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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 9 May 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 9 May 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Chemistry, Ancient History, Polity, Geography, Static GK.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 9 May 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Current Affairs (8) · Chemistry (1) · Ancient History (2) · Polity (6) · Geography (5) · Static GK (4) · Modern History (3) · Economics (4) · Computer (3) · Physics (3)

Current Affairs (8)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q1. Who among the following won the 2024 Nobel Prize in literature?

  1. (a) Haruki Murakami
  2. (b) Can Xue
  3. (c) Gerald Murnane
  4. (d) Han Kang
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Han Kang

2024 Nobel Prize in Literature
Winner: Han Kang(South Korean author)
Awarded for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.
Notable works:The Vegetarian,Human Acts
She is the first South Korean and first Asian woman to win this prize.
Answer: Option 4 → Han Kang
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q2. In October 2025, Max Verstappen won the United States Grand Prix representing which of the following teams?

  1. (a) Racing Bulls
  2. (b) Red Bull Racing
  3. (c) McLaren
  4. (d) Ferrari
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Red Bull Racing

Topic: Sports - Formula 1 (2025)
Max Verstappenis a Dutch racing driver competing in Formula 1.
He has been driving forRed Bull Racingsince 2016.
In October 2025, he won theUnited States Grand Prixat Circuit of the Americas, Austin, Texas.
He representedRed Bull Racingteam in this victory.
Answer: Option 2 → Red Bull Racing
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q3. In December 2025, which country officially extended an offer to India for the localised production of the fifth-generation Su-57 stealth fighter jets?

  1. (a) America
  2. (b) Japan
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Russia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Russia

Topic: International Defence Cooperation (December 2025)
Russiaofficially extended an offer to India for the localised production of the fifth-generationSu-57 stealth fighter jetsin December 2025.
The Su-57 (NATO name: Felon) is Russia's advanced stealth multirole fighter aircraft.
This offer aims to strengthen India-Russia defence partnership and boost India's indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities.
Answer: Option 4 → Russia
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q4. In 2025, the AGILE Index was introduced to measure which of the following areas globally?

  1. (a) Environmental policy performance
  2. (b) AI governance evaluation across countries
  3. (c) Global economic competitiveness
  4. (d) Digital infrastructure readiness
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) AI governance evaluation across countries

AGILE Index 2025
AGILE =AI Governance and Leadership Evaluation
Purpose: Measures AI governance frameworks, policies, and regulatory readiness across countries.
Focus: Evaluates how nations manage AI development, ethics, safety standards, and international cooperation.
Answer: Option 2 → AI governance evaluation across countries
State News · State elections and results

Q5. Who became the Chief Minister of Delhi in February 2025, marking the Bharatiya Janata Party's return to power in the capital after 27 years?

  1. (a) Atishi Marlena
  2. (b) Manish Sisodia
  3. (c) Parvesh Verma
  4. (d) Rekha Gupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rekha Gupta

Topic: Current Affairs - Delhi Politics 2025
In February 2025,Rekha Guptabecame the Chief Minister of Delhi.
This marked theBharatiya Janata Party's (BJP)return to power in Delhi after 27 years.
The BJP last held power in Delhi in 1998.
Answer: Option 4 → Rekha Gupta
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q6. Which first-of-its-kind propellant-production device did ISRO unveil in February 2025?

  1. (a) 10‑tonne Vertical Planetary Mixer
  2. (b) 3D‑printed fuel injector assembly
  3. (c) Automated liquid oxygen plant
  4. (d) Horizontal mixing facility
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10‑tonne Vertical Planetary Mixer

ISRO's Propellant Production Innovation (February 2025)
ISRO unveiled India's first10-tonne Vertical Planetary Mixerat VSSC, Thiruvananthapuram.
Key Features:
• Largest capacity propellant mixer in India
• Used for solid rocket propellant production
• Enhances indigenous manufacturing capability
Answer: Option 1 → 10‑tonne Vertical Planetary Mixer
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q7. In November 2025, which city hosted the Syed Modi India International Badminton Tournament?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Lucknow
  4. (d) Mumbai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lucknow

Syed Modi India International Badminton Tournament
The tournament is named afterSyed Modi, an Indian badminton player from Uttar Pradesh.
The 2025 edition was held inLucknowin November 2025.
Lucknow has been the traditional host city for this BWF Super 300 tournament.
Answer: Option 3 → Lucknow
State News · State schemes and events

Q8. The sports event Bastar Olympics 2025 was launched in October 2025 in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chhattisgarh

Topic:Bastar Olympics 2025
Bastar Olympicsis a grassroots sports initiative launched in the tribal-dominated Bastar region.
The event was launched inOctober 2024(not 2025) inChhattisgarh.
It aims to promote traditional and modern sports among tribal youth in Bastar division.
Answer: Option 1 → Chhattisgarh

Chemistry (1)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q9. In the reaction Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(*) + 2NaCl(aq), what will be the actual physical state that can replace (*)?

  1. (a) (g)
  2. (b) (aq)
  3. (c) (s)
  4. (d) (l)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) (s)

Reaction: Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(*) + 2NaCl(aq)
Double Displacement Reaction
BaSO₄ (Barium sulfate) isinsoluble in water
Forms white precipitate when Ba²⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions combine
Physical state:Solid (s)
Answer: Option 3 → (s)

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Other early kingdoms

Q10. The Kadamba dynasty was founded by _______, an expert in guerrilla warfare.

  1. (a) Pulakesin
  2. (b) Mayurasarman
  3. (c) Vinayaditya
  4. (d) Mahendravarman
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mayurasarman

Topic: Kadamba Dynasty
Founded byMayurasarmanin 345 CE in Karnataka.
He was a Brahmin scholar who became a warrior.
Known for expertise inguerrilla warfaretactics.
Established kingdom with capital at Banavasi.
Answer: Option 2 → Mayurasarman
Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q11. Harshavardhana’s sister, Rajyashri, was married to whom among the following?

  1. (a) Grahavarman
  2. (b) Devgupta
  3. (c) Rudrasena II
  4. (d) Shashanka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Grahavarman

Topic: Harshavardhana's Family Relations
Rajyashri was the sister of Emperor Harshavardhana of the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
She was married toGrahavarman, the Maukhari king of Kannauj.
Grahavarman was killed by Devagupta of Malwa and Shashanka of Gauda.
This event led to Harshavardhana's military campaigns to avenge his brother-in-law's death.
Answer: Option 1 → Grahavarman

Polity (6)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q12. If a new union territory is created, who will appoint its administrator?

  1. (a) The Parliament of India
  2. (b) The Chief Minister of the nearest state
  3. (c) The Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) The President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The President of India

Topic: Union Territories - Administration
Constitutional Provision: Article 239
Every Union Territory is administered by thePresident of India.
The President appoints anAdministrator/Lieutenant Governorfor each UT.
The Administrator acts as the representative of the President.
Answer: Option 4 → The President of India
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q13. Articles 245 to 255 of Part XI of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with which aspect of Centre-State relations?

  1. (a) Administrative relations
  2. (b) Judicial relations
  3. (c) Legislative relations
  4. (d) Financial relations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Legislative relations

Topic: Indian Constitution - Part XI
Part XI: Relations between Union and States
Articles 245-255 deal withLegislative Relations:
• Article 245: Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
• Article 246: Subject matter of laws (Union, State, Concurrent Lists)
• Article 247-254: Distribution of legislative powers
• Article 255: Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions
These articles define legislative powers between Centre and States.
Answer: Option 3 → Legislative relations
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · DPSP - features and classification

Q14. Which of the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy is correct?

  1. (a) They are absolute and cannot be amended under any circumstance.
  2. (b) They are non-justiciable guidelines that aim to establish a just society.
  3. (c) They are enforceable by the courts as Fundamental Rights.
  4. (d) They can be enforced by any citizen through writ petitions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They are non-justiciable guidelines that aim to establish a just society.

Topic:Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Key Features of DPSP (Part IV, Articles 36-51):
1.Non-justiciable- Cannot be enforced in courts
2. Guidelines for state to establish welfare state
3.Can be amendedby Parliament (not absolute)
4. Not enforceable through writs (unlike Fundamental Rights)
Purpose:Establish social and economic democracy
Answer: Option 2 → They are non-justiciable guidelines that aim to establish a just society.
Local Government · 11th and 12th Schedules

Q15. Which schedule contains the assigned functions of the Rural Local Self Government or the Panchayati Raj?

  1. (a) 12th Schedule
  2. (b) 9th Schedule
  3. (c) 10th Schedule
  4. (d) 11th Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 11th Schedule

Topic: Constitutional Schedules - Panchayati Raj
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992added Part IX and11th Scheduleto the Constitution.
11th Schedulecontains 29 subjects assigned to Panchayati Raj Institutions (Rural Local Self Government).
Key subjects: Agriculture, Land reforms, Minor irrigation, Animal husbandry, Fisheries, Social forestry, Small scale industries, Rural housing, Drinking water, Education, Health, etc.
Note:12th Schedule (74th Amendment) deals with Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities).
Answer: Option 4 → 11th Schedule
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q16. India follows which model of citizenship under its Constitution?

  1. (a) One: only Indian citizenship
  2. (b) Three: local, state, national
  3. (c) Two: national and state
  4. (d) Two: national and regional
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) One: only Indian citizenship

Topic: Citizenship in India
India followssingle citizenship model.
Unlike USA (dual citizenship - federal + state),
India has only one citizenship - Indian citizenship.
All citizens have same rights irrespective of state.
Adopted fromBritish model, not American federal model.
Answer: Option 1 → One: only Indian citizenship
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q17. Which of the following courts is empowered to impose the highest punishment among the subordinate courts in India?

  1. (a) Family Court
  2. (b) Consumer Court
  3. (c) Civil Court
  4. (d) Sessions Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sessions Court

Subordinate Courts in India - Punishment Powers
Sessions Court:Highest criminal court at district level.
Can imposeany punishmentincluding death penalty and life imprisonment.
Presided by Sessions Judge.
Other Courts:
Family Court - matrimonial and family disputes only.
Consumer Court - consumer protection cases, compensation.
Civil Court - civil matters, no criminal punishment.
Answer: Option 4 → Sessions Court

Geography (5)

World Geography · World resources, industries and cities

Q18. As per International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) data, which country has the largest installed hydropower capacity in the world as of 2025?

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) United States
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) Brazil
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

Topic:Global Hydropower Capacity (IRENA 2025)
Chinaleads the world in installed hydropower capacity.
Key Facts:
• China has over 370 GW of hydropower capacity
• Home to Three Gorges Dam (world's largest power station)
• Brazil ranks 2nd, USA 3rd, Canada 4th globally
Answer: Option 3 → China
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Weathering and erosion

Q19. Which of the following statements about volcanism is most accurate in the context of geomorphic processes?

  1. (a) It is controlled by rainfall and temperature
  2. (b) It mainly builds or elevates parts of the crust
  3. (c) It only lowers existing landforms
  4. (d) It requires running water to operate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It mainly builds or elevates parts of the crust

Topic: Volcanism - Endogenic Process
Volcanism is anendogenic (internal) processdriven by Earth's internal heat and tectonic activity.
Key Facts:
• Volcanism involves eruption of molten rock (magma/lava), ash, and gases from Earth's interior.
• It creates new landforms like volcanic mountains, plateaus, and islands (e.g., Hawaii, Deccan Plateau).
•Builds and elevatesEarth's crust through deposition of volcanic material.
Options 1, 3, 4 are incorrect as volcanism is independent of climate/water and primarily constructive.
Answer: Option 2 → It mainly builds or elevates parts of the crust
India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q20. What is the primary reason for the rapid population growth in developing countries during the second stage of the Demographic Transition Model?

  1. (a) Low birth rates and high death rates
  2. (b) High birth rates and high death rates
  3. (c) High birth rates and declining death rates
  4. (d) Low birth rates and low death rates
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High birth rates and declining death rates

Demographic Transition Model - Stage 2
Stage 2 characteristics:
• Death rates decline due to improved healthcare, sanitation, and nutrition
• Birth rates remain high (traditional family norms continue)
• Gap between high births and low deaths → rapid population growth
This stage is typical of developing countries undergoing modernization
Answer: Option 3 → High birth rates and declining death rates
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q21. Which river rises west of the Rohtang pass in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba valley of the state?

  1. (a) Jhelam river
  2. (b) Chenab river
  3. (c) Ravi river
  4. (d) Beas river
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ravi river

Topic: Rivers of Himachal Pradesh
TheRavi Riveroriginates west of Rohtang Pass in the Kullu hills.
It flows through the Chamba valley of Himachal Pradesh.
The Ravi is one of the five rivers of Punjab and a tributary of the Indus.
Answer: Option 3 → Ravi river
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Earthquakes and seismic waves

Q22. Which seismic waves are the fastest and travel through both solids and liquids inside the Earth?

  1. (a) Rayleigh waves
  2. (b) S waves
  3. (c) Surface waves
  4. (d) P waves
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) P waves

Seismic Waves Classification:
P waves (Primary waves):Fastest seismic waves, travel through solids, liquids, and gases.
S waves (Secondary waves):Slower than P waves, travel only through solids.
Surface waves (Rayleigh & Love):Slowest, travel along Earth's surface only.
P waves arrive first at seismograph stations due to highest velocity.
Answer: Option 4 → P waves

Static GK (4)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q23. Which temple in Odisha is renowned for its chariot-shaped structure and is a prime example of Kalinga architecture?

  1. (a) Sun Temple
  2. (b) Lingaraja Temple
  3. (c) Mukteshvara Temple
  4. (d) Jagannath Temple
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sun Temple

Topic:Kalinga Architecture - Odisha Temples
Sun Temple, Konarkis famous for its chariot-shaped structure.
Built by King Narasimhadeva I in 13th century.
Designed as a colossal chariot with 24 wheels, pulled by 7 horses.
UNESCO World Heritage Site and finest example of Kalinga architecture.
Answer: Option 1 → Sun Temple
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q24. The Hornbill Festival, celebrated to showcase tribal culture, music, dance, and sports, is associated with which Indian state?

  1. (a) Meghalaya
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Manipur
  4. (d) Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nagaland

Topic: Hornbill Festival
TheHornbill Festivalis celebrated inNagaland.
Known as the'Festival of Festivals', held annually inKisama Heritage Villagenear Kohima.
Celebrated infirst week of December(1-10 Dec) to promote tribal culture, traditions, music, dance, and sports of Naga tribes.
Named after theIndian Hornbill bird, which is displayed in folklore of most Naga tribes.
Answer: Option 4 → Nagaland
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q25. Which trophy is contested between the England and Scotland teams in the Rugby Six Nations Championship, 2025?

  1. (a) Millennium Cup
  2. (b) Triple Crown Trophy
  3. (c) Calcutta Cup
  4. (d) European Nations Trophy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Calcutta Cup

Topic: Rugby Six Nations Championship
TheCalcutta Cupis the oldest international rugby trophy.
Contested annually between England and Scotland since 1879.
Named after the Calcutta Football Club which dissolved in 1878.
The trophy is made from melted silver rupees.
Answer: Option 3 → Calcutta Cup
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q26. Aruna Mohanty, who received the Padma Shree award in 2017, is associated with which of the following dance forms?

  1. (a) Manipuri
  2. (b) Bharatanatyam
  3. (c) Kathakali
  4. (d) Odissi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odissi

Aruna Mohanty - Padma Shri 2017
She is a renownedOdissidancer from Odisha.
She is the founder of Orissa Dance Academy.
Known for promoting and preserving Odissi dance globally.
Answer: Option 4 → Odissi

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q27. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided ______________.

  1. (a) Dyarchy in provinces
  2. (b) Separate electorates for Hindus only
  3. (c) Separate electorates for all communities
  4. (d) Provincial autonomy and federal structure
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Provincial autonomy and federal structure

Government of India Act, 1935 - Key Features:
1.Provincial Autonomy- Provinces got self-governance with responsible government
2.Federal Structure- Proposed federation of British India and Princely States
3. Abolished dyarchy in provinces (dyarchy was in 1919 Act)
4. Introduced dyarchy at the Centre instead
5. Continued separate electorates for minorities (not just Hindus)
Option 1 ✗ - Dyarchy was removed from provinces
Option 2 ✗ - Not only for Hindus
Option 3 ✗ - Partial (continued from before, not new provision)
Option 4 ✓ - Main features of the Act
Answer: Option 4 → Provincial autonomy and federal structure
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q28. How did the Swadeshi movement aim to counter British policies after 1905?

  1. (a) By creating diplomatic councils to negotiate tariff concessions.
  2. (b) By adopting military drills to train youth for organised defence.
  3. (c) By promoting indigenous industries and rejecting foreign products.
  4. (d) By supporting colonial factory laws restricting local enterprises.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By promoting indigenous industries and rejecting foreign products.

Swadeshi Movement (1905-1911)
Context:Launched in response to Partition of Bengal (1905) by Lord Curzon.
Main Strategy:
• Boycott of British goods and services
• Promotion of indigenous industries (textiles, handicrafts)
• Use of Indian-made products (khadi, local goods)
Key Features:
Economic nationalism through self-reliance
Rejection of foreign (especially British) products
Establishment of Swadeshi enterprises and banks
Answer: Option 3 → By promoting indigenous industries and rejecting foreign products.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q29. Who among the following succeeded Raja Ram Mohan Roy as the leader of the Brahmo Samaj?

  1. (a) Debendra Nath Tagore
  2. (b) Dwarkanath Tagore
  3. (c) Keshub Chandra Sen
  4. (d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Debendra Nath Tagore

Brahmo Samaj Leadership Succession
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded Brahmo Samaj in 1828.
After Roy's death in 1833,Debendra Nath Tagorebecame the leader in 1843.
Keshub Chandra Sen joined later and led a breakaway faction in 1866.
Dwarkanath Tagore was Debendra Nath's father, a businessman.
Swami Vivekananda was associated with Ramakrishna Mission, not Brahmo Samaj.
Answer: Option 1 → Debendra Nath Tagore

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q30. The ‘Make in India’ initiative launched by the Government of India in 2014 is primarily focused on which of the following?

  1. (a) enhancing tourism
  2. (b) improving healthcare facilities
  3. (c) promoting agricultural exports
  4. (d) boosting manufacturing and job creation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) boosting manufacturing and job creation

Make in India Initiative (2014)
Launched: September 25, 2014 by PM Narendra Modi
Primary Objective: Transform India into a global manufacturing hub
Key Focus Areas:
• Boost manufacturing sector growth
• Create employment opportunities
• Attract foreign direct investment (FDI)
• Enhance ease of doing business
Answer: Option 4 → boosting manufacturing and job creation
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q31. What is the main objective of India's fiscal policy?

  1. (a) Reducing foreign trade
  2. (b) Increasing inflation
  3. (c) Economic growth and stability
  4. (d) Increasing fiscal deficit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Economic growth and stability

Topic: Fiscal Policy of India
Fiscal policy refers to government's use of taxation and expenditure to influence the economy.
Main Objectives:
1. Promote economic growth and development
2. Maintain price stability and control inflation
3. Ensure equitable distribution of income
4. Generate employment opportunities
5. Reduce fiscal deficit (not increase it)
Options 1, 2, and 4 are contrary to sound fiscal policy goals.
Answer: Option 3 → Economic growth and stability
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q32. The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was enacted in 1999 to replace the earlier FERA law. In which year did FEMA officially come into force?

  1. (a) 2000
  2. (b) 1999
  3. (c) 1997
  4. (d) 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2000

Topic: Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
FEMA was enacted by Parliament in 1999 to replace FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973).
The Act received Presidential assent in 1999 but came into force onJune 1, 2000.
FEMA liberalized foreign exchange regulations and shifted focus from regulation to management.
Answer: Option 1 → 2000
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q33. Service and trade fall under which type of economic activities?

  1. (a) Tertiary
  2. (b) Primary
  3. (c) Secondary
  4. (d) Quaternary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tertiary

Economic Activities Classification:
Primary:Extraction of natural resources (agriculture, mining, fishing)
Secondary:Manufacturing and processing (industries, construction)
Tertiary:Services and trade (banking, transport, retail, healthcare)
Quaternary:Knowledge-based services (IT, research, consulting)
Service and trade involve providing services and commercial exchange.
These fall underTertiary sector.
Answer: Option 1 → Tertiary

Computer (3)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q34. Which shortcut saves the current file in Microsoft Word or Microsoft Excel?

  1. (a) Ctrl + F
  2. (b) Ctrl + V
  3. (c) Ctrl + Tab
  4. (d) Ctrl + S
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ctrl + S

Topic:Microsoft Office Shortcuts
Ctrl + Sis the universal shortcut to save files
in MS Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and most applications.
Other options:
Ctrl + F → Find/Search
Ctrl + V → Paste
Ctrl + Tab → Switch between open documents/tabs
Answer: Option 4 → Ctrl + S
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q35. A user is leaving their laptop unattended for the entire weekend and wants to ensure zero battery consumption while still being able to resume their exact work session (all open applications and files) quickly when they return on Monday. Which power-saving mode in Windows should they choose?

  1. (a) Shut Down, because it is the only way to achieve zero power consumption.
  2. (b) Hibernate, because it saves the entire system state to the hard disk and powers down completely.
  3. (c) Sleep (Standby), because it maintains the session in RAM for a very quick resume.
  4. (d) Hybrid Sleep, because it uses both RAM and the hard drive to store the session.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hibernate, because it saves the entire system state to the hard disk and powers down completely.

Requirement: Zero battery consumption + Quick resume with all work intact
Power Modes Comparison:
Sleep: Keeps session in RAM, uses minimal power (not zero)
Hibernate: Saves RAM to disk, powers off completely (zero power)
Shut Down: Zero power but loses all open applications/files
Hybrid Sleep: Uses some power to maintain RAM state
Analysis:
Hibernate writes entire RAM contents to hiberfil.sys on disk
System powers down completely → Zero battery drain
On resume: Restores exact session from disk
Answer: Option 2 → Hibernate, because it saves the entire system state to the hard disk and powers down completely.
Computer Memory · Cache and virtual memory

Q36. A student notices that arithmetic results appear instantly, but loading data from main memory is slower. Which CPU feature primarily reduces this delay by keeping frequently used data close to the processor?

  1. (a) Cache Memory
  2. (b) Address Decoder
  3. (c) Instruction Set
  4. (d) CPU Fan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cache Memory

Topic: Computer Organization - Memory Hierarchy
Problem: Arithmetic operations are fast, but fetching data from main memory is slow.
Key Concept:
Cache Memory is a small, high-speed memory located between CPU and main memory.
It storesfrequently accessed data and instructionsto reduce memory access time.
Other options:
Address Decoder - selects memory locations (not storage)
Instruction Set - defines CPU operations (not storage)
CPU Fan - cooling device (not related to data access)
Answer: Option 1 → Cache Memory

Physics (3)

Electricity · Conductors, insulators and semiconductors

Q37. Electrical conductors are materials that possess which of the following properties?

  1. (a) No resistivity
  2. (b) High resistivity
  3. (c) Low resistivity
  4. (d) Constant resistivity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Low resistivity

Electrical Conductors - Properties
Conductors allow electric current to flow easily through them.
Key Property:Low Resistivity (ρ)
Examples: Copper (ρ ≈ 1.7×10⁻⁸ Ωm), Silver, Aluminum
Low resistivity → Less opposition to current flow → Good conductor
Note: No material has zero resistivity (except superconductors at very low temperatures)
Answer: Option 3 → Low resistivity
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q38. Pressure is measured in which SI unit?

  1. (a) N/m
  2. (b) m²/N
  3. (c) N·m
  4. (d) N/m²
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) N/m²

Pressure Definition:
Pressure = Force / Area
SI Units:
Force = Newton (N)
Area = square meter (m²)
Pressure = N/m² (Pascal)
Answer: Option 4 → N/m²
Sound and Waves · Speed of sound in different media

Q39. What happens to the speed of sound as the temperature of the air increases?

  1. (a) It decreases, because the air becomes less dense
  2. (b) It decreases rapidly because the air molecules move extremely slower
  3. (c) It remains the same, as the speed is constant in a given medium
  4. (d) It increases, because the air molecules move faster
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It increases, because the air molecules move faster

Topic:Speed of Sound and Temperature
Speed of sound in air: v ∝ √T
Key Facts:
1. Higher temperature → faster molecular motion
2. Faster molecules → quicker sound wave propagation
3. Speed increases by ~0.6 m/s per °C rise
Answer: Option 4 → It increases, because the air molecules move faster
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