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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 9 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 9 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Physics, Economics, Current Affairs, Static GK, Polity, Medieval History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 9 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Physics (1) · Economics (6) · Current Affairs (12) · Static GK (5) · Polity (5) · Medieval History (2) · Geography (2) · Modern History (3) · Computer (2) · Chemistry (1)

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · Radioactivity (alpha, beta, gamma) and half-life

Q1. Who predicted the existence of a new particle, now known as the neutrino, in 1931, using the conservation laws of energy and momentum for β-decay?

  1. (a) Paul Dirac
  2. (b) Enrico Fermi
  3. (c) James Chadwick
  4. (d) Wolfgang Pauli
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Wolfgang Pauli

Economics (6)

Q2. Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN), part of the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP), is a unique identification number of how many digits accorded based on the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel?

  1. (a) 14 digits
  2. (b) 10 digits
  3. (c) 16 digits
  4. (d) 12 digits
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 14 digits

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q3. Which index combines life expectancy, education and per capita income to measure a country’s human development?

  1. (a) GDP per capita
  2. (b) Gini Index
  3. (c) Human Development Index (HDI)
  4. (d) Consumer Price Index
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Human Development Index (HDI)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q4. The Planning Commission was the apex body responsible for formulating Five-Year Plans. In which year was the Planning Commission of India established?

  1. (a) 1951
  2. (b) 1948
  3. (c) 1950
  4. (d) 1952
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1950

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Energy and power sector schemes

Q5. In which year was the PM JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan-Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) scheme launched?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2019
  3. (c) 2017
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2019

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q6. Which of the following statements about the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is correct?

  1. (a) It guarantees minimum support prices for rural produce.
  2. (b) It provides direct employment in rural public sector units.
  3. (c) It aims to organise rural poor into Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
  4. (d) It offers 100 days of guaranteed employment to rural poor.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It aims to organise rural poor into Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q7. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Green Revolution in India?

  1. (a) Expansion of agricultural land
  2. (b) Increased use of fertilisers and irrigation
  3. (c) Mechanisation of agriculture
  4. (d) Use of high-yielding variety seeds
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Expansion of agricultural land

Current Affairs (12)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q8. Which of the following Indian startups was selected to develop the country's first indigenous large language model under the India AI Mission April 2025?

  1. (a) Sarvam AI
  2. (b) Wadhwani AI
  3. (c) Infosys
  4. (d) AI4Bharat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sarvam AI

Q9. What is the primary objective of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?

  1. (a) To repeal the Waqf Act, 1995 and abolish Waqf Boards
  2. (b) To restrict the establishment of new Waqf properties
  3. (c) To nationalise all Waqf properties under central government control and conduct an audit of new Waqf properties
  4. (d) To enhance transparency and inclusivity in the management of Waqf properties
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To enhance transparency and inclusivity in the management of Waqf properties

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q10. In which venue was the World Health Summit (WHS) Regional Meeting 2025 hosted for the first time in India?

  1. (a) Ashoka University, Sonipat
  2. (b) India Expo Centre, Greater Noida
  3. (c) Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
  4. (d) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q11. In December 2024, India's Defense Ministry signed a contract with HAL for the procurement of how many Su-30MKI aircraft?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 15
  4. (d) 12
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 12

State News · State political developments

Q12. Which two state governments held official-level talks in Guwahati in April 2025 to resolve the long-standing inter-state border dispute?

  1. (a) Mizoram and Assam
  2. (b) Nagaland and Manipur
  3. (c) Mizoram and Tripura
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mizoram and Assam

Defence and Security - Current · Defence production, exports, policies and expos

Q13. Which of the following Indian Coast Guard Ships participated in NAVDEX 2025, strengthening India-UAE maritime cooperation?

  1. (a) ICGS Sujata
  2. (b) INS Rajdhwaj
  3. (c) INS Veera
  4. (d) ICGS Shoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ICGS Shoor

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q14. In which Swiss city was the annual meeting of the World Economic Forum (WEF) held in January 2025?

  1. (a) Davos
  2. (b) Vienna
  3. (c) Zurich
  4. (d) Geneva
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Davos

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q15. Which Indian female shooter won a silver medal in the women's skeet event at the ISSF Junior World Cup 2025?

  1. (a) Ganemat Sekhon
  2. (b) Raiza Dhillon
  3. (c) Parinaaz Dhaliwal
  4. (d) Maheshwari Chauhan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raiza Dhillon

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q16. Which institution celebrated the Rashtriya Boudhik Sampada Mahotsav (RBSM) on 29 May 2025?

  1. (a) Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, Amethi
  2. (b) Indian Oil Institute of Petroleum Management, Haryana
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy, Visakhapatnam
  4. (d) CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q17. In May 2025, India assumed the chairmanship of which regional organisation focused on productivity enhancement?

  1. (a) Asian Productivity Organization (APO)
  2. (b) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
  3. (c) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
  4. (d) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Asian Productivity Organization (APO)

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q18. The recipient of the Padma Shri in 2025, Hriday Narayan Dikshit, who is a renowned thinker, philosopher, politician and social worker, belongs to which Indian state?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q19. What is the name of India's indigenous counter-drone system tested in May 2025?

  1. (a) Bhargavastra
  2. (b) Nagastra
  3. (c) Trinetra
  4. (d) Akashteer
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bhargavastra

Static GK (5)

Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q20. Vedantam Prahlada Sarma, born in Andhra Pradesh in 1923, was initiated into which of the following Indian classical dance forms?

  1. (a) Odissi
  2. (b) Bharatanatyam
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kuchipudi

Indian Railways · Railway stations and records

Q21. How many Amrit Stations were inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 22 May 2025?

  1. (a) 100
  2. (b) 108
  3. (c) 103
  4. (d) 110
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 103

Q22. Which of the following states is known for its tribal settlement of the Gond community?

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Chhattisgarh
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q23. Which biochemist received the Nobel Prize in 1958 for his work on the structure of proteins, especially insulin?

  1. (a) Eduard Buchner
  2. (b) Frederick Sanger
  3. (c) Carl Neuberg
  4. (d) Rosalind Franklin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Frederick Sanger

Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q24. Who among the following was the first Indian athlete to win the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?

  1. (a) PV Sindhu
  2. (b) Viswanathan Anand
  3. (c) Sachin Tendulkar
  4. (d) Leander Paes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Viswanathan Anand

Polity (5)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q25. The __________ of the Indian Constitution protects laws from being challenged in courts under judicial review.

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Ninth Schedule
  3. (c) Fifth Schedule
  4. (d) Third Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ninth Schedule

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q26. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution specifically deal with the establishment of Tribunals for administrative and other matters?

  1. (a) Articles 32 and 226
  2. (b) Articles 14 and 15
  3. (c) Articles 323A and 323B
  4. (d) Articles 356C and 360D
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Articles 323A and 323B

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q27. What is the mandated time for the Public Information Officer (PIO) to provide information?

  1. (a) 10 days for personal requests
  2. (b) 15 days for urgent matters
  3. (c) 30 days generally and 48 hours for life or liberty cases
  4. (d) 60 days for all cases
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 days generally and 48 hours for life or liberty cases

Q28. Which Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to Co-operative Societies in India?

  1. (a) 74ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  2. (b) 73ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  3. (c) 97ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
  4. (d) 86ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 97ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q29. In which Schedule are the forms of oath and affirmation for various constitutional offices specified?

  1. (a) Fifth Schedule
  2. (b) Third Schedule
  3. (c) Tenth Schedule
  4. (d) Fourth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Third Schedule

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Rajput dynasties

Q30. Which city became the capital of Vatsaraja during the expansion of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty?

  1. (a) Malwa
  2. (b) Ujjain
  3. (c) Mathura
  4. (d) Kannauj
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ujjain

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q31. Babar, the first Mughal ruler, was related to two of the biggest conquerors of the medieval world. If he was related to the Mongol conqueror Genghis Khan on his maternal side, who was he related to from his paternal side?

  1. (a) Ibrahim Lodi
  2. (b) Mahmud Ghazni
  3. (c) Mohammed Ghori
  4. (d) Timur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Timur

Geography (2)

Q32. The Desert National Park of Rajasthan is located in which districts of the state?

  1. (a) Jaisalmer and Barmer
  2. (b) Udaipur and Rajsamand
  3. (c) Dholpur and Bharatpur
  4. (d) Phalodi and Jodhpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jaisalmer and Barmer

Universe and Solar System · Eclipses, seasons, day and night

Q33. What is the main cause of different seasons on the Earth?

  1. (a) Earth's tilt and revolution around the Sun
  2. (b) Earth's distance from the Sun
  3. (c) Solar flares
  4. (d) Earth's rotation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Earth's tilt and revolution around the Sun

Modern History (3)

Gandhian Era · Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement

Q34. Which movement marked Mahatma Gandhi’s entry into all-India politics?

  1. (a) Champaran Satyagraha
  2. (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
  3. (c) Salt Satyagraha
  4. (d) Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q35. Pazhassi Raja was a freedom fighter from the state of modern-day ___________.

  1. (a) Telangana
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala

Revolt of 1857 · Consequences and Queen's Proclamation

Q36. Which policy was adopted by the British in the post-1857 revolt in India due to distrust of Hindu-Muslim unity?

  1. (a) Subsidiary Alliance
  2. (b) Forward Policy
  3. (c) Divide and Rule
  4. (d) Doctrine of Lapse
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Divide and Rule

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q37. To adjust the screen resolution or change the desktop background in Windows, which of the following would a user typically access?

  1. (a) Documents
  2. (b) Run
  3. (c) This PC
  4. (d) Settings
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Settings

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q38. Which of the following is true for Read-Only Memory (ROM)?

  1. (a) It stores data that can be modified by the user.
  2. (b) It is volatile memory that stores data temporarily.
  3. (c) It processes the logic operations.
  4. (d) It stores the booting instructions permanently.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It stores the booting instructions permanently.

Chemistry (1)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q39. The element with atomic number 21 is ______.

  1. (a) Calcium
  2. (b) Scandium
  3. (c) Titanium
  4. (d) Zinc
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Scandium

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