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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 13 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 13 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Medieval History, Modern History, Economics, Geography, Biology.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 13 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (7) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (1) · Economics (3) · Geography (5) · Biology (1) · Polity (3) · Chemistry (1) · Current Affairs (2)

Static GK (7)

Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q1. Consider the following statements about Gwalior Fort:
1. It is spread over a hilltop more than 2 km in length.
2. Its southern path features intricately carved rock-cut temples of Jain Tirthankaras.
3. The Caturbhuj Mandir within the fort is an example of a Vaiṣṇavite shrine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1: The fort sits on a hilltop and runs more than 2 km in length. Correct.
Statement 2: A long row of large rock-cut Jain Tirthankara images is carved along the southern (Gopachal) path of the fort. Correct.
Statement 3: The Caturbhuj Mandir, carved into the fort hillside, is dedicated to Vishnu and is a Vaiṣṇavite shrine. Correct.
All three statements are correct.
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q2. Which of the following best describes Annamacharya's contribution to Indian devotional music?

  1. (a) Composed Sanskrit hymns on caste rituals
  2. (b) Wrote over 32,000 songs promoting devotion and equality
  3. (c) Restricted songs to temples and priests only
  4. (d) Focused only on melody, not on social reform
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Wrote over 32,000 songs promoting devotion and equality

Annamacharya (1408–1503) was a Telugu saint-composer of Tirupati who composed about 32,000 'sankirtanas' (devotional songs) in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
His songs combined intense devotion with social messages of equality, criticising caste discrimination.
He did not restrict songs to temples and priests; he sang for everyone — kings, common people and devotees alike.
Hence the best description is that he wrote over 32,000 songs promoting devotion and equality.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q3. Why can hockey players use only the flat, left-hand side of the stick?

  1. (a) Better control and reduced injury risk
  2. (b) Prevents unfair left-handed advantage
  3. (c) Prevents uneven bounce, ensures uniform rebound
  4. (d) Mandated right-hand play for training ease
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prevents uneven bounce, ensures uniform rebound

Under the rules of field hockey, players are allowed to play the ball only with the flat (left-hand) side of the stick.
This rule exists because hitting with the rounded side would cause the ball to deflect unpredictably; restricting play to the flat side ensures a uniform, predictable rebound.
'Better control and reduced injury risk' is a side benefit, not the rule's stated purpose.
The rule does not address left-handed advantage and does not 'mandate right-hand play for training ease'.
Hence the correct reason is: it prevents uneven bounce and ensures a uniform rebound.
Sports · Stadiums and venues

Q4. Where is the Dr. S. P. Mookerjee Swimming Stadium located?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Chandigarh
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Bangalore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) New Delhi

The Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Swimming Pool Complex / Stadium is located in New Delhi (built for the 1982 Asian Games and used at the 2010 Commonwealth Games).
It is not located in Mumbai, Chandigarh or Bangalore.
Hence the correct option is New Delhi.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q5. Which statement accurately represents the connection between 'Heart: A History' by Sandeep Jauhar and the Edgar Award for Best Novel?

  1. (a) Nominated for Edgar Award for blending medical history and mystery
  2. (b) Won Edgar Award as pioneering medical fiction
  3. (c) Received Edgar Award for fictional cardiac surgery
  4. (d) Non-fiction memoir, ineligible for Edgar Award
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Non-fiction memoir, ineligible for Edgar Award

'Heart: A History' (2018) by Sandeep Jauhar is a non-fiction work that traces the history of cardiac surgery interwoven with the author's own experiences as a cardiologist.
The Edgar Award for Best Novel is given by the Mystery Writers of America to fiction in the mystery genre.
A non-fiction medical memoir is not eligible for the Edgar Award.
Hence the correct option is: Non-fiction memoir, ineligible for Edgar Award.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - events and things

Q6. Who inaugurated India's first lithium-ion battery plant in Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh, in September 2022?

  1. (a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  2. (b) Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology
  3. (c) Nirmala Sitharaman, Minister of Finance
  4. (d) Amit Shah, Union Home Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology

India's first lithium-ion battery cell manufacturing plant at Tirupati (set up by Munoth Industries) was inaugurated in September 2022 by Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology.
It was not inaugurated by the PM, Finance Minister or Home Minister.
Hence the correct option is Rajeev Chandrasekhar.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q7. Examine the following statements about the SSLV-D2 mission and select the correct option:
Statement 1: SSLV-D2 inserted EOS-07, Janus-1, and AzaadiSAT-2 into a 450 km circular orbit utilizing a three-stage vehicle powered entirely by liquid propulsion.
Statement 2: The SSLV-D2 mission showcased rapid deployment capability with low turnaround time and limited ground infrastructure needs.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only Statement 2 is correct

Statement 1: SSLV-D2 (Feb 2023) did inject EOS-07, Janus-1 and AzaadiSAT-2 into a near-circular ~450 km orbit, but the SSLV is a three-stage solid-propellant vehicle (with a small liquid VTM at the very top). 'Entirely liquid propulsion' is incorrect.
Statement 2: The SSLV is specifically designed for rapid deployment with low turnaround time and minimal ground infrastructure — small launch crew, simple integration, etc. Correct.
Hence only Statement 2 is correct.

Medieval History (1)

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of North India (Kabir, Ramananda, Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai)

Q8. In Bhakti traditions, which two broad types of worship are mentioned?

  1. (a) Vedic and Non-Vedic
  2. (b) Saguna and Nirguna
  3. (c) Orthodox and Reformist
  4. (d) Shaiva and Vaishnava
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Saguna and Nirguna

The Bhakti movement is classically divided into two broad streams:
Saguna bhakti — devotion to a deity with form and attributes (e.g., Rama, Krishna), as practised by Tulsidas, Surdas, etc.
Nirguna bhakti — devotion to a formless, attribute-less Divine, as practised by Kabir, Guru Nanak, Ravidas, etc.
Vedic/Non-Vedic, Orthodox/Reformist and Shaiva/Vaishnava classifications belong to other contexts.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q9. What change did the Regulating Act bring to the post of the Governor of Bengal?

  1. (a) He was required to report directly to the British Crown
  2. (b) He was reduced to a ceremonial position
  3. (c) His role was elevated to Governor-General with a council of four members
  4. (d) He was transferred to the Madras Presidency
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) His role was elevated to Governor-General with a council of four members

The Regulating Act of 1773 elevated the post of Governor of Bengal to that of 'Governor-General of Bengal' and provided for a council of four members to assist and check him.
Decisions in the council were taken by majority vote, with the Governor-General having a casting vote.
The Act did not make him report directly to the Crown, did not reduce him to a ceremonial role, and did not transfer the post to Madras.
Hence the correct change is option 3.

Economics (3)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q10. Which of the following statements correctly reflect India's recent (2024) economic diplomacy and domestic investment facilitation reforms?
1) The India–Uzbekistan BIT allows unconditional access to international arbitration without exhausting local remedies.
2) The National Infrastructure Readiness Index (NIRI) solely ranks Smart Cities and excludes private investment indicators.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2 Both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Statement 1: The India–Uzbekistan Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT, 2024), in line with India's Model BIT, requires the exhaustion of local remedies before approaching international arbitration. So 'unconditional access' is incorrect.
Statement 2: The National Infrastructure Readiness Index (NIRI) is designed for broader infrastructure / investment readiness and includes private investment-related indicators rather than ranking only Smart Cities.
Both statements are incorrect.
Hence the correct option is 'Neither 1 nor 2 is correct'.
Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural credit and institutions (NABARD, KCC)

Q11. The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) provides support for?

  1. (a) Free fertilizers
  2. (b) Agri-logistics and cold chains
  3. (c) Cash transfers
  4. (d) MGNREGA work
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agri-logistics and cold chains

The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), launched in 2020, is a medium-/long-term debt financing facility for investment in post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.
Supported projects include cold storages, warehouses, pack-houses, grading and sorting units, primary processing units — i.e., agri-logistics and cold chains.
It does not give free fertilizers, cash transfers, or fund MGNREGA work.
Hence the correct option is Agri-logistics and cold chains.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q12. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): India Industrial Land Bank provides GIS-based information.
Reason (R): It is managed by the Ministry of Mines.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

A is true: The India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) is a GIS-enabled portal that provides information about industrial plots and clusters across the country.
R is false: IILB is managed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not by the Ministry of Mines.
Since A is true and R is false, the correct option is option 3.

Geography (5)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Fluvial landforms

Q13. In which type of geological formation are gorges most commonly developed?

  1. (a) Soft sediment
  2. (b) Hard rocks
  3. (c) Glacial till
  4. (d) Volcanic ash
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hard rocks

A gorge is a deep, narrow valley with steep, almost vertical sides, formed when a river cuts downward much faster than the valley sides erode sideways.
This kind of vertical erosion happens mainly when the rock on the sides is hard and resistant — the river can only cut downward, not widen the valley.
Soft sediment and glacial till erode laterally easily and form wider valleys.
Volcanic ash is loose and does not support vertical cliffs typical of gorges.
Hence gorges develop most commonly in hard rocks.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q14. Which Indian state recorded negative population growth between 2001–2011?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagaland

According to Census 2011 data, Nagaland was the only major Indian state to record a negative decadal population growth rate (about −0.6%) between 2001 and 2011.
Kerala, Goa and Manipur all showed positive (though comparatively low) growth.
Hence the correct answer is Nagaland.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q15. Which of the following best describes the rate of natural increase of population?

  1. (a) It is the crude birth rate multiplied by crude death rate
  2. (b) It is the ratio of working population to total population
  3. (c) It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate
  4. (d) It is the average annual growth due to migration alone
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate

Rate of natural increase = Crude Birth Rate − Crude Death Rate (usually expressed per 1,000 population).
It measures the population growth that comes only from births and deaths (not migration).
It is not the product of CBR and CDR, nor the ratio of working to total population, nor the growth due to migration alone.
Hence the correct definition is: It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q16. Which of the following correctly highlights a unique feature of India's textile industry?

  1. (a) It focuses only on raw material exports
  2. (b) It is partially self-reliant and imports final products
  3. (c) It is self-reliant across the full value chain
  4. (d) It only caters to domestic markets
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is self-reliant across the full value chain

A unique feature of India's textile industry is that it is self-reliant across the entire value chain — from fibre (cotton, silk, jute, man-made fibres) to yarn, fabric, dyeing, processing and finished garments.
It does not focus only on raw material exports; it does not import final products to fill domestic demand; and it serves both export and large domestic markets.
Hence the correct option is: It is self-reliant across the full value chain.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q17. Evaluate these statements regarding atmospheric layers:
1. Most weather phenomena occur in the stratosphere.
2. The ozone layer is primarily found in the troposphere.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement 1 only
  2. (b) Statement 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1: Most weather phenomena — clouds, rain, storms — occur in the troposphere (the lowest layer), not in the stratosphere. Incorrect.
Statement 2: The ozone layer lies in the lower stratosphere (about 15–35 km altitude), not in the troposphere. Incorrect.
Both statements are incorrect.
Hence the correct option is 'Neither 1 nor 2'.

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q18. What is the primary function of telomerase enzyme?

  1. (a) DNA replication
  2. (b) Telomere lengthening
  3. (c) DNA repair
  4. (d) RNA transcription
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Telomere lengthening

Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein enzyme that adds repetitive nucleotide sequences (TTAGGG in humans) to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres).
This lengthening of telomeres compensates for the gradual shortening that occurs with each round of DNA replication.
DNA replication is done mainly by DNA polymerases; DNA repair involves different enzymes; RNA transcription is performed by RNA polymerase.
Hence the primary function of telomerase is telomere lengthening.

Polity (3)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q19. Which of the following commissions recommended the establishment of a Permanent Secretariat for the Inter-State Council to institutionalize Centre–State cooperation?

  1. (a) Rajamannar Committee
  2. (b) Punchhi Commission
  3. (c) Sarkaria Commission
  4. (d) Venkatachelliah Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission

The Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State Relations (1983–88) recommended setting up a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263, with its own permanent secretariat, to institutionalise consultation between the Union and the States.
On its recommendation, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990.
The Rajamannar Committee was a Tamil Nadu state-level committee; the Punchhi and Venkatachelliah commissions dealt with later issues.
Hence the correct answer is the Sarkaria Commission.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q20. What is the primary objective of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India?

  1. (a) To establish a common criminal law for all citizens
  2. (b) To unify direct and indirect tax laws
  3. (c) To provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens, irrespective of religion
  4. (d) To standardise administrative procedures across all states
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens, irrespective of religion

A Uniform Civil Code (envisaged under Article 44 of the Constitution as a Directive Principle) aims to provide one set of personal laws — covering marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption, maintenance, etc. — applicable to all citizens of India, irrespective of their religion.
Criminal law is already uniform under the BNS / IPC and CrPC / BNSS.
Tax laws and administrative procedures are governed under separate frameworks.
Hence the primary objective of UCC is option 3.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils

Q21. Which Article enables the President to establish an Inter-State Council?

  1. (a) Article 263
  2. (b) Article 264
  3. (c) Article 312
  4. (d) Article 262
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 263

Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears to him that public interest would be served by setting up such a body.
Article 262 deals with adjudication of inter-state water disputes; Article 264 deals with the interpretation of finance-related terms; Article 312 deals with All-India Services.
Hence the correct Article is 263.

Chemistry (1)

Metals and Non-metals · Physical properties of metals and non-metals

Q22. Why are cooking utensils often made with a copper bottom?

  1. (a) Copper is a good insulator, preventing heat loss
  2. (b) Copper has a low melting point, making it easy to manufacture
  3. (c) Copper is a good conductor of heat, ensuring even heating
  4. (d) Copper reacts readily with food, enhancing flavour
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Copper is a good conductor of heat, ensuring even heating

Copper has very high thermal conductivity (among the best of common metals).
A copper bottom therefore distributes heat quickly and evenly across the base of the utensil, preventing hot spots and ensuring food cooks uniformly.
Copper is not an insulator; its melting point is fairly high (~1084 °C), so ease of manufacture is not the reason; and food contact with copper is actually limited (which is why copper utensils are usually tinned or used only at the bottom).
Hence the correct reason is: copper is a good conductor of heat.

Current Affairs (2)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q23. According to the Global Peace Index 2024, which of the following statements correctly reflects global peace trends since 2008?

  1. (a) All three GPI domains have steadily improved since 2008
  2. (b) The average country score has improved by 4.5% since 2008
  3. (c) Ongoing Conflict and Safety & Security have deteriorated, while Militarisation has improved
  4. (d) The number of countries showing improvement exceeds those showing deterioration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ongoing Conflict and Safety & Security have deteriorated, while Militarisation has improved

GPI 2024 reports that on a long-term basis since 2008:
• Ongoing Conflict has worsened — more state-based, internal and external conflicts.
• Safety and Security has also deteriorated — civilian deaths, violent crime, refugee numbers up.
• Militarisation, however, has shown a slight improvement — reduced military expenditure as % of GDP and lower armed-forces personnel in many countries.
It is also widely reported that more countries deteriorated than improved on average country scores. Hence option 3 best matches the GPI 2024 finding.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q24. Under India's updated State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) for 2025, which sector received the highest budgetary allocation for climate adaptation?

  1. (a) Transport
  2. (b) Urban Planning
  3. (c) Agriculture and Water Resources
  4. (d) Renewable Energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Agriculture and Water Resources

Under India's updated State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCC) for 2025, the largest share of climate-adaptation funding has been allocated to agriculture and water resources.
These sectors are the most climate-sensitive in India — farmers and water availability bear the immediate brunt of rainfall variability, droughts and heatwaves.
Transport, urban planning and renewable energy are largely on the mitigation side and received smaller shares.
Hence the correct option is Agriculture and Water Resources.
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