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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 14 August 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 14 August 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Computer, Geography, Static GK, Polity, Modern History.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 14 August 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (9) · Computer (2) · Geography (6) · Static GK (5) · Polity (6) · Modern History (2) · Medieval History (1) · Economics (4) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (1) · Ancient History (1)

Current Affairs (9)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q1. In March 2025, ISRO advanced in developing which engine for LVM3?

  1. (a) Electric jet engine
  2. (b) Liquid booster
  3. (c) Turbo plasma engine
  4. (d) Semicryogenic engine
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Semicryogenic engine

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q2. On 1 May 2025, the Election Commission of India has launched how many major initiatives to improve the accuracy of voter list and ease the voting process?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 2
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q3. Which state leads the fiscal health index 2025 with a top score of 67.8?

  1. (a) Telangana
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

Defence and Security - Current · Security operations

Q4. Under guidance of which of the following organisations were the civil defence mock drills conducted under Operation Shield in Haryana in May 2025?

  1. (a) National Disaster Management Authority
  2. (b) Ministry of Defence
  3. (c) Union Ministry of Home Affairs
  4. (d) Election Commission of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Union Ministry of Home Affairs

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q5. Which indigenous radar system, developed by DRDO in 2025, is designed to enhance the capabilities of the Tejas Mk1A aircraft?

  1. (a) Revathi
  2. (b) Aslesha Mk I
  3. (c) Bharani Mk I
  4. (d) Uttam AESA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttam AESA

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q6. As per the 2025 Human Development Index (HDI) report, what is India's HDI value for 2023 that places it in the medium human development category?

  1. (a) 0.810
  2. (b) 0.496
  3. (c) 0.685
  4. (d) 0.721
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 0.685

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q7. On which date did ISRO attempt its 101ˢᵗ launch, which could not be accomplished due to technical problems during its third stage?

  1. (a) 20 May 2025
  2. (b) 16 May 2025
  3. (c) 14 May 2025
  4. (d) 18 May 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 18 May 2025

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q8. Which two parties signed a landmark Digital Trade Agreement (DTA) in May 2025 to deepen digital and economic cooperation?

  1. (a) India and Australia
  2. (b) European Union and Singapore
  3. (c) United States and Japan
  4. (d) China and South Korea
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) European Union and Singapore

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q9. In the April 2025 International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup, in which shooting event did Saurabh Chaudhary win a bronze medal?

  1. (a) Skeet Shooting
  2. (b) 25 m Rapid Fire Pistol
  3. (c) 50 m Rifle 3 Positions
  4. (d) 10 m Air Pistol
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10 m Air Pistol

Computer (2)

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q10. What does the abbreviation ASCII stand for?

  1. (a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  2. (b) Analog Signal Coding Interface Index
  3. (c) Advanced Secure Communication Interface
  4. (d) Automated System for Computer Integrated Information
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q11. What does the 'Ctrl + V' shortcut key do?

  1. (a) It cuts the selected text or files.
  2. (b) It copies the selected text or files.
  3. (c) It pastes the copied text or files.
  4. (d) It saves the current document.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It pastes the copied text or files.

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q12. Which of the following is a distinctive feature of tribal settlements in India?

  1. (a) Scattered or linear village pattern in forested or hilly areas
  2. (b) Modern infrastructure and transportation
  3. (c) Planned city layouts
  4. (d) Skyscrapers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Scattered or linear village pattern in forested or hilly areas

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q13. Which natural feature divides the Lakshadweep islands into two broad parts?

  1. (a) Equator
  2. (b) Ten Degree Channel
  3. (c) Tropic of Cancer
  4. (d) Nine Degree Channel
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nine Degree Channel

India - Agriculture · Livestock and fisheries

Q14. Which is the first State where India's first organic fish cluster was launched by the Central Government?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Meghalaya
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sikkim

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q15. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by which water body?

  1. (a) Ten Degree Channel
  2. (b) Duncan Passage
  3. (c) Gulf of Mannar
  4. (d) Nine Degree Channel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ten Degree Channel

Environment and Protected Areas · Biosphere reserves

Q16. In which of the following Indian states is the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve located?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) West Bengal

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Continental drift and plate tectonics

Q17. What happens to tectonic plates at divergent boundaries?

  1. (a) They move towards each other.
  2. (b) They stay in one place.
  3. (c) They slide past one another.
  4. (d) They move away from each other.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They move away from each other.

Static GK (5)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q18. In June 2025, a 'Maha Kumbhabhishekam' was performed after 270 years at the Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple, located in which Indian State?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala

Important Days and Themes · National days

Q19. Which edition of National Voters’ Day was celebrated on 25 January 2025 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India?

  1. (a) 20ᵗʰ
  2. (b) 10ᵗʰ
  3. (c) 5ᵗʰ
  4. (d) 15ᵗʰ
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 15ᵗʰ

Tribes, Languages and Religions · Tribes by state

Q20. Which of the following tribes is mainly found in the north-eastern part of India?

  1. (a) Nagas
  2. (b) Gonds
  3. (c) Bhils
  4. (d) Santhals
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nagas

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q21. Which of the following is a traditional folk painting style from Bihar?

  1. (a) Kalamkari
  2. (b) Warli
  3. (c) Madhubani
  4. (d) Pattachitra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhubani

Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q22. Who was the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games?

  1. (a) Milkha Singh
  2. (b) Sushil Kumar
  3. (c) Leander Paes
  4. (d) PT Usha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Milkha Singh

Polity (6)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q23. Which of the following subjects was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Education
  3. (c) Police
  4. (d) Public health
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Education

Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q24. The reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs/STs and women comes under which Article?

  1. (a) Article 243D
  2. (b) Article 243A
  3. (c) Article 243E
  4. (d) Article 243B
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 243D

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Administrative relations

Q25. Who has the power to give directions to the State Government to ensure compliance with Union laws?

  1. (a) Parliament of India
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) Supreme Court of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President of India

State Government · State Legislature - Legislative Assembly

Q26. What is the maximum strength of members in a State Legislative Assembly as per the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) 500
  2. (b) 475
  3. (c) 435
  4. (d) 450
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 500

Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q27. The 44ᵗʰ Amendment (1978) removed which of the following from the list of Fundamental Rights, converting it into a mere legal right under Article 300A?

  1. (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
  2. (b) Right to Property
  3. (c) Right to Equality
  4. (d) Right to Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Right to Property

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q28. Who were members of the States Reorganisation Commission formed in 1953?

  1. (a) Rajaji, Nehru, Bose
  2. (b) Rajendra Prasad, Patel, Rajaji
  3. (c) HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali
  4. (d) Nehru, Ambedkar, Azad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali

Modern History (2)

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Portuguese

Q29. Which of the following European powers was the first to arrive in India by sea route?

  1. (a) Portuguese
  2. (b) Dutch
  3. (c) French
  4. (d) English
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Portuguese

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q30. In which of the following regions did Rani Avantibai Lodhi of Ramgarh raise and lead an army of four thousand against the British, who had taken over the administration of her state?

  1. (a) Lucknow and Kanpur
  2. (b) North-Eastern regions of Rajasthan
  3. (c) The region of Awadh
  4. (d) Mandla region of Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mandla region of Madhya Pradesh

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate economy and market reforms

Q31. Market control under Alauddin Khilji aimed mainly to ________.

  1. (a) encourage foreign trade
  2. (b) patronise artisan guilds
  3. (c) promote luxury crafts and goods
  4. (d) check price inflation for army provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) check price inflation for army provisions

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q32. Why is infrastructure referred to as a 'universal intermediate'?

  1. (a) It is the most profitable sector.
  2. (b) It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.
  3. (c) It is universally available in every country.
  4. (d) It connects urban and rural areas.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Types of unemployment

Q33. Who is considered unemployed under the Usual Status (US) measure?

  1. (a) Someone working only one day a week
  2. (b) Someone retired from work
  3. (c) Someone not working but seeking work over a long period
  4. (d) Someone working part-time
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Someone not working but seeking work over a long period

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q34. Which of the following infrastructure initiatives is associated with urban development in India?

  1. (a) RURBAN Mission
  2. (b) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan
  4. (d) Managed Services Provider Scheme
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q35. The Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP), is a key sub-scheme under ____________.

  1. (a) National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
  2. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  3. (c) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)
  4. (d) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · Radioactivity (alpha, beta, gamma) and half-life

Q36. What is the value of one curie (Ci) in SI units of radioactivity?

  1. (a) 6.02×10⁸ disintegrations per second
  2. (b) 3.7×10⁶ disintegrations per second
  3. (c) 3.7×10¹⁰ disintegrations per second
  4. (d) 1.6×10¹⁰ disintegrations per second
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3.7×10¹⁰ disintegrations per second

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Balanced diet and roughage

Q37. Which of the following correctly represents the function of dietary fibre in the human diet?

  1. (a) Aids digestion
  2. (b) Increases cholesterol
  3. (c) Helps build muscle
  4. (d) Provides energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aids digestion

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Viral diseases

Q38. In April 2025, India developed two (Human Papillomavirus test) HPV testing kits for the diagnosis of which type of cancer?

  1. (a) Brain cancer
  2. (b) Blood cancer
  3. (c) Cervical cancer
  4. (d) Prostate cancer
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cervical cancer

Chemistry (1)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Mendeleev's periodic table

Q39. In 1869, who is credited with publishing the first widely recognized version of the periodic table?

  1. (a) John Alexander Newlands
  2. (b) Dmitri Mendeleev
  3. (c) Johann Dobereiner
  4. (d) Lothar Meyer
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dmitri Mendeleev

Ancient History (1)

Vedic Period · Rig Vedic society, polity and economy

Q40. The term gomat in the Rigveda refers to which of the following?

  1. (a) A warrior
  2. (b) A priest
  3. (c) A wealthy person
  4. (d) A milkmaid
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A wealthy person

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