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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 10 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 10 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Medieval History, Polity, Static GK, Ancient History, Modern History.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 10 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Chemistry (1) · Medieval History (2) · Polity (3) · Static GK (14) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (2) · Current Affairs (5) · Geography (6) · Biology (2) · Economics (10)

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q1. Which international organization publishes air quality guidelines that many nations use as a reference?

  1. (a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
  2. (b) World Health Organization (WHO)
  3. (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  4. (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Health Organization (WHO)

Correct Answer: World Health Organization (WHO)
The WHO publishes the Global Air Quality Guidelines, which are used by countries worldwide as benchmarks for setting air quality standards and policies. The latest WHO Air Quality Guidelines were updated in 2021.
Option 1 (UNESCO): Incorrect. UNESCO deals with education, science, and culture.
Option 3 (IMF): Incorrect. IMF deals with monetary and financial matters.
Option 4 (WTO): Incorrect. WTO regulates international trade.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q2. The title "Zinda Pir" or "Living Saint" was attributed to:

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Aurangzeb
  3. (c) Babur
  4. (d) Jahangir
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aurangzeb

Correct Answer: Aurangzeb
Aurangzeb (reign 1658–1707) was given the title 'Zinda Pir' (Living Saint) by his followers due to his austere, pious lifestyle. He was known for his strict adherence to Islamic principles — he fasted, prayed regularly, and even stitched caps and copied the Quran to earn his personal expenses.
Option 1 (Akbar): Incorrect. Akbar was known for religious tolerance and Din- i -Ilahi.
Option 3 (Babur): Incorrect. He was the founder of the Mughal Empire.
Option 4 (Jahangir): Incorrect. He was known for his love of art and nature.
South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q3. The Chola inscription at Uttaramerur is primarily concerned with:

  1. (a) Maritime trade
  2. (b) Military conquest
  3. (c) Temple rituals
  4. (d) Village administration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Village administration

Correct Answer: Village administration
The Uttaramerur inscriptions (from the reign of Parantaka I, ~920 CE) are famous for detailing the system of local self-governance in the Chola period. They describe the qualifications, procedures for election, and duties of village assembly members (Mahasabha) — making them a key source on Chola-era village administration.
Option 1 (Maritime trade): Incorrect. Chola maritime trade is documented elsewhere.
Option 2 (Military conquest): Incorrect. Military records are found in other Chola inscriptions.
Option 3 (Temple rituals): Incorrect. Temple administration is described in other inscriptions.

Polity (3)

Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q4. Which constitutional amendment granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 52nd Amendment
  3. (c) 99th Amendment
  4. (d) 73rd Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 73rd Amendment

Correct Answer: 73rd Amendment
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (effective April 24, 1993) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) by adding Part IX and the 11th Schedule to the Constitution. It mandated three-tier PRIs, reservation for women and SCs/STs, and regular elections.
Option 1 (42nd Amendment, 1976): Incorrect. It dealt with Fundamental Duties and other changes.
Option 2 (52nd Amendment, 1985): Incorrect. It introduced the anti-defection law (10th Schedule).
Option 3 (99th Amendment, 2014): Incorrect. It established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (later struck down).
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q5. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) allows for trials to proceed in the absence of the accused in certain circumstances. This provision applies specifically to:

  1. (a) Any accused person who fails to appear.
  2. (b) Only foreign nationals.
  3. (c) Proclaimed offenders who abscond.
  4. (d) Accused persons who are gravely ill.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Proclaimed offenders who abscond.

Correct Answer: Proclaimed offenders who abscond.
Under the BNSS, 2023, the provision for trial in absentia (proceeding without the accused) applies specifically to proclaimed offenders — those who abscond or evade arrest after being declared proclaimed offenders by the court. This provision aims to prevent accused persons from indefinitely delaying trials by fleeing.
Option 1: Incorrect. Any non-appearance does not automatically trigger in-absentia trials.
Option 2: Incorrect. The provision is not limited to foreign nationals.
Option 4: Incorrect. Illness is a ground for adjournment, not in-absentia trial.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q6. What is the maximum period of imprisonment that can be given in a summary trial under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, irrespective of the punishment specified for the offence?

  1. (a) 1 month
  2. (b) 3 months
  3. (c) 12 months
  4. (d) 24 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3 months

Correct Answer: 3 months
Under the BNSS, 2023, in a summary trial, the maximum punishment of imprisonment that can be awarded is 3 months, regardless of the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. Summary trials are meant for minor offences where quick disposal is needed.
Option 1 (1 month): Incorrect.
Option 3 (12 months): Incorrect.
Option 4 (24 months): Incorrect.

Static GK (14)

Sports · Olympic Games

Q7. Which athlete's victory marked India's inaugural gold medal moment in the Youth Olympics?

  1. (a) Neeraj Chopra
  2. (b) Manu Bhaker
  3. (c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga
  4. (d) Lovlina Borgohain
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga

Correct Answer: Jeremy Lalrinnunga
Jeremy Lalrinnunga won India's first-ever gold medal at the Youth Olympic Games — he won in Weightlifting (62 kg category) at the 2018 Youth Olympics held in Buenos Aires, Argentina.
Option 1 (Neeraj Chopra): Incorrect. Neeraj won gold at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics (senior), not Youth Olympics.
Option 2 (Manu Bhaker ): Incorrect. She has won medals at senior Olympics but not the inaugural Youth Olympics gold.
Option 4 ( Lovlina Borgohain): Incorrect. She won bronze at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q8. Where were the 2008 Commonwealth Youth Games primarily hosted?

  1. (a) Chennai
  2. (b) Delhi
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Pune
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pune

Correct Answer: Pune
The 2008 Commonwealth Youth Games were held in Pune, Maharashtra, India. It was the 3rd edition of the Commonwealth Youth Games, held from October 12–18, 2008.
Option 1 (Chennai): Incorrect.
Option 2 (Delhi): Incorrect. Delhi hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010 (senior edition).
Option 3 (Hyderabad): Incorrect.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q9. In which of the following shapes is the famous Sun Temple at Konark designed?

  1. (a) A lotus flower
  2. (b) A gigantic chariot
  3. (c) A circular stupa
  4. (d) A reclining deity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A gigantic chariot

Correct Answer: A gigantic chariot
The Konark Sun Temple (13th century CE, Odisha) was designed in the shape of a giant chariot of the Sun God Surya, with 12 pairs of intricately carved stone wheels and seven horses. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Option 1 (Lotus flower): Incorrect. Some Buddhist stupas have lotus motifs but Konark is a chariot design.
Option 3 (Circular stupa): Incorrect. Stupas are hemispherical/circular; Konark is a chariot.
Option 4 (Reclining deity): Incorrect. No major temple is primarily designed in this shape.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q10. Which Indo-European style combined Gothic, Mughal, and Hindu features during the colonial era?

  1. (a) Indo-Saracenic
  2. (b) Colonial Baroque
  3. (c) Dravidian Revival
  4. (d) Mughal-Gothic
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indo-Saracenic

Correct Answer: Indo-Saracenic
The Indo-Saracenic architectural style (also called Indo-Gothic or Mughal-Gothic) emerged during British colonial rule in India. It blended elements of Gothic Revival, Mughal, and Hindu/Rajput architectural styles. Famous examples include the Victoria Memorial (Kolkata), Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (Mumbai), and Mysore Palace.
Option 2 (Colonial Baroque): Incorrect. Baroque is a European style not widely used in India.
Option 3 (Dravidian Revival): Incorrect. This refers specifically to South Indian temple revival architecture.
Option 4 (Mughal-Gothic): Incorrect. This is not a standard recognized architectural category.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q11. Which Norwegian author won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023 for his innovative plays and prose?

  1. (a) Karl Ove Knausgard
  2. (b) Jon Fosse
  3. (c) Per Petterson
  4. (d) Erlend Loe
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jon Fosse

Correct Answer: Jon Fosse
Jon Fosse, a Norwegian author and playwright, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2023. The Swedish Academy cited him 'for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.' He is one of the most performed playwrights in the world.
Option 1 (Karl Ove Knausgard): Incorrect. He is a celebrated Norwegian author (My Struggle series) but has not won the Nobel Prize.
Option 3 (Per Petterson): Incorrect. Known for Out Stealing Horses but not a Nobel laureate.
Option 4 (Erlend Loe): Incorrect. Norwegian author but not a Nobel laureate.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q12. Which sport's terminology includes "Queen's Gambit"?

  1. (a) Kho-Kho
  2. (b) Tennis
  3. (c) Chess
  4. (d) Kabaddi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chess

Correct Answer: Chess
The Queen's Gambit is a famous chess opening in which White offers a pawn sacrifice (d4, c4) to gain control of the center . It is one of the oldest and most popular chess openings. (Note: It was also the title of a popular Netflix series about chess.)
Option 1 (Kho-Kho): Incorrect. Kho-Kho has no such terminology.
Option 2 (Tennis): Incorrect. Tennis uses terms like deuce, advantage, love, etc.
Option 4 (Kabaddi): Incorrect. Kabaddi uses terms like raid, tackle, lobby, etc.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q13. "Lezim" is a folk dance from which state?

  1. (a) Goa
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Correct Answer: Maharashtra
Lezim is a traditional folk dance and exercise form from Maharashtra. It involves dancers performing rhythmic movements with a small percussion instrument called ' lezim ' (a kind of tambourine with jingles). It is commonly performed during festivals and sports events.
Option 1 (Goa): Incorrect. Goa is known for Fugdi and Dekhni dances.
Option 3 (Rajasthan): Incorrect. Rajasthan is known for Ghoomar , Kalbelia , etc.
Option 4 (Punjab): Incorrect. Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha .
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q14. What is the primary source of Kathakali's dramatic stories?

  1. (a) Folk tales
  2. (b) Indian epics
  3. (c) Local legends
  4. (d) Historical events
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indian epics

Correct Answer: Indian epics
Kathakali, the classical dance-drama of Kerala, draws its dramatic stories primarily from Indian epics and Puranas — mainly the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Bhagavata Purana. The performances enact stories of gods, demons, and heroes from these epics.
Option 1 (Folk tales): Incorrect. Kathakali is based on classical literature, not folk tales.
Option 3 (Local legends): Incorrect. Local legends are not the primary source.
Option 4 (Historical events): Incorrect. Kathakali is mythological, not historical.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q15. Which one of these classical musicians is credited with popularizing the sitar in the global music scene?

  1. (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar
  2. (b) Ustad Vilayat Khan
  3. (c) Pandit Nikhil Banerjee
  4. (d) Ustad Allauddin Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar

Correct Answer: Pandit Ravi Shankar
Pandit Ravi Shankar (1920–2012) is universally credited with bringing the sitar and Indian classical music to global audiences. His collaborations with George Harrison of The Beatles and performances at Woodstock and Monterey Pop Festival made him an iconic figure in world music.
Option 2 (Ustad Vilayat Khan): Incorrect. He was a great sitar player but not known for global popularization.
Option 3 (Pandit Nikhil Banerjee): Incorrect. He was an acclaimed sitarist but not globally famous.
Option 4 (Ustad Allauddin Khan): Incorrect. He was a multi-instrumentalist and guru of Ravi Shankar, not known for global outreach.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q16. Which of these is true about Bandi Chhor Divas?

  1. (a) Commemorates Guru Hargobind's release with 52 kings.
  2. (b) It marks the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev during Mughal rule.
  3. (c) The festival involves fasting and silence throughout the day.
  4. (d) Celebrated only at Golden Temple without any street processions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Commemorates Guru Hargobind's release with 52 kings.

Correct Answer: Commemorates Guru Hargobind's release with 52 kings.
Bandi Chhor Divas (Day of Liberation) commemorates the release of Guru Hargobind Ji (the 6th Sikh Guru) from Gwalior Fort prison in 1619. He secured the release of 52 Hindu kings along with him by having them hold onto his cloak. It coincides with Diwali and is celebrated by Sikhs worldwide.
Option 2: Incorrect. Guru Arjan Dev's martyrdom is commemorated separately ( Shaheedi Divas).
Option 3: Incorrect. Bandi Chhor Divas is a joyous celebration with lights (like Diwali), not fasting.
Option 4: Incorrect. It is celebrated at gurdwaras worldwide with processions.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q17. Which of the following statements about traditional and semi-classical Indian music forms are correct?
1. Kajri is sung by women in Uttar Pradesh during the monsoon, often with night-long group dancing.
2. Qawwali, introduced by Turkish Sufis, is performed only as solo singing without chorus.
3. Tappa from Punjab features rapid, jumpy notes inspired by camel riders' songs.
4. Amir Khusro helped shape Qawwali in India as a Sufi devotional form.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: 1, 3 and 4 only
Statement 1 (Kajri): CORRECT. Kajri is a semi-classical folk form from UP/Bihar, sung during the monsoon season, often by women in group settings with night-long performances.
Statement 2 (Qawwali solo only): INCORRECT. Qawwali is a group performance with a lead singer (qawwal) and chorus (harmonists). It is NOT solo singing.
Statement 3 (Tappa): CORRECT. Tappa originated from the folk songs of camel riders of Punjab/Sindh. It features rapid, intricate taans (note patterns).
Statement 4 (Amir Khusro): CORRECT. Amir Khusro (13th–14th century) is credited with shaping and formalizing Qawwali as a Sufi devotional music form in India.
Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q18. Read the below statements about Indian Sports Infrastructure:
1. The Sports Authority of India was established in 1985.
2. National Sports University is located in Manipur.
3. The Army Sports Institute is based in Pune.
Which of these statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are Correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3 are Correct

Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3 are Correct
Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrectbecause theSports Authority of India (SAI)was established in1984, not 1985.
Statement 2 is correctbecause theNational Sports Universityis located inManipur.
Statement 3 is correctbecause theArmy Sports Instituteis based inPune, Maharashtra.
Therefore, the correct answer isOnly 2 and 3 are Correct.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q19. 'The God of Small Things' won the Booker Prize in which year?

  1. (a) 1995
  2. (b) 1997
  3. (c) 1999
  4. (d) 2001
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1997

Correct Answer: 1997
The God of Small Things by Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize in 1997. It was her debut novel set in Kerala, exploring themes of caste, family, and forbidden love. It became a global bestseller.
Option 1 (1995): Incorrect.
Option 3 (1999): Incorrect.
Option 4 (2001): Incorrect.
Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q20. Mario de Miranda, known for his cartoons and sketches, hailed from which Indian state?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa

Correct Answer: Goa
Mario de Miranda (1926–2011) was one of India's greatest cartoonists and illustrators. He was born in Goa (then Portuguese territory) and is celebrated for his distinctive cartoons that appeared in The Illustrated Weekly of India, The Times of India, and other publications. He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2012.
Option 1 (Kerala): Incorrect.
Option 3 (Maharashtra): Incorrect. He worked in Mumbai but was from Goa.
Option 4 (Karnataka): Incorrect.

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Nalanda and ancient universities

Q21. Which of the following rulers founded the Nalanda University?

  1. (a) Chandragupta Maurya
  2. (b) Chandragupta I
  3. (c) Sri Gupta
  4. (d) Kumaragupta I
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kumaragupta I

Correct Answer: Kumaragupta I
Nalanda University, one of the greatest centers of learning in the ancient world, was founded by Kumaragupta I (reign ~415–455 CE) of the Gupta dynasty. It became a renowned Buddhist university attracting scholars from across Asia.
Option 1 (Chandragupta Maurya): Incorrect. He was the founder of the Maurya Empire (4th century BCE).
Option 2 (Chandragupta I): Incorrect. He was the founder of the Gupta Empire but predates Nalanda.
Option 3 (Sri Gupta): Incorrect. He was the earliest known Gupta ruler, not associated with Nalanda.
Gupta Empire · Fa-Hien and the decline of the Guptas

Q22. The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of ____.

  1. (a) Chandragupta II
  2. (b) Kumaragupta
  3. (c) Samudragupta
  4. (d) Chandragupta I
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandragupta II

Correct Answer: Chandragupta II
Fa-Hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India between 399–414 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). He traveled to study Buddhism and collect sacred texts. His account 'Fo Guo Ji' (Record of Buddhist Kingdoms) is an important historical source.
Option 2 ( Kumaragupta ): Incorrect. He succeeded Chandragupta II.
Option 3 (Samudragupta): Incorrect. He preceded Chandragupta II.
Option 4 (Chandragupta I): Incorrect. He was the grandfather of Chandragupta II.

Modern History (2)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Lucknow Pact

Q23. In 1916, two major political groups in India came together to present a united front to the British. Which organizations signed this historic agreement, known as the Lucknow Pact?

  1. (a) Indian National Congress and Swaraj Party
  2. (b) All-India Muslim League and Khilafat Committee
  3. (c) Indian National Congress and Muslim League
  4. (d) Hindu Mahasabha and Indian National Congress
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian National Congress and Muslim League

Correct Answer: Indian National Congress and Muslim League
The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was signed between the Indian National Congress (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak) and the All-India Muslim League (led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah). Both agreed on a scheme for constitutional reforms to present to the British government, and Congress accepted the principle of separate electorates for Muslims.
Option 1 (Swaraj Party): Incorrect. Swaraj Party was formed in 1923, after the Lucknow Pact.
Option 2 (Khilafat Committee): Incorrect. The Khilafat Movement came after World War I (1919–1924).
Option 4 (Hindu Mahasabha): Incorrect. It was not part of the Lucknow Pact.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Newspapers, journals and their founders

Q24. Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): Subramaniya Siva edited the nationalist journal ' Gnanabhanu ' in Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): He was the first Indian to be arrested under the Rowlatt Act.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: A is true, but R is false.
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Subramaniya Siva was indeed a Tamil nationalist who edited the journal ' Gnanabhanu ' in Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R) is FALSE: Subramaniya Siva was NOT the first Indian arrested under the Rowlatt Act. The first arrest under the Rowlatt Act is generally associated with other nationalist leaders. Subramaniya Siva was actually arrested earlier for sedition (before the Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919).
Therefore, A is true but R is false.

Current Affairs (5)

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q25. Who won the men's and women's singles titles at the Senior National Badminton Championships 2024 held in Bengaluru?

  1. (a) Lakshya Sen and PV Sindhu
  2. (b) H.S. Prannoy and Saina Nehwal
  3. (c) Kidambi Srikanth and Ashmita Chaliha
  4. (d) M Raghu and Devika Sihag
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) M Raghu and Devika Sihag

Correct Answer: M Raghu and Devika Sihag
At the Senior National Badminton Championships 2024 held in Bengaluru, M Raghu won the men's singles title and Devika Sihag won the women's singles title.
Option 1 (Lakshya Sen & PV Sindhu): Incorrect.
Option 2 (H.S. Prannoy & Saina Nehwal): Incorrect.
Option 3 (Kidambi Srikanth & Ashmita Chaliha): Incorrect.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q26. From the given renowned personalities, which one was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 in the field of Literature and Education?

  1. (a) Jagdish Singh Khehar
  2. (b) Kumudini Lakhia
  3. (c) M.T. Vasudevan Nair
  4. (d) D. Nageshwara Reddy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) M.T. Vasudevan Nair

Correct Answer: M.T. Vasudevan Nair
M.T. Vasudevan Nair (popularly known as MT), the legendary Malayalam author and screenwriter, was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 in the field of Literature and Education. He passed away in December 2024.
Option 1 (Jagdish Singh Khehar): Incorrect. He was a former Chief Justice of India.
Option 2 (Kumudini Lakhia): Incorrect. She is a Kathak dancer.
Option 4 (D. Nageshwara Reddy): Incorrect. He is a gastroenterologist.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q27. Who has been appointed as the Chief Justice of India with effect from May 14, 2025?

  1. (a) Shri Justice Sanjiv Khanna
  2. (b) Shri Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
  3. (c) Shri Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai
  4. (d) Shri Justice U.U. Lalit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shri Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai

Correct Answer: Shri Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai
Justice B.R. Gavai was appointed as the 52nd Chief Justice of India, taking charge on May 14, 2025, succeeding Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna. He is the second Dalit Chief Justice of India.
Option 1 (Justice Sanjiv Khanna): Incorrect. He was the 51st CJI, preceding Justice Gavai.
Option 2 (Justice D.Y. Chandrachud): Incorrect. He was the 50th CJI, retired in November 2024.
Option 4 (Justice U.U. Lalit): Incorrect. He was the 49th CJI.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q28. Fill in the Blanks:
NISAR satellite carries dual-frequency radar bands _____ and _____.

  1. (a) X & C
  2. (b) Ka & Ku
  3. (c) L & S
  4. (d) VHF & UHF
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) L & S

Correct Answer: L & S
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation mission by NASA and ISRO. It carries two radar bands: L-band (provided by NASA) and S-band (provided by ISRO). Together, they provide high-resolution global coverage for monitoring ecosystems, ice masses, natural hazards, and sea levels.
Option 1 (X & C): Incorrect. These are bands used in other SAR satellites.
Option 2 (Ka & Ku): Incorrect. These are higher-frequency bands used in other applications.
Option 4 (VHF & UHF): Incorrect. These are very different frequency bands not used in NISAR.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q29. Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Liquid Oxygen-Methane (LOX-Meth) has been chosen as the preferred propellant combination for India's Next-Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
Reason (R): LOX-Meth offers advantages such as cleaner combustion for engine reusability, relatively simpler propellant tank designs compared to LOX-Hydrogen, and a lower overall operational cost than kerosene due to reduced engine refurbishment.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
LOX-Methane is indeed the chosen propellant for India's NGLV. R correctly explains why: methane burns cleaner (less soot), enabling engine reuse; its tanks are simpler than liquid hydrogen (higher density, no extreme cryogenics); and refurbishment costs are lower than kerosene engines. SpaceX's Raptor and other next-gen engines also use LOX-Methane for the same reasons. R directly and correctly explains A.

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q30. The Himachal range includes famous hill stations and valleys such as:

  1. (a) Munnar and Nilgiris
  2. (b) Ladakh and Nubra
  3. (c) Kullu , Kangra, and Kashmir
  4. (d) Darjeeling and Siliguri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kullu , Kangra, and Kashmir

Correct Answer: Kullu , Kangra, and Kashmir
The lesser Himalayas (Himachal range) includes the famous hill stations and valleys of Kullu , Kangra, Chamba, Shimla, and the Kashmir Valley. These are located in the middle Himalayan zone between the Shiwaliks and the Great Himalayas.
Option 1 (Munnar and Nilgiris): Incorrect. These are in South India (Kerala/Tamil Nadu).
Option 2 (Ladakh and Nubra ): Incorrect. Ladakh and Nubra Valley are in the Trans-Himalayan zone.
Option 4 (Darjeeling and Siliguri): Incorrect. These are in the Eastern Himalayas (West Bengal).
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q31. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The northeastern extension of the Deccan Plateau is known for distinct hill ranges like the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills.
Reason (R): These hills are part of the Chotanagpur Plateau, from which they are separated by a geological fault.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Correct Answer: A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya are indeed the northeastern extensions of the Deccan Plateau (peninsular block).
Reason (R) is FALSE: These hills are NOT part of the Chotanagpur Plateau. They are an extension of the old Gondwana landmass/Deccan Plateau. While they are separated from the main Deccan block, they are not a part of the Chotanagpur Plateau — they belong to a separate geological block (the Shillong Plateau).
Therefore, A is true but R is false.
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q32. According to Census 2011, which state had the lowest population density in India?

  1. (a) Sikkim
  2. (b) Nagaland
  3. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
According to the 2011 Census, Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in India at just 17 persons per square kilometer . This is due to its vast forested area, difficult terrain, and sparse settlements.
Option 1 (Sikkim): Incorrect. Sikkim has a density of 86 persons/ sq km.
Option 2 (Nagaland): Incorrect. Nagaland has a density of 119 persons/ sq km.
Option 4 (Meghalaya): Incorrect. Meghalaya has a density of 132 persons/ sq km.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q33. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The death rate measures the number of deaths per 100 people in a population.
Reason (R): Death rate helps track the health and mortality trends in a region.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true

Correct Answer: A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A) is FALSE: The death rate (crude death rate) measures the number of deaths per 1,000 people in a population per year — NOT per 100 people. The statement of 'per 100' is incorrect.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Death rate is indeed used to track health and mortality trends in a region — it is a key demographic indicator.
Therefore, A is false but R is true.
India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q34. Which four metro cities are connected by India's Golden Quadrilateral highway network?

  1. (a) Bengaluru, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kochi
  2. (b) Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
  3. (c) Ahmedabad, Pune, Nagpur, Bhubaneswar
  4. (d) Lucknow, Patna, Guwahati, Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata

Correct Answer: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
The Golden Quadrilateral is India's largest highway project under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), connecting India's four major metros: Delhi (North), Mumbai (West), Chennai (South), and Kolkata (East). It covers approximately 5,846 km of 4/6 lane highways.
Option 1: Incorrect. These are South Indian cities not part of the Quadrilateral.
Option 3: Incorrect. These are smaller cities not part of the original network.
Option 4: Incorrect. These are northern/eastern cities not part of the Quadrilateral.
Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q35. Consider the following statements about the Aravalli Green Wall Project:
1. It is intended to check desertification across Western India.
2. The project is being implemented in four Indian states.
3. It aims to construct eco-sensitive highways along forest corridors.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. The Aravalli Green Wall Project aims to check desertification and land degradation in the Aravalli range — preventing the Thar Desert from expanding eastward into western India.
Statement 2: CORRECT. The project spans four states: Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi.
Statement 3: INCORRECT. The project aims to create a green corridor of trees and vegetation along the Aravalli hills — it is NOT about constructing eco-sensitive highways along forest corridors.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q36. Which of the following biomolecules is most abundant in plant cell walls?

  1. (a) Cellulose
  2. (b) Pectin
  3. (c) Lignin
  4. (d) Hemicellulose
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cellulose

Correct Answer: Cellulose
Cellulose is the most abundant organic polymer on Earth and the primary structural component of plant cell walls. It accounts for about 40–50% of the cell wall's dry weight. Cellulose is made of glucose units linked by β-1,4 glycosidic bonds, forming rigid microfibrils.
Option 2 (Pectin): Incorrect. Pectin is present in the middle lamella and primary cell wall in smaller quantities.
Option 3 (Lignin): Incorrect. Lignin is present in secondary cell walls of woody plants but is less abundant than cellulose.
Option 4 (Hemicellulose): Incorrect. Hemicellulose is present but in smaller quantities than cellulose.
Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q37. Given four enzymes:
1. DNA polymerase
2. Ligase
3. Helicase
4. Peptidase.
Which are directly involved in DNA replication?

  1. (a) 1 and 2
  2. (b) 2 and 4
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) 3 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: 1, 2 and 3
DNA Polymerase (1): Directly involved — synthesizes new DNA strands.
Ligase (2): Directly involved — joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
Helicase (3): Directly involved — unwinds the DNA double helix at the replication fork.
Peptidase (4): NOT involved in DNA replication — it is a protease that breaks down peptide bonds in proteins.
Therefore, enzymes 1, 2, and 3 are directly involved in DNA replication.

Economics (10)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural marketing (APMC, e-NAM)

Q38. e-NAM is primarily aimed at which of the following?

  1. (a) Farm insurance
  2. (b) Online crop procurement
  3. (c) National digital market
  4. (d) Agro -export facilitation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National digital market

Correct Answer: National digital market
e-NAM (Electronic National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform launched in 2016 by the Government of India under the Ministry of Agriculture. It creates a unified national digital market for agricultural commodities, connecting farmers, traders, and buyers across mandis (APMC markets) to enable better price discovery.
Option 1 (Farm insurance): Incorrect. Farm insurance is covered under PM Fasal Bima Yojana.
Option 2 (Online crop procurement): Incorrect. Procurement is done under MSP schemes separately.
Option 4 ( Agro -export): Incorrect. This is handled by APEDA.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q39. Consider the following statements about Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme:
(1) The NBS scheme provides fixed per-kg subsidy rates for N, P, K, and S in non-urea fertilizers.
(2) Freight assistance is also provided.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Both 1 and 2
Statement 1: CORRECT. The NBS scheme (launched 2010) provides a fixed per-kg subsidy for non-urea fertilizers based on their nutrient content of Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K), and Sulphur (S). Manufacturers get subsidies based on actual nutrient content.
Statement 2: CORRECT. Freight assistance is also provided under the NBS scheme to ensure availability of fertilizers across the country, including remote areas.
Both statements are correct.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q40. The Global Liveability Index 2025, a form of Global Cities Index, is published by which organization?

  1. (a) PwC
  2. (b) EIU
  3. (c) KPMG
  4. (d) World Economic Forum
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) EIU

Correct Answer: EIU
The Global Liveability Index is published annually by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), a research and analysis division of The Economist Group. It ranks 173 cities based on stability, healthcare, culture & environment, education, and infrastructure.
Option 1 (PwC): Incorrect. PwC publishes various business reports but not this index.
Option 3 (KPMG): Incorrect. Not associated with this liveability index.
Option 4 (World Economic Forum): Incorrect. WEF publishes competitiveness and other indices, not the Liveability Index.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q41. What is the impact of PSU disinvestment on the government's financial structure?

  1. (a) It increases government's liabilities
  2. (b) It reduces government's financial assets
  3. (c) It increases the government's earnings permanently
  4. (d) It does not affect finances at all
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It reduces government's financial assets

Correct Answer: It reduces government's financial assets
When the government divests (sells its stake) in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), it reduces its ownership/equity stake in those enterprises. This means the government's financial assets (equity/shareholding) decrease. The disinvestment proceeds are a one-time capital receipt, not permanent earnings.
Option 1: Incorrect. Disinvestment reduces liabilities in the sense of reducing management burden; it doesn't increase liabilities.
Option 3: Incorrect. Disinvestment proceeds are non-recurring one-time receipts, not permanent earnings.
Option 4: Incorrect. It significantly affects the government's financial structure by changing its asset composition.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Balance of payments and current account

Q42. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: A surplus on the current account indicates that the country is lending to the rest of the world.
Statement 2: A current account is said to be in balance when payments exceed receipts.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Correct Answer: Only Statement 1 is correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. A current account surplus means the country is earning more from exports/services/transfers than it is spending on imports — effectively lending money to the rest of the world (net creditor position).
Statement 2: INCORRECT. A current account is in balance when receipts EQUAL payments (not when payments exceed receipts). When payments exceed receipts, it is a current account DEFICIT, not balance.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q43. Which year marked the beginning of India's First Five-Year Plan?

  1. (a) 1949
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1951
  4. (d) 1952
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1951

Correct Answer: 1951
India's First Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951 (April 1, 1951) and ran until 1956. It was formulated by the Planning Commission under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, with primary focus on agricultural development and rehabilitating refugees post-Partition.
Option 1 (1949): Incorrect.
Option 2 (1950): Incorrect. The Planning Commission was established on March 15, 1950, but the Plan started in 1951.
Option 4 (1952): Incorrect.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q44. Which of the following pairs correctly represent light industries?

  1. (a) Oil and Shipbuilding
  2. (b) Knitting needles and Electric bulbs
  3. (c) Automobile and Brassware
  4. (d) Sewing machines and Shipbuilding
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Knitting needles and Electric bulbs

Correct Answer: Knitting needles and Electric bulbs
Light industries are those that use lighter raw materials, produce consumer goods, and have lower capital requirements. Knitting needles and electric bulbs are classic examples of light industries.
Option 1 (Oil and Shipbuilding): Incorrect. Both are heavy industries.
Option 3 (Automobile and Brassware): Incorrect. Automobile manufacturing is a heavy/medium industry.
Option 4 (Sewing machines and Shipbuilding): Incorrect. Shipbuilding is a heavy industry.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q45. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Green Revolution led to regional imbalances in agricultural growth.
Reason (R): HYV technology and irrigation facilities were initially available only in select states.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The Green Revolution (1960s–70s) did create regional imbalances — it benefited mainly Punjab, Haryana, and western UP, while other states lagged behind. R correctly explains this: High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, irrigation, and modern inputs were initially concentrated in select states with better infrastructure. This uneven distribution is why R is the correct explanation of A.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q46. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was introduced in the Fifth Plan.
Reason (R): It targeted improvement in quality of life through education, health, and drinking water.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was indeed introduced in India's Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79). Its primary objective was to improve the quality of life of the poor by ensuring minimum standards in elementary education, rural health, rural water supply, rural roads, rural electrification, environmental improvement of urban slums, and nutrition. R correctly and directly explains the purpose and thus the rationale for A.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q47. Which of the following was not a goal of 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) Promote industrial competitiveness
  2. (b) Expand public sector control
  3. (c) Boost foreign investment
  4. (d) Achieve fiscal discipline
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Expand public sector control

Correct Answer: Expand public sector control
The 1991 economic reforms (New Economic Policy) under PM Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh were based on the LPG model — Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation. The goals were to promote industrial competitiveness, boost foreign investment, achieve fiscal discipline, reduce trade barriers, and reduce public sector dominance.
Expanding public sector control was the OPPOSITE of 1991 reforms — the reforms aimed to REDUCE public sector monopoly and open the economy to private and foreign players.
Therefore, 'Expand public sector control' was NOT a goal of 1991 reforms.
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