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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 18 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 18 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Geography, Computer, Physics, Biology, Polity.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 18 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Geography (5) · Computer (4) · Physics (2) · Biology (1) · Polity (6) · Current Affairs (6) · Economics (1) · Static GK (3) · Chemistry (2) · Ancient History (3) · Modern History (3)

Medieval History (1)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q1. The Cholas came to power after overthrowing the authority of which of the following dynasties in South India?

  1. (a) Chera
  2. (b) Satavahana
  3. (c) Pallavas
  4. (d) Rashtrakuta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pallavas

Topic: Rise of Chola Dynasty
TheCholasrose to power in the 9th century CE by overthrowing thePallava dynasty.
Key Facts:
• Vijayalaya Chola (848-871 CE) defeated the Pallavas and established Chola supremacy.
• He captured Thanjavur from the Pallavas and made it the Chola capital.
• The Pallavas had ruled Tamil Nadu from 3rd to 9th century CE.
Answer: Option 3 → Pallavas

Geography (5)

Q2. Which Indian state has the Konkan Coast along its western shoreline?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

Topic: Indian Geography - Coastal Regions
TheKonkan Coastis a rugged section of the western coastline of India.
It extends along the Arabian Sea from Damapur in Maharashtra to Karwar in Karnataka.
The Konkan region primarily covers the coastal districts ofMaharashtraincluding Mumbai, Raigad, Ratnagiri, and Sindhudurg.
Answer: Option 4 → Maharashtra
India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding organic farming?

  1. (a) Organic farming is environment-friendly.
  2. (b) Organic farming is beneficial for soil biota.
  3. (c) Organic farming relies heavily on high technology.
  4. (d) Organic farming does not use synthetic chemicals.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Organic farming relies heavily on high technology.

Topic:Organic Farming
Characteristics of Organic Farming:
• Uses natural fertilizers and pesticides
• Avoids synthetic chemicals and GMOs
• Promotes soil health and biodiversity
• Environment-friendly and sustainable
• Relies on traditional/low-tech methods
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Correct - reduces pollution, conserves resources
Option 2: Correct - enhances beneficial microorganisms
Option 3: INCORRECT - uses minimal technology, traditional practices
Option 4: Correct - no synthetic fertilizers/pesticides
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil erosion and conservation

Q4. Which of the following rivers is primarily responsible for the formation of badland topography in India?

  1. (a) Brahmaputra
  2. (b) Chambal
  3. (c) Ganga
  4. (d) Yamuna
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chambal

Badland Topography in India
Badlands are areas of extensive erosion with deep gullies,
ravines, and little vegetation.
Chambal Rivercreates India's most extensive badlands
in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
The region is calledChambal RavinesorBeehad.
Formed due to severe soil erosion in semi-arid regions
with loose alluvial and sandy soil.
Answer: Option 2 → Chambal
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q5. Which of the following is the largest multipurpose river valley project in India?

  1. (a) Bhakra Nangal
  2. (b) Sardar Sarovar
  3. (c) Hirakud
  4. (d) Damodar Valley
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bhakra Nangal

Topic: Multipurpose River Valley Projects in India
Bhakra Nangal Project:
• Located on Sutlej River (Punjab-Himachal Pradesh)
• Bhakra Dam height: 226m (2nd highest in Asia)
• Reservoir: Gobind Sagar Lake
• Largest multipurpose project in India
Other Major Projects:
• Hirakud: Longest dam (Mahanadi, Odisha)
• Sardar Sarovar: On Narmada River (Gujarat)
• Damodar Valley: Called 'Sorrow of Bengal'
Answer: Option 1 → Bhakra Nangal
India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q6. Which of the following geographical factors most directly influences the location and growth of human settlements?

  1. (a) Availability of fresh water
  2. (b) Distance from the equator
  3. (c) Shape of nearby hills
  4. (d) Color of local soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Availability of fresh water

Geographical Factors & Human Settlements
Primary requirement for human habitation:
Fresh water is essential for drinking, agriculture, sanitation
Historical evidence:
All major civilizations developed near water sources
Examples: Indus (Indus River), Egyptian (Nile), Mesopotamian (Tigris-Euphrates)
Other factors are secondary:
Distance from equator affects climate but not settlement viability
Hill shape and soil color have minimal direct impact
Answer: Option 1 → Availability of fresh water

Computer (4)

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q7. RAM and ROM belong to which broader category?

  1. (a) Input devices
  2. (b) Output devices
  3. (c) Processing units
  4. (d) Primary memory
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Primary memory

Computer Memory Classification
Memory is divided into two main categories:
Primary Memory:Directly accessible by CPU (RAM, ROM, Cache)
Secondary Memory:External storage (Hard disk, SSD, USB)
RAM (Random Access Memory):Volatile, temporary storage
ROM (Read Only Memory):Non-volatile, permanent storage
Both RAM and ROM are directly connected to CPU and form the primary memory system of a computer.
Answer: Option 4 → Primary memory
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q8. Which action does pressing the F5 key usually perform in Windows?

  1. (a) Refreshes the current window or page
  2. (b) Navigates to the next tab
  3. (c) Opens help
  4. (d) Opens a new window
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Refreshes the current window or page

Topic:Function Keys in Windows
F5 Key Function:
Refreshes or reloads the current window/page
Commonly used in File Explorer and web browsers
Other Function Keys:
F1 → Opens Help
F2 → Rename selected item
Ctrl+Tab → Navigate between tabs
Answer: Option 1 → Refreshes the current window or page
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q9. A user wants to quickly pause work and resume in few minutes without waiting for the computer to reboot. The best option is:

  1. (a) Format disk
  2. (b) Sleep mode
  3. (c) Reinstall OS
  4. (d) Complete shutdown
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sleep mode

Topic:Power Management Options
Sleep Modesaves current state to RAM
Allows quick resume without full reboot
Power consumption is minimal
Other options:
Format disk - Erases all data
Reinstall OS - Time-consuming process
Complete shutdown - Requires full reboot
Answer: Option 2 → Sleep mode
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q10. When a program in Windows appears as “Not Responding” and the user ends it using Task Manager, which action is effectively being requested from the operating system?

  1. (a) Force the process to terminate and release its resources
  2. (b) Change the program’s file type
  3. (c) Move the program to another drive
  4. (d) Convert the program into a service
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Force the process to terminate and release its resources

Topic: Windows Task Manager - Process Termination
When a program shows 'Not Responding', it means the process is stuck or frozen.
Task Manager 'End Task' function:
• Sends termination signal to the process
• Forces the OS to kill the process if it doesn't respond
• Releases allocated memory and system resources
Other options are unrelated to handling frozen programs.
Answer: Option 1 → Force the process to terminate and release its resources

Physics (2)

Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q11. You can often hear a person speaking from behind a tall fence even if you cannot see them. Which property of sound waves explains this phenomenon?

  1. (a) Diffraction
  2. (b) Reflection
  3. (c) Refraction
  4. (d) Polarization
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Diffraction

Topic: Properties of Sound Waves
Diffractionis the bending of waves around obstacles or through openings.
Sound waves have long wavelengths (cm to meters range).
When sound encounters a fence, it bends around the edges and spreads into the shadow region behind it.
This allows us to hear someone speaking even when we cannot see them directly.
Answer: Option 1 → Diffraction

Q12. Which of these is N̲O̲T̲ an example of fundamental quantity?

  1. (a) Time
  2. (b) Electric Current
  3. (c) Luminous Intensity
  4. (d) Velocity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Velocity

Fundamental vs Derived Quantities
Fundamental Quantities (7 in SI):
Length, Mass, Time, Electric Current, Temperature, Amount of Substance, Luminous Intensity
Derived Quantities:
Formed by combination of fundamental quantities
Analysis:
Time → Fundamental quantity ✓
Electric Current → Fundamental quantity ✓
Luminous Intensity → Fundamental quantity ✓
Velocity → Speed = Distance/Time = Derived quantity ✗
Answer: Option 4 → Velocity

Biology (1)

Ecology and Environment · Pollution - effects on living beings

Q13. Which of the following is an example of biomagnification in a food chain?

  1. (a) Rapid sedimentation of silt at the river bottom
  2. (b) Evaporation of pesticides from water bodies into the air
  3. (c) Rising concentration of DDT from water to algae to fish to birds
  4. (d) Increased nitrate levels causing algal blooms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rising concentration of DDT from water to algae to fish to birds

Topic: Biomagnification
Definition:Progressive increase in concentration of non-biodegradable substances through successive trophic levels in a food chain.
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Sedimentation - physical process, not biomagnification
Option 2: Evaporation - dispersal of pesticides, not accumulation
Option 3: DDT concentration increases: Water → Algae → Fish → Birds ✓
Option 4: Eutrophication - nutrient enrichment, not biomagnification
Key Point:DDT is non-biodegradable and accumulates in fatty tissues, concentrating at each trophic level.
Answer: Option 3 → Rising concentration of DDT from water to algae to fish to birds

Polity (6)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q14. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to protect and improve the environment?

  1. (a) Article 39A
  2. (b) Article 48A
  3. (c) Article 37A
  4. (d) Article 43A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 48A

Topic:Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Article 48A- Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
Added by42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
Related:Article 51A(g)- Fundamental Duty to protect environment.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 48A
Polity Miscellaneous · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q15. Article 371A of the Constitution of India states 'privilege of special status was also accorded to the North-Eastern State of Nagaland'. This represents which federalism?

  1. (a) Asymmetric federalism
  2. (b) Competitive federalism
  3. (c) Centralised federalism
  4. (d) Bargaining federalism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Asymmetric federalism

Topic: Types of Federalism in India
Article 371Agrants special provisions to Nagaland regarding:
- Religious/social practices
- Customary law and procedure
- Ownership and transfer of land
- Parliament laws require state assembly approval
Asymmetric Federalism:Different states have different powers and autonomy levels.
Examples: Art 370 (J&K - now abrogated), Art 371A-371J (NE states)
This unequal distribution of powers = Asymmetric federalism
Answer: Option 1 → Asymmetric federalism
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q16. Children of Indian citizens born abroad become Indian citizens by descent only if the birth is registered at an Indian consulate within what time period?

  1. (a) One year
  2. (b) Four years
  3. (c) Six months
  4. (d) Three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) One year

Topic: Indian Citizenship by Descent
As perCitizenship Act, 1955(amended 2003):
Children born abroad to Indian citizens acquire citizenship by descent.
The birth must be registered at the Indian consulate withinone yearof the date of birth.
If not registered within one year, citizenship can still be obtained with permission from the Central Government.
Answer: Option 1 → One year

Q17. The President of India can make regulations for peace, progress, and good governance of which Union Territories without Legislative Assemblies?

  1. (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
  2. (b) Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh
  3. (c) Chandigarh and Puducherry
  4. (d) Puducherry and Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu

Topic: Presidential Powers for Union Territories
Article 240empowers the President to make regulations for UTswithout Legislative Assemblies.
UTs WITHOUT Assemblies:
1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
2. Lakshadweep
3. Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
UTs WITH Assemblies:Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh (after reorganization), Chandigarh (Administrator's rule).
President can make regulations only for UTs listed in Option 1.
Answer: Option 1 → Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q18. In India, the concept of judicial activism, as reflected through innovative interpretations of the Constitution and expansion of the scope of judicial review, was introduced during which of the following periods?

  1. (a) Mid-1990s
  2. (b) Mid-1970s
  3. (c) Mid-1980s
  4. (d) Mid-1960s
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mid-1970s

Topic: Judicial Activism in India
Key Facts:
1. Judicial activism emerged duringEmergency period (1975-77)
2. Post-Emergency era saw expansion ofPIL (Public Interest Litigation)
3. Landmark cases:Kesavananda Bharati (1973)- Basic Structure doctrine
4. Courts began innovative interpretations to protect fundamental rights
Themid-1970smarked the beginning of active judicial intervention
in governance and rights protection through expanded judicial review.
Answer: Option 2 → Mid-1970s
Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q19. The Committee on Government Assurances primarily deals with ______ .

  1. (a) Monitoring of government expenditure in Parliament
  2. (b) Examining Rules under Article 312
  3. (c) Promises and undertakings made by Ministers in Parliament
  4. (d) Policy review of public enterprises
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promises and undertakings made by Ministers in Parliament

Committee on Government Assurances
Function: Scrutinizes assurances, promises, and undertakings given by Ministers on the floor of the House.
Ensures that Ministers fulfill commitments made during debates, question hour, and discussions.
Reports to Parliament on implementation status of such assurances.
Answer: Option 3 → Promises and undertakings made by Ministers in Parliament

Current Affairs (6)

Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q20. According to the Equirus Capital report on India’s Green Building Market, India’s green building sector is projected to grow at a CAGR of 10.5% and reach an estimated size of $85 billion by which year?

  1. (a) 2032
  2. (b) 2031
  3. (c) 2030
  4. (d) 2033
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2032

Topic: India's Green Building Market - Equirus Capital Report
Key Facts:
• Projected CAGR:10.5%
• Estimated market size:$85 billion
• Target year:2032
This reflects India's commitment to sustainable infrastructure
and eco-friendly construction practices.
Answer: Option 1 → 2032
State News · State schemes and events

Q21. On 3 November 2025, which state government started the Chief Minister Jibon Prerana Scheme?

  1. (a) Sikkim
  2. (b) Manipur
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Assam

Chief Minister Jibon Prerana Scheme
Launched:3 November 2025
State:Assam
Objective: Motivational scheme for students
Answer: Option 4 → Assam
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q22. Which organisation’s leaders gathered in Tianjin for a summit in late August–early September, 2025?

  1. (a) Group of Twenty (G20)
  2. (b) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
  3. (c) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
  4. (d) Commonwealth (CW)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)

Topic: International Summit 2025
TheShanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)summit was held inTianjin, Chinain late August–early September 2025.
SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance founded in 2001.
Member countries include China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Iran.
Answer: Option 2 → Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)

Q23. Under whose chairmanship was a 12-member drafting committee recently constituted to frame a law under the High Seas Treaty 'BBNJ'?

  1. (a) Sanjay Upadhyay
  2. (b) Nitin Gadkari
  3. (c) Ravi Shankar Prasad
  4. (d) Ramesh Pokhriyal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sanjay Upadhyay

Topic: BBNJ Treaty & Drafting Committee
BBNJ= Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction
Also known asHigh Seas Treaty(UN agreement 2023)
India constituted 12-member drafting committee
Chairman:Sanjay Upadhyay(Environmental lawyer)
Purpose: Frame domestic law for treaty implementation
Answer: Option 1 → Sanjay Upadhyay
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q24. Which of the following swimmers won gold in the 200 m breaststroke at the 2025 World Aquatics Championships, setting a championship record and an American record?

  1. (a) Claire Curzan
  2. (b) Torri Huske
  3. (c) Kate Douglass
  4. (d) Evgeniia Chikunova
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kate Douglass

2025 World Aquatics Championships - Swimming
Event:200m Breaststroke (Women)
Kate Douglasswon gold medal in this event.
She set bothChampionship RecordandAmerican Record.
Kate Douglass is a versatile American swimmer known for multiple stroke expertise.
Answer: Option 3 → Kate Douglass
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q25. Which of the following countries participated in the 3ʳᵈ edition of the Joint Special Forces Exercise 'CYCLONE' at Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan from 10ᵗʰ to 23ʳᵈ February 2025?

  1. (a) India and China
  2. (b) India and Iran
  3. (c) India and Namibia
  4. (d) India and Egypt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) India and Egypt

Exercise CYCLONE - 3rd Edition
Location: Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, Rajasthan
Duration: 10th to 23rd February 2025
Participating Countries:India and Egypt
Key Facts:
• Joint Special Forces Exercise between Indian and Egyptian armies
• Focuses on counter-terrorism operations and tactical drills
• Strengthens bilateral defense cooperation
Answer: Option 4 → India and Egypt

Economics (1)

Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q26. Which of the following strategies is crucial for fostering infrastructure development in developing countries?

  1. (a) Promotion of public-private partnerships
  2. (b) Focusing only on urban areas
  3. (c) Sole reliance on government funding
  4. (d) Restricting foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Promotion of public-private partnerships

Infrastructure Development in Developing Countries
Public-Private Partnerships (PPP)combine government resources with private sector efficiency and capital.
Benefits of PPP:
• Reduces government financial burden
• Brings technical expertise and innovation
• Ensures faster project completion
• Shares risks between public and private sectors
Why other options are incorrect:
Option 2: Rural areas also need infrastructure
Option 3: Government funding alone is insufficient
Option 4: Foreign investment brings capital and technology
Answer: Option 1 → Promotion of public-private partnerships

Static GK (3)

Q27. Which language is known for its unique script called "Gurmukhi"?

  1. (a) Bengali
  2. (b) Punjabi
  3. (c) Hindi
  4. (d) Urdu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Punjabi

Topic: Indian Languages and Scripts
Gurmukhi Scriptis the writing system used for the Punjabi language.
Developed by Guru Angad Dev Ji (2nd Sikh Guru) in the 16th century.
Used primarily in Punjab, India and for writing Sikh religious texts.
Answer: Option 2 → Punjabi
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q28. Which award is presented to the women’s singles champion at the Wimbledon Tennis Championships?

  1. (a) Arthur Ashe Trophy
  2. (b) Suzanne Lenglen Trophy
  3. (c) Borg-McEnroe Trophy
  4. (d) Venus Rosewater Dish
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Venus Rosewater Dish

Topic: Wimbledon Tennis Championships Awards
Venus Rosewater Dish- Awarded to women's singles champion at Wimbledon since 1886.
Other trophies: Gentlemen's Singles Trophy (men), Arthur Ashe Trophy (US Open men), Suzanne Lenglen Cup (French Open women).
Answer: Option 4 → Venus Rosewater Dish
Important Days and Themes · International days

Q29. World Toilet Day was observed on which date in 2025?

  1. (a) 19 November
  2. (b) 19 October
  3. (c) 9 October
  4. (d) 9 November
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 19 November

World Toilet Day
Observed annually on19 November.
Established by UN in 2013 to raise awareness about sanitation crisis.
Theme 2025: Focuses on accelerating change in sanitation.
Answer: Option 1 → 19 November

Chemistry (2)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Groups and periods - position of elements

Q30. When moving down a group in the Modern Periodic Table, what happens to the number of valence electrons?

  1. (a) Increases by one
  2. (b) Decreases by one
  3. (c) Increases by two
  4. (d) Remains the same
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Remains the same

Topic: Periodic Table - Group Properties
Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons.
Example: Group 1 (Li, Na, K, Rb) all have 1 valence electron.
Group 17 (F, Cl, Br, I) all have 7 valence electrons.
Moving down a group → shells increase, but valence electrons remain constant.
Answer: Option 4 → Remains the same
Environmental Chemistry · Water pollution and hardness of water

Q31. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

  1. (a) Industrial discharge pipe
  2. (b) Urban stormwater drain
  3. (c) Sewage outlet
  4. (d) Agricultural runoff
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Agricultural runoff

Topic: Water Pollution Sources
Point Source:Pollution from single identifiable location (pipe, outlet, drain).
Non-Point Source:Pollution from diffused/scattered areas without specific discharge point.
Options 1, 2, 3 → All have specific discharge points (pipes/outlets).
Option 4 → Agricultural runoff spreads over large area through rain/irrigation, no single point.
Answer: Option 4 → Agricultural runoff

Ancient History (3)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q32. In Harappan Civilization, at Dholavira, ________ was/were used to build massive fortifications.

  1. (a) stone
  2. (b) bricks
  3. (c) wood
  4. (d) granite
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) stone

Dholavira - Harappan Site (Gujarat)
Unique feature: Built usinglocal stoneinstead of bricks
Massive stone fortifications with three divisions
Only major Harappan site with stone architecture
Answer: Option 1 → stone
Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q33. The Pallava temples at Mahabalipuram are made mainly from:

  1. (a) Granite
  2. (b) Sandstone alone
  3. (c) Laterite
  4. (d) Marble
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Granite

Topic: Pallava Architecture at Mahabalipuram
Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Tamil Nadu.
Key Facts:
1. Pallava temples (7th-8th century CE) are rock-cut monuments.
2. Carved fromgranite rock formationsfound naturally in the region.
3. Famous structures: Shore Temple, Five Rathas, Arjuna's Penance.
Granite is abundant in South India and was the primary material used.
Answer: Option 1 → Granite
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q34. After defeating the Shakas and annexing their territories in western India, which Gupta ruler assumed the imperial title “Vikramaditya” to mark his supremacy?

  1. (a) Samudragupta
  2. (b) Kumaragupta I
  3. (c) Chandragupta II
  4. (d) Skandagupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chandragupta II

Topic: Gupta Empire - Military Conquests
Chandragupta II (375-415 CE)defeated the Western Kshatrapas (Shakas) and annexed Gujarat, Malwa, and Saurashtra.
After this major victory, he assumed the title'Vikramaditya'(Sun of Valor) to commemorate his supremacy.
This conquest gave Guptas control over western seaports, boosting trade with Rome.
His reign is considered theGolden Age of Gupta Empire.
Answer: Option 3 → Chandragupta II

Modern History (3)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q35. The Kuki Rebellion (1917–19) took place in which region?

  1. (a) Tripura
  2. (b) Manipur
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manipur

Kuki Rebellion (1917-19)
Also known asKuki UprisingorAnglo-Kuki War.
The Kuki tribes revolted against British forced labor recruitment during World War I.
Primary location:Manipur hills(also affected parts of Assam).
Led by Kuki chiefs resisting British exploitation and oppressive policies.
Answer: Option 2 → Manipur
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Kisan Sabhas, Tebhaga and Telangana movements

Q36. Which of the following portrays the movement led by Baba Ramchandra?

  1. (a) A religious reform movement
  2. (b) A protest against British education policy
  3. (c) A rural uprising against exploitative landlords
  4. (d) A workers' strike in factories
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A rural uprising against exploitative landlords

Baba Ramchandra Movement (1920-21)
Led by: Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi from Fiji
Location: Awadh region (Uttar Pradesh)
Nature: Peasant movement against talukdars and landlords
Demands: Reduction of revenue, abolition of begar (forced labor), social boycott of oppressive landlords
Part of: Non-Cooperation Movement under Congress leadership
Answer: Option 3 → A rural uprising against exploitative landlords

Q37. Who led the Portuguese expedition that first landed in Calicut, India, in 1498?

  1. (a) Vasco da Gama
  2. (b) Alfonso de Albuquerque
  3. (c) Pedro Álvares Cabral
  4. (d) Bartholomew Diaz
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vasco da Gama

Topic:Portuguese Exploration of India
Vasco da Gamawas the Portuguese explorer who successfully
discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope.
He landed atCalicut (Kozhikode)onMay 20, 1498,
establishing direct maritime trade between Europe and Asia.
This voyage opened the spice trade route and marked the
beginning of Portuguese colonial presence in India.
Answer: Option 1 → Vasco da Gama
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