the main feature of the Northern Plain?

  1. (a) Formed by volcanic activity
  2. (b) Formed by rivers and alluvium
  3. (c) Mountain ranges
  4. (d) Desert landforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Formed by rivers and alluvium

The correct answer is (b) Formed by rivers and alluvium.
The Great Northern Plain (Indo-Gangetic Plain) was formed by the deposition of alluvial soil carried by rivers including the Ganga, Yamuna, Indus, and Brahmaputra over millions of years. It is one of the most fertile plains in the world, formed by fluvial (river) activity.
(a) Formed by volcanic activity: Volcanic plains are formed by lava flows; the Northern Plain was formed by river deposition, not volcanic activity.
(c) Mountain ranges: Mountain ranges are formed by tectonic activity; the Northern Plain is a flat alluvial plain, not mountain ranges.
(d) Desert landforms: The Thar Desert in Rajasthan has desert landforms; the Northern Plain is primarily fertile alluvial land.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q31. Which country is the closest to India by sea, representing the shortest maritime distance and strategic proximity in the Indian Ocean region?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Maldives
  3. (c) Myanmar
  4. (d) Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sri Lanka

The correct answer is (a) Sri Lanka.
Sri Lanka is the closest country to India by sea. The Palk Strait, which separates India (Tamil Nadu) from Sri Lanka, is only about 30-60 km wide at its narrowest point (between Rameswaram and Talaimannar ). This makes Sri Lanka India's nearest maritime neighbor.
(b) Maldives: Located approximately 700 km from India's southwestern coast (Kerala); much farther than Sri Lanka.
(c) Myanmar: India shares a land border with Myanmar in the northeast; by sea, it is significantly farther than Sri Lanka.
(d) Thailand: Located much farther from India than Sri Lanka; not India's closest maritime neighbor.

Modern History (4)

Gandhian Era · Simon Commission and Nehru Report

Q32. What was the recommendation of the Nehru Report (1928)?

  1. (a) Purna Swaraj and joint electorates
  2. (b) Purna Swaraj and separate electorates
  3. (c) Dominion status and joint electorates
  4. (d) Dominion status and separate electorates
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dominion status and joint electorates

The correct answer is (c) Dominion status and joint electorates.
The Nehru Report (1928), chaired by Motilal Nehru, recommended: (1) Dominion Status for India (not complete independence/Purna Swaraj — that demand came later at the Lahore Congress, 1929), and (2) Joint electorates (rejecting the Muslim League's demand for separate electorates, instead recommending reserved seats within joint electorates).
(a) Purna Swaraj and joint electorates: Purna Swaraj (complete independence) was not recommended in the Nehru Report; it was demanded after the Report's failure at the Lahore Congress 1929.
(b) Purna Swaraj and separate electorates: Both elements are incorrect for the Nehru Report.
(d) Dominion status and separate electorates: The Nehru Report specifically rejected separate electorates.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Home Rule Leagues

Q33. From which of the following was the early 20th-century Home Rule Movement in India, which aimed at promoting self-government within the British Empire and mobilizing mass nationalist sentiment, inspired?

  1. (a) The American Civil War
  2. (b) The French Revolution
  3. (c) The Irish Home Rule movement
  4. (d) The Boer War
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Irish Home Rule movement

The correct answer is (c) The Irish Home Rule movement.
The Home Rule Movement in India (1916) was launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant, who was directly inspired by the Irish Home Rule movement led by Irish nationalists seeking self-governance within the British Empire. The concept of 'Home Rule' — autonomy within the Empire rather than complete independence — was directly borrowed from the Irish context.
(a) The American Civil War (1861-65): A conflict about slavery and states' rights in the USA; not directly related to the Indian Home Rule Movement.
(b) The French Revolution (1789): Inspired ideas of liberty and equality globally, but the specific concept of 'Home Rule' came from Ireland.
(d) The Boer War (1899-1902): A colonial conflict in South Africa; while it influenced Indian opinions on British imperialism, it was not the direct inspiration for the Home Rule Movement.
British Administration and Policies · Land revenue systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)

Q34. Why was the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 enacted during the late 19th century under British India?

  1. (a) Standardizing land revenue procedures in Punjab
  2. (b) Expanding the powers and revenue claims of zamindars
  3. (c) Protecting tenant farmers from arbitrary eviction by landlords
  4. (d) Encouraging commercial indigo cultivation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Protecting tenant farmers from arbitrary eviction by landlords

The correct answer is (c) Protecting tenant farmers from arbitrary eviction by landlords.
The Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 was enacted to protect tenant farmers (ryots) from arbitrary eviction by zamindars and to codify the rights and obligations of both landlords and tenants under the Permanent Settlement of 1793. It granted certain occupancy rights to raiyats who had been cultivating land continuously.
(a) Standardizing land revenue in Punjab: The Punjab Land Revenue Act (1887) dealt with Punjab; not the Bengal Tenancy Act.
(b) Expanding zamindars' powers: The Act was specifically designed to LIMIT zamindar powers and protect tenants, not expand landlord powers.
(d) Encouraging indigo cultivation: The Indigo Revolt occurred earlier (1859-60); the 1885 Act was about general tenancy rights, not indigo cultivation.
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Pre-Congress political associations

Q35. Which organization was formed after the Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883, which exposed racial tensions in colonial India by proposing that Indian judges could try European offenders?

  1. (a) Anglo-Indian Protection Society
  2. (b) India Reform Society
  3. (c) European Defence Association
  4. (d) British Indian League
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) European Defence Association

The correct answer is (c) European Defence Association.
The Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883 exposed deep racial tensions in British India. The bill proposed allowing Indian magistrates to try European subjects — something Europeans fiercely opposed. In response, the European settler community formed the European and Anglo-Indian Defence Association (commonly called the European Defence Association) to oppose the bill and defend their racial privileges.
(a) Anglo-Indian Protection Society: Not the primary organization formed from the Ilbert Bill controversy.
(b) India Reform Society: Not associated with the Ilbert Bill controversy.
(d) British Indian League: Not the organization formed specifically in response to the Ilbert Bill controversy.

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Numericals on gravitation

Q36. If Mars' gravity is 3.7 m/s², what would be the weight of a 60 kg astronaut on Mars?

  1. (a) 222 N
  2. (b) 588 N
  3. (c) 180 N
  4. (d) 300 N
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 222 N

The correct answer is (a) 222 N.
Weight = Mass × Acceleration due to gravity
Weight on Mars = 60 kg × 3.7 m/s² = 222 N
This shows that on Mars, the astronaut would weigh about 38% of their Earth weight (60 × 9.8 = 588 N on Earth).
(b) 588 N: This would be the weight on Earth (60 × 9.8 = 588 N); not on Mars.
(c) 180 N: This would correspond to gravity of 3.0 m/s² (60 × 3.0 = 180 N); not the value given.
(d) 300 N: This would correspond to gravity of 5.0 m/s² (60 × 5.0 = 300 N); not Mars' gravity.

Economics (5)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Tourism and culture schemes

Q37. The 'Global Engagement Scheme' is implemented by which Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of External Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Culture
  3. (c) Ministry of Tourism
  4. (d) Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Culture

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Culture.
The Global Engagement Scheme is a cultural diplomacy scheme implemented by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It aims to promote India's art, culture, and heritage internationally by supporting cultural exchanges, performances, and exhibitions abroad.
(a) Ministry of External Affairs: Handles foreign policy and diplomacy; cultural schemes are under Ministry of Culture.
(c) Ministry of Tourism: Promotes India as a tourist destination; not the implementing ministry for the Global Engagement Scheme.
(d) Ministry of Information & Broadcasting: Handles media, press, and broadcasting; not the implementing ministry for this cultural scheme.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q38. Jal Jeevan Mission, providing functional tap water to rural households, was launched in:

  1. (a) January 2018
  2. (b) August 2019
  3. (c) March 2020
  4. (d) July 2021
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) August 2019

The correct answer is (b) August 2019.
Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was launched on August 15, 2019 (Independence Day) by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Its goal is to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household in India by 2024. It is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
(a) January 2018: Jal Jeevan Mission had not been launched in January 2018.
(c) March 2020: JJM was already operational; not its launch date.
(d) July 2021: JJM was already underway with significant progress by July 2021; not its launch date.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q39. Which mission emphasizes research, innovation, market development, skilling, and export promotion in the field of technical textiles?

  1. (a) National Advanced Fibres and Materials Mission (NAFMM)
  2. (b) National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)
  3. (c) Strategic Textile Innovation and Competitiveness Mission (STICM)
  4. (d) Integrated Smart Textiles Development Mission (ISTDM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)

The correct answer is (b) National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM).
The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) was launched in 2020 with a budget of ₹1,480 crore. It focuses on research and innovation, market development, promotion and market development, export promotion, and skilling and education in technical textiles — textiles used in agriculture, medical, geo-textiles, defence , space, and infrastructure sectors.
(a) NAFMM: Focuses on advanced fibres and materials; different from the NTTM's specific focus on technical textiles.
(c) STICM: Not the standard government mission name for technical textiles promotion.
(d) ISTDM: Not the standard government mission name for this purpose.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q40. What is the technical term for the government's total income from all sources, including taxes?

  1. (a) Government Expenditure
  2. (b) Government Revenue
  3. (c) Government Deficit
  4. (d) Government Debt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Government Revenue

The correct answer is (b) Government Revenue.
Government Revenue refers to the total income of the government from all sources — including tax revenue (income tax, GST, customs duty, etc.) and non-tax revenue (dividends, interest, fees, fines, etc.). It is used to finance government expenditure.
(a) Government Expenditure: The total spending by the government on public services, infrastructure, salaries, and debt repayment; the opposite side of the fiscal equation.
(c) Government Deficit: The shortfall when government expenditure exceeds government revenue (Deficit = Expenditure minus Revenue); not the term for total income.
(d) Government Debt: The accumulated borrowings of the government over time; not the term for annual income.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q41. Which of the following countries is a founding member of BRICS, the association of major emerging economies promoting economic cooperation and development?

  1. (a) Indonesia
  2. (b) South Africa
  3. (c) Saudi Arabia
  4. (d) Mexico
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) South Africa

The correct answer is (b) South Africa.
Among the options given, South Africa is the only BRICS member country. While Brazil, Russia, India, and China formed the original BRIC grouping in 2009, South Africa joined in 2010, forming BRICS. South Africa has been a core member of BRICS since its inclusion and participated in its annual summits.
(a) Indonesia: Was invited to join BRICS as a new member in 2024-2025; not among the original members.
(c) Saudi Arabia: Was invited to join BRICS as a new member in 2023-2024; not among the original or early members.
(d) Mexico: Is not a BRICS member; it is a member of G20, OECD, and USMCA.

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q42. The term ' Vesara ' refers to an architectural style that developed in which Indian region, combining elements of North and South Indian temple designs?

  1. (a) North India
  2. (b) Deccan
  3. (c) East India
  4. (d) West India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Deccan

The correct answer is (b) Deccan.
Vesara is a hybrid architectural style that developed in the Deccan (Deccan Plateau) region, combining elements of the Nagara (North Indian) style and the Dravidian (South Indian) style. The Chalukya , Rashtrakuta, and Hoysala dynasties developed this eclectic style. Temples at Aihole , Badami, and Pattadakal are classic examples.
(a) North India: North India developed the Nagara style of temple architecture with tall curvilinear shikhara; not the Vesara hybrid style.
(c) East India: The Eastern style (Kalinga architecture) developed in Odisha; different from the Vesara hybrid.
(d) West India: The Solanki/Maru-Gurjara style developed in Gujarat and Rajasthan; distinct from the Deccan Vesara style.

Medieval History (3)

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of North India (Kabir, Ramananda, Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai)

Q43. Who was the Bhakti saint who preached 'Nirguna' bhakti (formless God) and whose verses are in the 'Bijak'?

  1. (a) Surdas
  2. (b) Tulsidas
  3. (c) Kabir
  4. (d) Ramananda
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kabir

The correct answer is (c) Kabir.
Kabir (1440-1518 CE) was a mystic poet and saint who preached Nirguna bhakti — devotion to a formless, attributeless God (Nirguna = without qualities), rejecting idol worship and ritualism. His verses, known as ' dohas ' and 'pads', were compiled in the Bijak, the holy scripture of the Kabir Panth sect.
(a) Surdas: Preached Saguna bhakti (God with form/qualities), specifically devotion to Lord Krishna; author of Sur Sagar.
(b) Tulsidas: Preached Saguna bhakti to Lord Rama; wrote Ramcharitmanas; not associated with Nirguna tradition.
(d) Ramananda: Kabir's guru who bridged the gap between Vaishnava Saguna tradition and Nirguna saints; however, the Bijak is specifically Kabir's compilation.
Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Sufi orders and saints

Q44. The 'Dargah' (tomb) of the famous Sufi saint Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti is located in which city?

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Agra
  3. (c) Fatehpur Sikri
  4. (d) Ajmer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ajmer

The correct answer is (d) Ajmer.
The Dargah (shrine/tomb) of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti (1141-1230 CE), the founder of the Chishti order of Sufism in India, is located in Ajmer, Rajasthan. The Ajmer Dargah is one of the most important Sufi shrines in the world and is visited by millions of devotees of all faiths.
(a) Delhi: Delhi has the Dargah of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya and Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki; not Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
(b) Agra: Agra is known for the Taj Mahal; not the Dargah of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
(c) Fatehpur Sikri: The Dargah of Sheikh Salim Chishti (of the same Chishti order) is in Fatehpur Sikri; but Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti's dargah is in Ajmer.
Marathas · Shivaji - life and conquests

Q45. In which fort was Shivaji, the founder of the Maratha Empire, born?

  1. (a) Raigad
  2. (b) Shivneri
  3. (c) Pratapgad
  4. (d) Torna
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shivneri

The correct answer is (b) Shivneri .
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was born on February 19, 1630 (some sources say 1627) at Shivneri Fort near Junnar in present-day Pune district, Maharashtra. The fort is named ' Shivneri ' after the local deity Goddess Shivai, from whom Shivaji derived his name.
(a) Raigad: Became Shivaji's capital and is where he was crowned as Chhatrapati in 1674; not his birthplace.
(c) Pratapgad : The fort where Shivaji killed the Adilshahi general Afzal Khan in 1659; not his birthplace.
(d) Torna: The first fort captured by Shivaji at age 16 in 1646, beginning his military campaigns; not his birthplace.

Biology (4)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood - components and functions

Q46. Which blood component initiates clotting by releasing factors that trigger coagulation when a blood vessel is injured?

  1. (a) RBC
  2. (b) WBC
  3. (c) Platelets
  4. (d) Plasma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Platelets

The correct answer is (c) Platelets.
Platelets (thrombocytes) are tiny blood cells that initiate blood clotting. When a blood vessel is injured, platelets rush to the site, stick to the damaged area, and release chemical signals (ADP, thromboxane A2) that trigger the coagulation cascade, leading to clot formation to stop bleeding.
(a) RBC (Red Blood Cells): Carry oxygen using hemoglobin; do not initiate clotting.
(b) WBC (White Blood Cells): Part of the immune system; fight infections and foreign bodies; do not initiate clotting.
(d) Plasma: The liquid component of blood that carries blood cells, nutrients, and clotting factors; it participates in clotting but does not initiate it — platelets do.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Deficiency diseases

Q47. Which disease results from iodine deficiency, leading to thyroid gland enlargement and impaired hormone production?

  1. (a) Rickets
  2. (b) Goitre
  3. (c) Night blindness
  4. (d) Scurvy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goitre

The correct answer is (b) Goitre .
Goitre is the enlargement of the thyroid gland caused by iodine deficiency. When the body lacks sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce adequate thyroid hormones, causing the gland to enlarge (swell) in an attempt to compensate. The Government of India mandates iodization of common salt to prevent goitre .
(a) Rickets: Caused by deficiency of Vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate; leads to weakened and deformed bones in children; not caused by iodine deficiency.
(c) Night blindness: Caused by Vitamin A deficiency; impairs vision in low-light conditions; not caused by iodine deficiency.
(d) Scurvy: Caused by Vitamin C deficiency; leads to bleeding gums, fatigue, and skin problems; not caused by iodine deficiency.
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q48. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down dietary fats into fatty acids and glycerol for absorption in the human digestive system?

  1. (a) Carbohydrates
  2. (b) Proteins
  3. (c) Lipase
  4. (d) DNA
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lipase

The correct answer isLipase. [ ]
Why this option is correct:
🟢 Lipase: This is the primary digestive enzyme responsible for breaking down complex dietary lipids (fats and oils) into simpler, absorbable molecules like free fatty acids and glycerol. It is mainly produced by the pancreas (pancreatic lipase) and secreted into the small intestine. Minor amounts are also produced in the mouth (lingual lipase) and stomach (gastric lipase).
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q49. Neurons transmit signals in the nervous system. Which part of a neuron primarily receives incoming electrical signals from other neurons?

  1. (a) Axon
  2. (b) Dendrite
  3. (c) Soma
  4. (d) Myelin sheath
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dendrite

The correct answer is (b) Dendrite.
Dendrites are the branched, tree-like extensions of a neuron that primarily receive incoming electrical/chemical signals from other neurons (via synapses). They carry signals toward the cell body (soma). The name 'dendrite' comes from the Greek word for 'tree' due to their branching appearance.
(a) Axon: The long tail-like extension that carries signals AWAY from the neuron's cell body to the next neuron or effector organ; not the primary receiver.
(c) Soma (cell body): Contains the nucleus and organelles; integrates signals from dendrites but is not the primary receiver.
(d) Myelin sheath: A fatty insulating layer that wraps around the axon to speed up signal transmission; not involved in receiving signals.
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