RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 19 June 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

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Subjects: Current Affairs (6) · Economics (4) · Modern History (2) · Medieval History (2) · Static GK (4) · Geography (6) · Physics (2) · Biology (1) · Computer (4) · Chemistry (2) · Polity (6) · Ancient History (1)

Current Affairs (6)

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q1. Which country hosted the 2025 BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Summit?

(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) Egypt
(d) Vietnam

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Brazil

Topic: BRICS Agriculture Ministers' Summit 2025
Brazil hosted the BRICS Agriculture Ministers' Summit in 2025.
Brazil holds the BRICS Presidency for 2025.
The summit focused on food security and sustainable agriculture.
Answer: Option 1 → Brazil

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q2. According to the Supreme Court of India directives issued in November 2025, which animals must be removed and permanently relocated from institutional public spaces such as schools, hospitals, and railway stations?

(a) Stray cats
(b) Stray cows
(c) Stray donkeys
(d) Stray dogs

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Stray dogs

Topic: Supreme Court Directive (November 2025)
The Supreme Court of India issued directives regarding stray animals in institutional public spaces.
Key Directive:
Stray dogs must be removed and permanently relocated from schools, hospitals, and railway stations.
This was done to ensure public safety and hygiene in sensitive institutional areas.
Answer: Option 4 → Stray dogs

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q3. What was the main objective of the Samanvay Shakti exercise launched in August 2025 at Laipuli in Tinsukia district of Assam by Indian Army in collaboration with state officials of Assam and Manipur?

(a) Joint military training between India and friendly foreign countries for counter-terrorism operations
(b) Strategic border defence drill aimed at strengthening Indo-Myanmar military cooperation
(c) Large-scale disaster management rehearsal with focus on earthquake and flood preparedness
(d) Military-civil integration to foster synergy between security forces, government departments, and civil institutions

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Military-civil integration to foster synergy between security forces, government departments, and civil institutions

Samanvay Shakti Exercise - August 2025
Location: Laipuli, Tinsukia district, Assam
Key Facts:
• Launched by Indian Army with Assam and Manipur state officials
• 'Samanvay' means coordination/integration in Hindi
• Focus on civil-military cooperation framework
Objective: Strengthen coordination between security forces, government departments, and civil institutions for unified response in Northeast region.
Answer: Option 4 → Military-civil integration to foster synergy between security forces, government departments, and civil institutions

International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q4. Who among the following has been sworn in as the 24ᵗʰ Prime Minister of Canada in March 2025?

(a) Donald Tusk
(b) James David Vance
(c) Mark Carney
(d) Claudia Sheinbaum

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mark Carney

Topic: Current Affairs - Canada PM 2025
Mark Carneywas sworn in as the 24th Prime Minister of Canada in March 2025.
He succeeded Justin Trudeau as the leader of the Liberal Party.
Former Governor of Bank of Canada (2008-2013) and Bank of England (2013-2020).
Other options:
Donald Tusk - Prime Minister of Poland
James David Vance - US Vice President (2025)
Claudia Sheinbaum - President of Mexico (2024)
Answer: Option 3 → Mark Carney

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q5. Arundhati Roy’s first full-length memoir, published in 2025, is titled:

(a) Notes from a Small Town
(b) Mother Mary Comes To Me
(c) Walking with the Ants
(d) The Ministry of Lost Stories

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mother Mary Comes To Me

Topic: Recent Publications (2025)
Arundhati Roy, renowned author of 'The God of Small Things', published her first full-length memoir in 2025.
The memoir is titled'Mother Mary Comes To Me', which explores her personal journey and experiences.
This work marks her debut in the memoir genre after decades of fiction and non-fiction essays.
Answer: Option 2 → Mother Mary Comes To Me

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q6. What is the name of the mascot for the Khelo India Youth Games, 2025?

(a) Simhal
(b) HathiSher
(c) Yoddha
(d) Gajasimha

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gajasimha

Khelo India Youth Games 2025
Host City:Delhi
Mascot:Gajasimha(combination of elephant and lion)
Represents strength, courage, and unity
Answer: Option 4 → Gajasimha

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q7. Which of the following was one of the primary objectives of India's 1991 economic reforms?

(a) Strengthening import barriers
(b) Opening up the economy to global markets
(c) Promoting public sector dominance
(d) Achieving self-sufficiency in agriculture

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Opening up the economy to global markets

India's 1991 Economic Reforms
Context: Launched by PM Narasimha Rao and FM Manmohan Singh to address balance of payments crisis.
Key Objectives:
Liberalization → Reduced government controls and licensing
Privatization → Encouraged private sector participation
Globalization →Opened economy to global marketsthrough reduced tariffs and FDI
The reforms shifted India from a closed, socialist economy to a market-oriented economy integrated with global trade.
Answer: Option 2 → Opening up the economy to global markets

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q8. According to the Union Budget 2025-26, the government announced the establishment of a Maritime Development Fund with a corpus of:

(a) ₹25,000 crore
(b) ₹30,000 crore
(c) ₹35,000 crore
(d) ₹20,000 crore

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹25,000 crore

Topic: Union Budget 2025-26 - Maritime Development Fund
The government announced the establishment of aMaritime Development Fundto boost India's maritime infrastructure and shipping sector.
The fund has been allocated a corpus of₹25,000 crore.
This initiative aims to enhance port modernization, coastal shipping, and overall maritime connectivity.
Answer: Option 1 → ₹25,000 crore

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q9. What is the primary criterion for the selection of beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)?

(a) Educational qualifications
(b) Income generated from agriculture
(c) Land ownership documents
(d) Socio-Economic Caste Census, 2011

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Socio-Economic Caste Census, 2011

Topic: Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)
Primary Selection Criterion:
PMAY-G usesSocio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011data for identifying beneficiaries.
Key Points:
• SECC 2011 identifies households based on housing deprivation parameters.
• Beneficiaries are selected from 0, 1, 2 room kutcha houses without pucca walls/roof.
• Excludes households with certain exclusion criteria (govt employees, taxpayers, etc.).
Answer: Option 4 → Socio-Economic Caste Census, 2011

Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q10. Policy on disinvestment gathered steam when a new Department of Disinvestment was created in _____, which became a full Ministry in 2001.

(a) 2000
(b) 1991
(c) 1999
(d) 1992

Answer & solution

Topic: Disinvestment Policy in India
The Department of Disinvestment was created in1999.
It was later upgraded to a full-fledgedMinistry of Disinvestment in 2001.
This was part of India's economic reforms to reduce government stake in PSUs.
Answer: Option 3 → 1999

Modern History (2)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q11. In the Santhal Rebellion (1855–57), Santhals mainly directed their anger against:

(a) British officers, zamindars, traders and local moneylenders
(b) Missionaries who distributed free food during the famine
(c) Traditional village headmen and clan chiefs of their own tribe
(d) Soldiers of the Bengal army posted in distant cantonments

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) British officers, zamindars, traders and local moneylenders

Santhal Rebellion (1855-57)
Also known asSanthal Hul(Great Tumult).
Led bySidhu and Kanhu Murmubrothers in present-day Jharkhand.
Main grievances: Exploitation by zamindars, moneylenders (mahajans), and corrupt British officials who imposed heavy taxes and seized tribal lands.
Santhals declared independence and attacked symbols of oppression: zamindars, traders, and moneylenders.
British suppressed the rebellion brutally with military force.
Answer: Option 1 → British officers, zamindars, traders and local moneylenders

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q12. Who among the following was NOT a founding member of the Indian National Congress?

(a) Dinshaw Wacha
(b) William Wedderburn
(c) John Jardine
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Indian National Congress - Founding Members (1885)
Founded byA.O. Humein December 1885 in Bombay.
Key Founding Members:
• Dinshaw Wacha - Parsi leader, attended first session
• William Wedderburn - British civil servant, early supporter
• John Jardine - British official, founding member
Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
Joined INC later in 1890s, became extremist leader.
Known as 'Lokmanya' and 'Father of Indian Unrest'.
Answer: Option 4 → Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Medieval History (2)

Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Third Battle of Panipat

Q13. Which of the following battles took place in 1761 between the Northern Expeditionary Force of the Maratha Empire and the alliance of the King of Afghanistan?

(a) First Anglo-Afghan War
(b) Third Battle of Panipat
(c) Second Battle of Tarain
(d) Battle of Peshawar

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Third Battle of Panipat

Topic: Third Battle of Panipat (1761)
Fought between Maratha Empire and Ahmad Shah Abdali (Afghan King).
Maratha forces led by Sadashivrao Bhau were defeated.
One of the largest and bloodiest battles of 18th century.
Marked decline of Maratha expansion in North India.
Answer: Option 2 → Third Battle of Panipat

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q14. Akbar’s revenue minister Todar Mal introduced an efficient revenue system based on crop yields, land surveys, and prices called:

(a) Ryotwari system
(b) Mansabdari system
(c) Jagirdari system
(d) Zabti system

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Zabti system

Todar Mal's Revenue System
Raja Todar Mal was Akbar's revenue minister (Diwan-i-Ashraf).
Zabti System (Bandobast System):
• Based on land measurement and classification
• Assessed crop yields over 10 years to fix revenue
• Considered land productivity and market prices
• Revenue paid in cash directly to state
Other systems:
Ryotwari - British system (direct peasant settlement)
Mansabdari - Mughal military-administrative rank system
Jagirdari - Land grant system for nobles
Answer: Option 4 → Zabti system

Static GK (4)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q15. To which Hindu deity is the Sun Temple at Konark dedicated?

(a) Shiva
(b) Brahma
(c) Surya
(d) Vishnu

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Surya

Sun Temple at Konark
Location: Konark, Odisha
Built by: King Narasimhadeva I (13th century)
Dedicated to:Surya(Sun God)
Architecture: Shaped like a giant chariot with 24 wheels
UNESCO World Heritage Site
Answer: Option 3 → Surya

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q16. Which of the following temples is described as a monumental representation of Surya’s chariot with 24 wheels?

(a) Airavatesvara Temple
(b) Sun Temple, Konark
(c) Mahabodhi Temple
(d) Virupaksha Temple

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sun Temple, Konark

Topic: Indian Architecture - Temple Monuments
Sun Temple, Konark(Odisha) is built in the form of a colossal chariot of the Sun God Surya.
The temple has24 intricately carved stone wheels, each about 10 feet in diameter.
Built by King Narasimhadeva I of Eastern Ganga Dynasty in 13th century CE.
UNESCO World Heritage Site, also known asBlack Pagoda.
Answer: Option 2 → Sun Temple, Konark

Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q17. Baryi and Nyioga are folk music forms from which of the following states?

(a) Tripura
(b) Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Mizoram

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arunachal Pradesh

Topic: Folk Music of Northeast India
Baryi and Nyiogaare traditional folk music forms ofArunachal Pradesh.
These are indigenous musical traditions practiced by tribal communities of the state.
Arunachal Pradesh has rich cultural diversity with various folk music and dance forms.
Answer: Option 3 → Arunachal Pradesh

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q18. Who among the following is NOT associated with Carnatic music?

(a) Nithyasree Mahadevan
(b) Vijayalakshmy Subramaniam
(c) DK Pattammal
(d) Ravi Shankar

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ravi Shankar

Topic:Indian Classical Music
Carnatic Music(South Indian classical):
• Nithyasree Mahadevan - renowned vocalist
• Vijayalakshmy Subramaniam - Carnatic vocalist
• DK Pattammal - legendary Carnatic singer
Ravi Shankar- sitar maestro, associated with
Hindustani music(North Indian classical)
Answer: Option 4 → Ravi Shankar

Geography (6)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Seasons of India

Q19. Which climatic phenomenon is responsible for sudden winter rainfall in North-West India?

(a) Local winds
(b) Jet streams
(c) Easterly waves
(d) Western Disturbances

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Western Disturbances

Topic: Winter Rainfall in North-West India
Western Disturbancesare extra-tropical storms originating from the Mediterranean Sea.
They travel eastward and bring sudden winter rainfall to North-West India (Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, J&K).
This rainfall occurs duringDecember to Marchand is crucial for Rabi crops.
Jet streams help in steering these disturbances, but Western Disturbances are the direct cause.
Answer: Option 4 → Western Disturbances

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q20. The Damodar Valley of the Indian sub-continent is mostly rich in which mineral deposit?

(a) Magnesium
(b) Coal
(c) Limestone
(d) Iron

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Coal

Topic: Damodar Valley - Mineral Resources
The Damodar Valley is located in Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Known as the 'Ruhr of India' due to extensive coal deposits.
Major coalfields: Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro, Giridih.
This region accounts for significant portion of India's coal production.
Answer: Option 2 → Coal

Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Ocean floor relief

Q21. Which of the following is characterised as an interconnected chain of submerged mountains, with a central rift zone of intense volcanic activity?

(a) Deep-ocean trenches
(b) Abyssal plains
(c) Continental slope
(d) Mid-oceanic ridges

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mid-oceanic ridges

Topic: Ocean Floor Features
Mid-Oceanic Ridges:
Underwater mountain chains formed by tectonic plate divergence.
Central rift valley with active volcanic activity.
Example: Mid-Atlantic Ridge, East Pacific Rise.
Other Options:
Deep-ocean trenches → Deepest parts, convergent boundaries.
Abyssal plains → Flat ocean floor areas.
Continental slope → Transition from shelf to deep ocean.
Answer: Option 4 → Mid-oceanic ridges

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Volcanoes and volcanic landforms

Q22. Mount Etna, Europe’s largest and most active volcano, known for its frequent and persistent eruptions, is located in _______, which reported a new eruption at a vent located in the west part of the Southeast Crater in February 2025.

(a) Italy
(b) Estonia
(c) Luxembourg
(d) Serbia

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Italy

Mount Etna - Europe's Largest Active Volcano
Location:Sicily, Italy
Key Facts:
• Tallest active volcano in Europe (~3,350m)
• One of the world's most active volcanoes
• Located on the east coast of Sicily
• Frequent eruptions with lava flows
Recent Activity: New eruption reported in
February 2025 at Southeast Crater's west vent.
Answer: Option 1 → Italy

India - Population and Census · Census - history and organisation

Q23. The Census 2011 of India is officially recognised as which number in the sequence of the continuous series of censuses reckoned from 1872?

(a) 16ᵗʰ National Census
(b) 13ᵗʰ National Census
(c) 14ᵗʰ National Census
(d) 15ᵗʰ National Census

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 15ᵗʰ National Census

Topic: Indian Census History
First synchronous census in India:1872
Decennial census conducted every 10 years:
1872, 1881, 1891, 1901, 1911, 1921, 1931, 1941, 1951, 1961, 1971, 1981, 1991, 2001, 2011
Counting from 1872 to 2011 =15 censuses
Census 2011 is the15th National Censusand 7th post-independence census.
Answer: Option 4 → 15ᵗʰ National Census

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest cover and mangroves

Q24. According to the Forest Survey of India (FSI) 2021, which state/UT had the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its geographical area?

(a) Assam
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Mizoram

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mizoram

Forest Survey of India (FSI) 2021 Report
Topic: Forest Cover as % of Geographical Area
Top States/UTs by Forest Cover %:
1. Mizoram →84.53%(Highest)
2. Arunachal Pradesh → 79.33%
3. Meghalaya → 76.00%
Other options:
Assam → ~35%, Chhattisgarh → ~41%, Andhra Pradesh → ~23%
Answer: Option 4 → Mizoram

Physics (2)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q25. In a classroom discussion about the measurement of work and energy, students are asked to identify the correct SI unit and dimensional formula for these quantities. Which option best represents units for both work or energy?

(a) pascal and M L⁻¹ T⁻²
(b) watt and M L² T⁻³
(c) newton and M L T⁻²
(d) joule and M L² T⁻²

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) joule and M L² T⁻²

Topic:Work and Energy - SI Unit and Dimensions
Work/Energy Definition:Work = Force × Displacement
SI Unit:Joule (J) = Newton × meter = N·m
Dimensional Formula:
Force = M L T⁻² and Displacement = L
Work = [M L T⁻²] × [L] =M L² T⁻²
Other Options:
Pascal → Pressure unit (M L⁻¹ T⁻²)
Watt → Power unit (M L² T⁻³)
Newton → Force unit (M L T⁻²)
Answer: Option 4 → joule and M L² T⁻²

Sources of Energy · Conventional sources and fossil fuels

Q26. Which of the following energy resource is considered exhaustible and polluting in India?

(a) Wind
(b) Biogas
(c) Solar
(d) Coal

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Coal

Energy Resources Classification:
Exhaustible:Resources that get depleted with use (finite)
Polluting:Resources that emit harmful gases/pollutants
Analysis of Options:
Wind → Renewable, Non-polluting
Biogas → Renewable, Minimal pollution
Solar → Renewable, Non-polluting
Coal →Fossil fuel, Non-renewable, Highly polluting
Coal releases CO₂, SO₂, NOₓ and particulate matter
Answer: Option 4 → Coal

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q27. Which function is primarily regulated by the medulla?

(a) Vision
(b) Thinking
(c) Involuntary actions
(d) Memory

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Involuntary actions

Topic: Medulla Oblongata (Brain Stem)
The medulla is part of the hindbrain located at the base of the brain.
Primary Functions:
Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting.
Vision → Occipital lobe
Thinking → Cerebrum
Memory → Hippocampus
Answer: Option 3 → Involuntary actions

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q28. Which of the following tasks is exclusive to the role of System Software and cannot be performed by an Application Software program?

(a) Executing a pre-written script to automate a series of repetitive tasks.
(b) Accepting user input from a keyboard and displaying output on a monitor.
(c) Allocating a specific block of the CPU's processing time to a newly launched program.
(d) Managing data storage and retrieval on a hard disk drive.

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Allocating a specific block of the CPU's processing time to a newly launched program.

System Software vs Application Software
System Software:Manages hardware resources and provides platform for applications (OS, device drivers, utilities).
Application Software:Performs specific user tasks (word processors, browsers, games).
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Script automation → Application software can do this
Option 2: I/O operations → Both can handle user input/output
Option 3:CPU time allocation (Process Scheduling)→ Exclusive to OS kernel
Option 4: Data storage management → Both can manage files
Key Point:CPU scheduling and resource allocation are core OS functions that application software cannot perform directly.

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · Supercomputers and quantum computing

Q29. Which of the following applications are supercomputers primarily used for?

(a) Word processing
(b) Internet browsing
(c) Office automation
(d) Complex mathematical calculations

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Complex mathematical calculations

Topic: Supercomputers - Applications
Supercomputers are high-performance computing systems designed for processing massive amounts of data at extremely high speeds.
Primary Applications:
• Weather forecasting and climate modeling
• Scientific simulations and research
• Nuclear weapons testing simulations
• Cryptography and code breaking
• Complex mathematical and scientific calculations
Options 1, 2, 3 are basic tasks performed by regular PCs.
Answer: Option 4 → Complex mathematical calculations

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q30. Which device converts printed text into machine-encoded text using pattern recognition?

(a) OCR scanner
(b) OMR scanner
(c) Barcode reader
(d) MICR reader

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) OCR scanner

Topic: Input Devices - Text Recognition
OCR (Optical Character Recognition)scanner converts printed/handwritten text into machine-encoded text using pattern recognition.
Other devices:
OMR - reads marked data (bubbles on answer sheets)
Barcode reader - reads barcodes (lines/patterns)
MICR - reads magnetic ink characters (cheques)
Answer: Option 1 → OCR scanner

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q31. Which of the following key combinations is used to open the File menu in many applications?

(a) Alt + Del
(b) Alt + Insert
(c) Alt + Tab
(d) Alt + F

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Alt + F

Keyboard Shortcuts in Applications
Alt key is used to access menu bar in applications.
Alt + F opens theFile menu(F for File).
Alt + E opens Edit menu, Alt + V opens View menu.
Other options:
Alt + Tab → Switch between open windows
Alt + Del → No standard function
Alt + Insert → No standard function
Answer: Option 4 → Alt + F

Chemistry (2)

Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q32. Since hydrogen ions cannot exist alone and exist only after combining with water molecules, they must always be shown as which among the following, represented as H₃O⁺?

(a) Hydrogen gas
(b) Oxide ion
(c) Hydronium ion
(d) Hydroxide ion

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hydronium ion

Hydrogen Ions in Aqueous Solution
H⁺ ions are highly reactive and cannot exist freely in water.
They immediately combine with water molecules:
H⁺ + H₂O → H₃O⁺
H₃O⁺ is called theHydronium ion.
This is the actual form of hydrogen ions in aqueous solutions.
Answer: Option 3 → Hydronium ion

Structure of Atom · Electronic configuration and shells

Q33. Which of the following represents the correct electronic configurations of the element phosphorus?

(a) K=2, L=8, M=5
(b) K=2, L=7, M=6
(c) K=2, L=5, M=8
(d) K=2, L=6, M=7

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) K=2, L=8, M=5

Element:Phosphorus (P)
Atomic Number =15
Electronic Configuration:
K shell (max 2) = 2 electrons
L shell (max 8) = 8 electrons
M shell (max 18) = 5 electrons
Total: 2 + 8 + 5 = 15 ✓
Answer: Option 1 → K=2, L=8, M=5

Polity (6)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Conflict between FR and DPSP and related cases

Q34. Which judicial doctrine allows laws promoting DPSPs to be protected from being struck down for violating certain Fundamental Rights, as long as they are interpreted harmoniously?

(a) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(b) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
(c) Doctrine of Protective Discrimination
(d) Doctrine of Severability

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction

Topic: Constitutional Doctrines & DPSPs
Doctrine of Harmonious Construction:
When laws implementing DPSPs conflict with Fundamental Rights,
courts interpret both provisions together to give effect to both.
Key Principle:
No provision should be rendered meaningless.
Courts balance FR and DPSP through harmonious interpretation.
Example:Article 39(b)(c) laws upheld despite FR challenges.
Answer: Option 2 → Doctrine of Harmonious Construction

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q35. Who is the final appellate authority under the Right to Information Act?

(a) Lokpal
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Central Information Commission
(d) High Court

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Information Commission

Right to Information Act, 2005 - Appellate Structure
The RTI Act establishes a two-tier appellate system:
First Appeal:Filed with First Appellate Authority (FAA) within the public authority.
Second Appeal:Filed withCentral Information Commission (CIC)at central level orState Information Commission (SIC)at state level.
The Information Commission is thefinal appellate authorityunder RTI Act.
Courts can only review decisions through judicial review, not as appellate authority.
Answer: Option 3 → Central Information Commission

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q36. Which resolution from 1931 significantly inspired India’s Directive Principles promoting social and economic justice aims?

(a) Karachi Resolution
(b) Delhi Resolution
(c) Lucknow Resolution
(d) Lahore Resolution

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karachi Resolution

Topic: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) - Historical Source
Karachi Resolution (1931)- Passed at Congress session under Sardar Patel's presidency.
Key Features:
• Guaranteed fundamental rights and economic justice
• Advocated for social welfare, labor rights, and equality
• Laid foundation for India's welfare state concept
This resolution directly inspired Part IV (DPSP) of Indian Constitution.
Answer: Option 1 → Karachi Resolution

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q37. Article 350B of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of which of the following?

(a) Special Officer for Other Backward Classes
(b) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
(c) Special Officer for Women and Children
(d) Special Officer for Scheduled Castes

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Article 350B - Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Constitutional Provision:
Article 350B mandates appointment of a Special Officer
for linguistic minorities by the President of India.
Key Functions:
• Investigate safeguards for linguistic minorities
• Report to President on implementation of safeguards
• Present reports before Parliament
Note: Article 338 → SC/ST Commissioner
Article 340 → Backward Classes Commission
Answer: Option 2 → Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q38. What does Article 13 of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with?

(a) Freedom of Speech
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Judicial Review
(d) Reservation Policy

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Judicial Review

Article 13 of Indian Constitution
Title:Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights
Key Provisions:
• Declares all pre-Constitution laws void if inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
• State cannot make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights
• Any law violating Part III shall be void to the extent of inconsistency
This article establishes the doctrine ofJudicial Reviewin India
Courts can strike down laws violating Fundamental Rights
Answer: Option 3 → Judicial Review

Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q39. Which Article prevents the state from making laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights, forming the base of judicial review?

(a) Article 13
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 5
(d) Article 9

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 13

Topic: Constitutional Law - Fundamental Rights
Article 13- Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights.
Key Points:
• Declares laws inconsistent with Part III (Fundamental Rights) as void.
• State cannot make any law which takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights.
• Forms thefoundation of judicial reviewin India.
• Empowers courts to strike down unconstitutional laws.
Other Articles:
Article 17 → Abolition of Untouchability
Article 5 → Citizenship at commencement of Constitution
Article 9 → Persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship
Answer: Option 1 → Article 13

Ancient History (1)

Post-Mauryan Period · Indo-Greeks

Q40. Who among the following was the most celebrated Indo-Greek ruler in ancient India?

(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Rudradaman
(c) Alexander
(d) Menander

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Menander

Indo-Greek Rulers in Ancient India
Pushyamitra → Founder of Shunga dynasty (Indian ruler)
Rudradaman → Saka ruler, not Indo-Greek
Alexander → Never ruled India, only invaded till Beas
Menander (Milinda)→ Most celebrated Indo-Greek king
Ruled: 165-130 BCE in Punjab and parts of North India
Famous for dialogue with Buddhist monk Nagasena
Recorded inMilinda Panha(Questions of Milinda)
Converted to Buddhism, issued bilingual coins
Answer: Option 4 → Menander

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