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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 10 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 46 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 10 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Medieval History, Polity, Static GK, Modern History, Current Affairs.

📚 46 questions🗓️ 10 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (10) · Medieval History (2) · Polity (4) · Static GK (11) · Modern History (4) · Current Affairs (3) · Ancient History (1) · Geography (7) · Chemistry (1) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Miscellaneous (1)

Economics (10)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q1. Governments are trying to make rules for businesses simpler and easier to understand.
This approach is known as:

  1. (a) Making rules harder
  2. (b) Streamlining regulations
  3. (c) Ignoring rules
  4. (d) Creating more rules
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Streamlining regulations

Correct Answer: Streamlining regulations
Streamlining regulations means simplifying and rationalising existing rules to make them clearer, fewer, and easier to comply with. This reduces the compliance burden on businesses and is a key goal of Ease of Doing Business reforms.
Option 1: Incorrect. Making rules harder is the opposite.
Option 3: Incorrect. Ignoring rules would be unlawful.
Option 4: Incorrect. Creating more rules adds complexity.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q2. Which of the following industrial sectors were prioritized during the Second Five-Year Plan?

  1. (a) Textile industry and advertising industry
  2. (b) Iron and steel industry, fertilizer industry, heavy engineering, and lignite projects
  3. (c) Cottage industry and consumer goods industry
  4. (d) Handicrafts and Information technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Iron and steel industry, fertilizer industry, heavy engineering, and lignite projects

Correct Answer: Iron and steel industry, fertilizer industry, heavy engineering, and lignite projects
India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61), based on the Nehru- Mahalanobis model, prioritised heavy industries and public sector investment. Key sectors included iron and steel ( Bhilai , Durgapur, Rourkela plants), heavy engineering, fertilizers, and lignite/coal projects.
Option 1: Incorrect. Textiles were a priority in earlier years, not the core of the Second Plan.
Option 3: Incorrect. Cottage industries were prioritised in the First Plan.
Option 4: Incorrect. IT industry didn't exist as a concept in 1956.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q3. What was the primary objective of the "Gadgil Formula"?

  1. (a) To determine the allocation of central assistance for state plans in India
  2. (b) To focus on industrial growth in economically weaker states
  3. (c) To provide equal financial support to all regions, regardless of their specific needs
  4. (d) To distribute resources according to the state's economic outputs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To determine the allocation of central assistance for state plans in India

Correct Answer: To determine the allocation of central assistance for state plans in India
The Gadgil Formula (1969), formulated by D.R. Gadgil, was designed to determine how central plan assistance (grants and loans) should be distributed among states. It gave weightage to population (60%), per capita income of less-developed states (10%), ongoing irrigation and power projects (10%), achievements in land reform (10%), and performance in family planning (10%).
Option 2: Incorrect. Industrial growth was not the primary focus of this formula.
Option 3: Incorrect. The formula was need-based, not equal distribution.
Option 4: Incorrect. Economic output was not the basis of allocation.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q4. What role did Small-Scale Industries (SSIs) play in the 6th Five-Year Plan's trade strategy?

  1. (a) They were discouraged in favor of large-scale units
  2. (b) They were expected to focus only on local markets
  3. (c) They were promoted as key exporters and employment generators
  4. (d) They were merged with public sector units
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They were promoted as key exporters and employment generators

Correct Answer: They were promoted as key exporters and employment generators
The Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980–85) explicitly promoted Small-Scale Industries (SSIs) as key contributors to export earnings and employment generation. SSIs were seen as labour-intensive units that could generate employment and contribute to foreign exchange through exports of handicrafts, garments, leather goods, etc.
Option 1: Incorrect. SSIs were promoted, not discouraged.
Option 2: Incorrect. Export promotion was a key goal.
Option 4: Incorrect. SSIs remained independent of the public sector.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q5. SHC scheme is implemented by which ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC )
  2. (b) Ministry of Jal Shakti
  3. (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare ( MoA&FW )
  4. (d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation ( MoSPI )
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare ( MoA&FW )

Correct Answer: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare ( MoA&FW )
The Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Launched in 2015, the scheme provides farmers with a Soil Health Card every two years showing the nutrient status of their soil and recommendations for fertilizer use to improve crop productivity.
Option 1 ( MoEFCC ): Incorrect. Deals with environment and forests.
Option 2 (Jal Shakti): Incorrect. Deals with water resources and sanitation.
Option 4 ( MoSPI ): Incorrect. Deals with statistics and programme monitoring.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - components and process

Q6. What does the Finance Bill presented in the Budget mainly contain?

  1. (a) Details of government borrowing plans
  2. (b) Proposals related to tax changes or rules
  3. (c) Estimates of state-level expenditure only
  4. (d) Monetary policy statements of RBI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Proposals related to tax changes or rules

Correct Answer: Proposals related to tax changes or rules
The Finance Bill is a Money Bill presented in Parliament alongside the Union Budget. It contains proposals for changes in taxation — new taxes, modifications to existing tax rates, and amendments to tax laws. It requires approval of Parliament and implements the taxation proposals in the Budget Speech.
Option 1 (Borrowing plans): Incorrect. Borrowing is mentioned in the Budget but not the core of the Finance Bill.
Option 3 (State expenditure): Incorrect. State expenditure is in State Budgets.
Option 4 (RBI monetary policy): Incorrect. RBI's monetary policy is set independently in its MPC meetings.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q7. Which of the following is an example of a capital receipt for the Indian government?

  1. (a) Income tax collection
  2. (b) Dividends received from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
  3. (c) Disinvestment proceeds from selling shares of PSUs
  4. (d) Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disinvestment proceeds from selling shares of PSUs

Correct Answer: Disinvestment proceeds from selling shares of PSUs
Capital receipts are those that create a liability or reduce an asset for the government. Disinvestment proceeds (selling government's share in PSUs) reduce the government's financial assets — hence it is a capital receipt.
Option 1 (Income tax): Incorrect. Tax revenue is a revenue receipt.
Option 2 (PSU dividends): Incorrect. Dividends are revenue receipts (non-tax revenue).
Option 4 (GST): Incorrect. GST is a revenue receipt (tax revenue).
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q8. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'opportunity cost' in microeconomics?

  1. (a) The cost of producing goods in the future
  2. (b) The net gain from an investment
  3. (c) The value of leisure forgone
  4. (d) The value of the best alternative forgone
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The value of the best alternative forgone

Correct Answer: The value of the best alternative forgone
Opportunity cost is a fundamental concept in economics. It refers to the value of the next best alternative that is given up when a decision is made. For example, if you choose to study instead of working, the opportunity cost is the income you could have earned.
Option 1: Incorrect. Future production cost is not opportunity cost.
Option 2: Incorrect. Net gain is profit, not opportunity cost.
Option 3: Incorrect. Leisure forgone is one specific example but not the complete definition.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q9. Based on the classification of industries by raw material source, which option below is correctly paired?

  1. (a) Tea – Mineral-based industry
  2. (b) Petrochemicals – Mineral-based industry
  3. (c) Coffee – Mineral-based industry
  4. (d) Woollen textile – Mineral-based industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Petrochemicals – Mineral-based industry

Correct Answer: Petrochemicals – Mineral-based industry
Industries are classified by raw material source as: Agro -based (raw material from agriculture — cotton, jute, sugar, tea, coffee), Forest-based (timber, paper), Mineral-based (iron/steel, cement, petrochemicals), and Animal-based (leather, wool, dairy).
Petrochemicals are derived from petroleum (crude oil) — a mineral resource. So, petrochemicals is correctly classified as a mineral-based industry.
Option 1 (Tea): Incorrect. Tea is an agro -based industry.
Option 3 (Coffee): Incorrect. Coffee is an agro -based industry.
Option 4 (Woollen textile): Incorrect. Wool comes from animals — it is an animal-based industry.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q10. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Tax reforms post-1991 included lowering income tax rates.
Reason (R): Lower tax rates were believed to increase tax compliance and reduce evasion.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Post-1991 tax reforms under the guidance of the Tax Reforms Committee (Chellaiah Committee) included rationalisation and reduction of income tax rates to broaden the tax base.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The rationale was based on the Laffer Curve principle — lower tax rates reduce the incentive to evade taxes, increase compliance, and ultimately can lead to higher tax revenues. R directly and correctly explains why taxes were lowered (A).
Therefore, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Khalji dynasty

Q11. Neither Malik Kafur nor Alauddin Khalji led campaigns against:

  1. (a) Devagiri
  2. (b) Warangal
  3. (c) Vijayanagara
  4. (d) Madurai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vijayanagara

Correct Answer: Vijayanagara
Malik Kafur (general of Alauddin Khalji) led successful campaigns against Devagiri (1307, 1313), Warangal (1309), and Madurai (1311). However, neither Alauddin Khalji nor Malik Kafur ever led a campaign against Vijayanagara — the Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336, after Alauddin Khalji's death (1316).
Option 1 (Devagiri): Incorrect. Malik Kafur defeated Devagiri.
Option 2 (Warangal): Incorrect. Malik Kafur defeated Warangal in 1309.
Option 4 (Madurai): Incorrect. Malik Kafur raided Madurai in 1311.
South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q12. Who is known as Sungam Tavirtta Cholan?

  1. (a) Kulottunga I
  2. (b) Rajendra III
  3. (c) Rajaraja I
  4. (d) Kulottunga III
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kulottunga I

Correct Answer: Kulottunga I
Kulottunga I (reign 1070–1120 CE) was a great Chola king who is famous for abolishing transit duties/tolls ( Sungam ). ' Sungam Tavirtta Cholan' means 'the Chola who abolished tolls/taxes' in Tamil. This earned him great popularity and is commemorated in the text Kulottunga Cholan Ula.
Option 2 (Rajendra III): Incorrect. He was a later and weaker Chola ruler.
Option 3 (Rajaraja I): Incorrect. He is known for building the Brihadeeswarar Temple.
Option 4 (Kulottunga III): Incorrect. He was a later Chola king.

Polity (4)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q13. Which Article empowers Parliament to alter state boundaries and form new states?

  1. (a) Article 1
  2. (b) Article 2
  3. (c) Article 4
  4. (d) Article 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 3

Correct Answer: Article 3
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to: form a new state by separation of territory, unite two or more states, increase or diminish the area of any state, and alter the name or boundaries of any state. This can be done by a simple majority in Parliament.
Option 1 (Article 1): Incorrect. Article 1 defines India as a Union of States.
Option 2 (Article 2): Incorrect. Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new states into the Union.
Option 3 (Article 4): Incorrect. Article 4 deals with laws under Articles 2 and 3.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q14. What does the principle of victim-centric justice emphasize?

  1. (a) Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation
  2. (b) Prioritizing the media coverage of the case
  3. (c) Punishing the accused without trial
  4. (d) Allowing victims to determine the punishment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation

Correct Answer: Emphasizing the rights of the victim, including speedy justice and rehabilitation
Victim-centric justice is a modern approach to criminal justice that places the victim at the center of the justice process. It emphasizes: speedy delivery of justice, compensation and rehabilitation for victims, victim's right to be heard, and dignity and respect for victims throughout the legal process. India's new criminal laws (BNSS, BNS) incorporate victim-centric principles.
Option 2: Incorrect. Media coverage is not a component of victim justice.
Option 3: Incorrect. Punishing without trial violates due process.
Option 4: Incorrect. Victims inform proceedings but do not solely determine punishment.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q15. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces significant changes regarding the use of technology in criminal justice.
Which of these is a key technological integration mandated by Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)?

  1. (a) Mandatory use of Artificial Intelligence for investigations.
  2. (b) Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.
  3. (c) Robot-assisted policing.
  4. (d) Automated judgment delivery system.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.

Correct Answer: Videography of search and seizure operations and crime scenes.
The BNSS, 2023, mandates videography of search and seizure operations, crime scenes, and certain key processes in criminal investigations. This provision increases transparency, reduces fabrication of evidence, and ensures accountability in the criminal justice process.
Option 1 (AI for investigations): Incorrect. AI use is not mandated under BNSS.
Option 3 (Robot-assisted policing): Incorrect. Not a provision of BNSS.
Option 4 (Automated judgment): Incorrect. Judgments are still delivered by judges.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can bar the jurisdiction of courts over inter-state water disputes.
2. Article 262 empowers the Inter-State Council to adjudicate water disputes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Only 1
Statement 1: CORRECT. Article 262 of the Indian Constitution allows Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes and, importantly, Parliament can by law exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in such disputes. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956, was enacted under this provision.
Statement 2: INCORRECT. Article 262 does NOT empower the Inter-State Council to adjudicate water disputes. It empowers Parliament to establish a tribunal for such disputes. The Inter-State Council (under Article 263) is a different body for coordinating policy between states, not for adjudicating water disputes.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

Static GK (11)

Sports · Trophies and cups

Q17. The "Moin- ud -Dowla Gold Cup" is associated with which sport in India?

  1. (a) Cricket
  2. (b) Hockey
  3. (c) Football
  4. (d) Polo
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cricket

Correct Answer: Cricket
The Moin- ud - Dowla Gold Cup is a prestigious cricket tournament held in Hyderabad, India. It is one of the oldest cricket tournaments in India, named after Nawab Moin- ud -Dowla. It features both Indian and international teams.
Option 2 (Hockey): Incorrect.
Option 3 (Football): Incorrect.
Option 4 (Polo): Incorrect.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q18. How often are the National Games of India held?

  1. (a) Annually
  2. (b) Every 2 years
  3. (c) Every 3 years
  4. (d) Every 4 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Every 2 years

Correct Answer: Every 2 years
The National Games of India are held every two years. They are organised by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and feature athletes competing across multiple sports at the national level. Recent editions were held in Gujarat (2022) and Uttarakhand (2025).
Option 1 (Annually): Incorrect.
Option 3 (Every 3 years): Incorrect.
Option 4 (Every 4 years): Incorrect.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q19. In which Indian state is Onam celebrated?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala

Correct Answer: Kerala
Onam is the state harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated in the Malayalam month of Chingam (August–September). It commemorates the mythical return of King Mahabali and is marked by grand feasts (Onam Sadya), snake boat races ( Vallam Kali), and floral arrangements ( Pookalam ).
Option 1 (Karnataka): Incorrect. Karnataka celebrates Ugadi and Dasara.
Option 2 (Andhra Pradesh): Incorrect. AP celebrates Sankranti.
Option 4 (Maharashtra): Incorrect. Maharashtra celebrates Gudi Padwa.
Indian Railways · History of Indian Railways

Q20. The main purpose of the introduction of the railway network in India by the British was to:

  1. (a) Facilitate the movement of Indian pilgrims across the country.
  2. (b) Promote tourism and cultural exchange among different regions of India.
  3. (c) Enhance the efficient transportation of raw materials and finished goods for British economic interests and to facilitate troop movement.
  4. (d) Connect remote rural areas to urban centers for the benefit of local trade.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Enhance the efficient transportation of raw materials and finished goods for British economic interests and to facilitate troop movement.

Correct Answer: Enhance the efficient transportation of raw materials and finished goods for British economic interests and to facilitate troop movement.
The British introduced railways in India (1853) primarily for colonial economic exploitation — to transport raw materials (cotton, jute, coal) from the hinterland to ports for export, and to bring British manufactured goods into Indian markets. Railways also helped the British rapidly deploy troops to quell uprisings (e.g., 1857 rebellion).
Option 1 (Pilgrim movement): Incorrect. Pilgrims were not the British priority.
Option 2 (Tourism and culture): Incorrect. Not a British colonial objective.
Option 4 (Rural-urban trade): Incorrect. Local trade benefited incidentally, not as a primary goal.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q21. Which genre of music is commonly associated with Kathak?

  1. (a) Carnatic music
  2. (b) Hindustani music
  3. (c) Folk music
  4. (d) Western classical music
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hindustani music

Correct Answer: Hindustani music
Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that developed in North India and is strongly associated with Hindustani classical music. The dance is performed to the accompaniment of tabla , sarangi, harmonium, and vocal renditions of thumri, dadra , and ghazals — all of which are Hindustani music forms.
Option 1 (Carnatic music): Incorrect. Carnatic music accompanies South Indian classical dances like Bharatanatyam.
Option 3 (Folk music): Incorrect. Kathak is classical, not folk.
Option 4 (Western classical): Incorrect. Not associated with Kathak.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q22. Which dance from Assam involves a group of dancers performing in circles or rows, often accompanied by drums and pipes, to celebrate the Bihu festival?

  1. (a) Bagurumba
  2. (b) Bihu
  3. (c) Dhol Cholom
  4. (d) Hojagiri
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bihu

Correct Answer: Bihu
The Bihu dance ( Husori ) is the folk dance of Assam performed during the Bihu festival (especially Rongali Bihu in April). Groups of young men and women dance in circles or rows to the energetic beats of dhol (drum) and pepa (buffalo horn pipe). It is one of India's most vibrant folk dance forms.
Option 1 ( Bagurumba ): Incorrect. Bagurumba is the folk dance of the Bodo tribe of Assam.
Option 3 ( Dhol Cholom): Incorrect. Dhol Cholom is a drum-based performance from Manipur.
Option 4 ( Hojagiri ): Incorrect. Hojagiri is the dance of the Reang tribe of Tripura.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q23. What is the primary focus of the Sohrai festival celebrated in Jharkhand?

  1. (a) Worshiping rivers
  2. (b) Worshiping cattle
  3. (c) Tributing forest deities
  4. (d) Honoring tribal warriors
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Worshiping cattle

Correct Answer: Worshiping cattle
Sohrai is a harvest festival celebrated by tribal communities (Santali, Ho, Munda, Oraon) in Jharkhand and surrounding regions. Its primary focus is the worship of cattle and domestic animals, who are seen as essential partners in farming and livelihood. The festival includes bathing and decorating cattle, ritual prayers, and folk songs.
Option 1 (Rivers): Incorrect. River worship is associated with other festivals.
Option 3 (Forest deities): Incorrect. While nature is venerated, cattle worship is the specific focus.
Option 4 (Tribal warriors): Incorrect. Not the theme of Sohrai .
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q24. Which devotional song form in simple Kannada, promoted by the Haridasa Movement in Karnataka, is a cornerstone of its Carnatic music tradition?

  1. (a) Devara Nama
  2. (b) Vachana
  3. (c) Janapada Geete
  4. (d) Bhajan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Devara Nama

Correct Answer: Devara Nama
Devara Nama (literally 'name of God') is a devotional song form in simple Kannada, popularised by the Haridasa Movement (saint-poets like Purandaradasa , Kanakadasa ). Purandaradasa composed thousands of Devara Namas and is revered as the 'Pitamaha of Carnatic Music'. These compositions form the foundational repertoire of Carnatic classical music.
Option 2 (Vachana): Incorrect. Vachanas are prose-poetry by Lingayat saint-poets (like Basavanna ), not set to classical music.
Option 3 ( Janapada Geete ): Incorrect. These are Karnataka folk songs.
Option 4 (Bhajan): Incorrect. Bhajans are a broader North Indian devotional tradition.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q25. In which city is the headquarters of the Squash Rackets Federation of India (SRFI) situated?

  1. (a) Chennai
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Kolkata
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chennai

Correct Answer: Chennai
The Squash Rackets Federation of India (SRFI) is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Chennai has been the hub of squash in India, producing world-class players like Saurav Ghosal and Dipika Pallikal.
Option 2 (New Delhi): Incorrect.
Option 3 (Mumbai): Incorrect.
Option 4 (Kolkata): Incorrect.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q26. The TV-D1 test flight validated which system for the Gaganyaan mission?

  1. (a) RCS
  2. (b) LRA
  3. (c) CES
  4. (d) APXS
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) CES

Correct Answer: CES
The TV-D1 (Test Vehicle-D1) mission, launched by ISRO in October 2023, was a critical abort mission test for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight programme. It validated the Crew Escape System (CES) — the emergency escape mechanism that can pull the crew module away from the rocket in case of failure during launch. The test was successful.
Option 1 (RCS): Incorrect. RCS is the Reaction Control System for maneuvering in space.
Option 2 (LRA): Incorrect. Not the system validated by TV-D1.
Option 4 (APXS): Incorrect. APXS is a scientific instrument on planetary rovers.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q27. What is the primary function of the Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer (SWIS), included in the ASPEX payload on Aditya-L1?

  1. (a) Records UV imagery of solar flare activity
  2. (b) Monitors tremors and vibrations on the solar surface
  3. (c) Observes changes in the Earth's geomagnetic field
  4. (d) Detects directional flow of solar wind protons and helium nuclei
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Detects directional flow of solar wind protons and helium nuclei

Correct Answer: Detects directional flow of solar wind protons and helium nuclei
The ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle EXperiment ) payload on Aditya-L1 includes the Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer (SWIS). Its primary function is to study the solar wind — specifically, detecting and measuring the directional flow, energy, and composition of solar wind protons and alpha particles (helium nuclei) in the interplanetary medium near L1.
Option 1: Incorrect. UV imagery is done by SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) on Aditya-L1.
Option 2: Incorrect. Solar surface tremors are studied by helioseismology instruments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Earth's geomagnetic field is monitored by ground-based and other satellites.

Modern History (4)

Towards Independence and Partition · Mountbatten Plan and Partition

Q28. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 marked the end of British rule but also led to the partition of India.
Critically evaluate the arguments for and against the partition, considering the political, social, and economic consequences that followed.

  1. (a) The partition was a universally welcomed decision that led to immediate peace and prosperity in both India and Pakistan.
  2. (b) While advocated by the Muslim League as the only way to secure Muslim interests, the partition resulted in widespread violence, displacement, and long-lasting socio-political tensions, with arguments against it focusing on the potential for a united India with adequate minority safeguards.
  3. (c) The British government unilaterally imposed the partition without any significant consultation with Indian leaders or consideration of its consequences.
  4. (d) The partition was solely driven by economic factors, with both sides seeking control over specific resources and territories.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) While advocated by the Muslim League as the only way to secure Muslim interests, the partition resulted in widespread violence, displacement, and long-lasting socio-political tensions, with arguments against it focusing on the potential for a united India with adequate minority safeguards.

Correct Answer: While advocated by the Muslim League as the only way to secure Muslim interests, the partition resulted in widespread violence, displacement, and long-lasting socio-political tensions, with arguments against it focusing on the potential for a united India with adequate minority safeguards.
The partition of India (1947) was advocated by the Muslim League under Jinnah as the only guarantee of Muslim political rights. However, it caused one of history's largest mass migrations (~14–17 million displaced), communal violence killing hundreds of thousands, and created long-lasting India-Pakistan tensions. Gandhi and Congress opposed partition, arguing for a united India with strong minority protections.
Option 1: Incorrect. The partition was NOT universally welcomed — it caused immense suffering.
Option 3: Incorrect. Consultation did occur (Mountbatten Plan), though it was rushed.
Option 4: Incorrect. The primary drivers were political and communal, not purely economic.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q29. Which of the following freedom fighters is also known as 'Mother Teresa of Western Odisha'?

  1. (a) Parbati Giri
  2. (b) Rama Devi
  3. (c) Sarala Devi
  4. (d) Annapurna Maharana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Parbati Giri

Correct Answer: Parbati Giri
Parbati Giri (1912–1968) was a freedom fighter and social worker from Western Odisha. She is called the 'Mother Teresa of Western Odisha' for her selfless service to the poor and tribal communities in the Sambalpur region. She worked for women's education, abolition of untouchability, and social upliftment.
Option 2 (Rama Devi): Incorrect. She was a prominent Odia freedom fighter known as 'Odisha Gandhi'.
Option 3 (Sarala Devi): Incorrect. Not specifically associated with this title.
Option 4 (Annapurna Maharana): Incorrect.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Organisations and their founders

Q30. On 6th July 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to which leader known for founding the Bharatiya Jana Sangh and sacrificing his life for India's unity and integrity?

  1. (a) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya
  2. (b) Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
  3. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee

Correct Answer: Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee (1901–1953) was the founder of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (1951), the precursor to today's BJP. He is known for his sacrifice for India's unity and integrity — he died in detention in Kashmir in 1953 while protesting the special permit system required for Indians to enter Jammu & Kashmir. PM Modi paid tribute to him on his death anniversary (June 23) — though if July 6 is mentioned in the question, it may relate to a specific tribute event.
Option 1 (Deendayal Upadhyaya): Incorrect. He was a key Jana Sangh ideologue but not its founder.
Option 3 (Bal Gangadhar Tilak): Incorrect. He was a freedom fighter from the earlier era.
Option 4 (Lala Lajpat Rai): Incorrect. He was a leader of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q31. Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): U Kiang Nangbah was hanged for revolting against British rule in the Jaintia Hills.
Reason (R): He led a successful revolt against British opium trade in the Khasi Hills.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: A is true, but R is false.
Assertion (A) is TRUE: U Kiang Nangbah was a martyr from Meghalaya who led a revolt against British rule in the Jaintia Hills. He was hanged by the British on January 30, 1862.
Reason (R) is FALSE: His revolt was not against British opium trade in the Khasi Hills. His revolt was against the imposition of British rule, taxes, and forced labour in the Jaintia Hills region. It was primarily a resistance against colonial subjugation, not specifically about opium trade.
Therefore, A is true but R is false.

Current Affairs (3)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q32. Who was appointed as the Defence Secretary of India in November 2024?

  1. (a) Ajay Kumar
  2. (b) Anil Baijal
  3. (c) Rajesh Kumar Singh
  4. (d) Giridhar Aramane
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajesh Kumar Singh

Correct Answer: Rajesh Kumar Singh
Rajesh Kumar Singh was appointed as the Defence Secretary of India in November 2024, succeeding Giridhar Aramane. He is a 1989-batch IAS officer of the Andhra Pradesh cadre.
Option 1 (Ajay Kumar): Incorrect. He was a former Defence Secretary (earlier tenure).
Option 2 (Anil Baijal): Incorrect. He is a former Lt. Governor of Delhi.
Option 4 (Giridhar Aramane ): Incorrect. He was the outgoing Defence Secretary whom Rajesh Kumar Singh replaced.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q33. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025 evaluates countries based on their performance in:

  1. (a) GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, Climate Policy
  2. (b) Carbon Sequestration, Water Conservation, Biodiversity, Pollution Control
  3. (c) Disaster Preparedness, Adaptation Strategies, Mitigation Funding, Policy Implementation
  4. (d) Green Buildings, Sustainable Transport, Waste Management, Circular Economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, Climate Policy

Correct Answer: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, Climate Policy
The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), published annually by Germanwatch , NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network, evaluates countries on four categories: GHG Emissions (40% weight), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%). India has consistently ranked well in CCPI.
Option 2: Incorrect. Water conservation and biodiversity are not CCPI categories.
Option 3: Incorrect. Disaster preparedness is not a CCPI criterion.
Option 4: Incorrect. Green buildings and waste management are not CCPI categories.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q34. The Women, Business and the Law Index 2025 is published by which international institution?

  1. (a) UNDP
  2. (b) UN Women
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) OECD
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) World Bank

Correct Answer: World Bank
The Women, Business and the Law (WBL) Index is published annually by the World Bank. It measures how laws affect women's economic opportunities across 190 economies, covering areas like mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets, and pension.
Option 1 (UNDP): Incorrect. UNDP publishes the Human Development Report (HDI).
Option 2 (UN Women): Incorrect. UN Women works on gender equality but does not publish WBL.
Option 4 (OECD): Incorrect. OECD publishes various economic indices but not WBL.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q35. Identify the correctly matched pairs.
1. Kalibangan – Fire altars
2. Megasthenes – Arthashastra
3. Chalcolithic culture – Use of both copper and stone

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 (Kalibangan – Fire altars): CORRECT. Kalibangan (Rajasthan) is an important Harappan site where fire altars have been discovered, suggesting ritual fire worship.
Pair 2 ( Megasthenes – Arthashastra ): INCORRECT. Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador who wrote Indica. The Arthashastra was written by Kautilya (Chanakya), not Megasthenes .
Pair 3 (Chalcolithic – Copper and stone): CORRECT. Chalcolithic (Copper Age) culture used both copper and stone tools, transitioning from the Stone Age.
Therefore, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Geography (7)

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q36. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the CORRECT option.
Assertion (A) - Modern technological development plays a very important role in determining the location of urban settlements.
Reason (R) - The location of the earliest urban settlement was dependent upon water, building material and fertile land.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Modern technology (transport networks, internet, energy) greatly influences where urban settlements grow today (e.g., tech hubs, industrial corridors).
Reason (R) is also TRUE: The earliest civilisations (Indus Valley, Mesopotamia, Nile) did locate near water, fertile land, and material resources — this is historically accurate.
However, R does NOT explain A: R talks about ancient settlements, while A talks about modern technology. The two statements are historically distinct and R does not logically explain why modern technology determines urban location. Hence, Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Atmosphere and Climate · Humidity, clouds and precipitation

Q37. In which of the following regions is convectional rainfall generally more intense due to higher availability of moisture?

  1. (a) Over deserts
  2. (b) On inland plateaus
  3. (c) Over oceans
  4. (d) Over leeward slopes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Over oceans

Correct Answer: Over oceans
Convectional rainfall occurs when the earth's surface is heated, causing air to rise, cool, and condense to form rain. Over oceans, there is abundant moisture available due to evaporation, making convectional rainfall more intense and frequent (e.g., tropical cyclones, afternoon thunderstorms over the ocean).
Option 1 (Deserts): Incorrect. Deserts have very low moisture — minimal convectional rain.
Option 2 (Inland plateaus): Incorrect. Less moisture than coastal/oceanic regions.
Option 4 (Leeward slopes): Incorrect. Leeward slopes are in rain shadow areas, with dry air.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q38. Read the statements given below carefully:
Statement 1: The Northern Plain is sparsely populated due to its frequent flooding and infertile soil.
Statement 2: The plain lies adjacent to the Himalayas and is made up of rocky and arid terrain.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Correct Answer: Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Statement 1 is FALSE: The Northern Plains (Indo-Gangetic Plains) are among the most DENSELY populated regions in India. The soil is extremely fertile (alluvial), ideal for agriculture. Flooding occurs but it is manageable and actually deposits fertile silt.
Statement 2 is FALSE: The Northern Plains are NOT rocky or arid. They are flat, made of deep alluvial deposits brought by Himalayan rivers. Rocky and arid terrain is found in the Thar Desert or Deccan Plateau.
Both statements are incorrect.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q39. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Improvements in nutrition and public health reduce mortality rates.
Reason (R): Lower mortality leads to an immediate fall in birth rates.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Correct Answer: A is true, but R is false
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Improvements in nutrition, sanitation, and healthcare (vaccines, medicines) reduce mortality rates — this is well-established in demographic transition theory.
Reason (R) is FALSE: Lower mortality does NOT lead to an IMMEDIATE fall in birth rates. In fact, historically, birth rates take much longer to decline after mortality falls (this lag creates population explosion). Birth rates fall only gradually as education, women's empowerment, and family planning improve. R is factually incorrect.
Therefore, A is true but R is false.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q40. Which of the following regions in India is best known as the "Ruhr of India" due to its rich mineral resources, particularly coal, and industrial development?

  1. (a) Chota Nagpur Plateau
  2. (b) Malwa Plateau
  3. (c) Deccan Plateau
  4. (d) Thar Desert
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chota Nagpur Plateau

Correct Answer: Chota Nagpur Plateau
The Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand) is called the 'Ruhr of India' because of its vast mineral wealth — coal (Jharia, Bokaro), iron ore, manganese, bauxite, mica — and heavy industrial development. Jamshedpur (Tata Steel), Bokaro Steel Plant, and SAIL plants are located here, just as Germany's Ruhr region is famous for its coal and steel industry.
Option 2 (Malwa Plateau): Incorrect. Known for agriculture, not heavy industry.
Option 3 (Deccan Plateau): Incorrect. Large area with mixed activities, not specifically 'Ruhr of India'.
Option 4 (Thar Desert): Incorrect. Arid desert with limited industrial activity.
Hydrosphere - Oceans and Water · Coral reefs

Q41. Which organization provides coral bleaching alert services for Indian coral regions based on sea surface temperature data?

  1. (a) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI)
  2. (b) Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
  3. (c) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
  4. (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)

Correct Answer: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
INCOIS (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, provides coral bleaching alert services for Indian coral reefs using sea surface temperature data. It monitors thermal stress on coral reefs and issues warnings to help manage and protect coral ecosystems.
Option 1 (CMFRI): Incorrect. CMFRI focuses on marine fisheries research.
Option 2 (ZSI): Incorrect. ZSI surveys animal life; doesn't provide bleaching alerts.
Option 4 (Ministry): Incorrect. Policy ministry; actual monitoring is done by INCOIS.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q42. Which of the following criteria is a primary requirement for a beach or marina to receive the international Blue Flag certification?

  1. (a) Presence of luxury resorts and high-end tourism facilities.
  2. (b) Exclusive access for private members or residents.
  3. (c) High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.
  4. (d) Location within a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.

Correct Answer: High standards of water quality, environmental management, safety, and services.
The Blue Flag certification is an international eco-label awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators. The four core criteria are: Environmental education and information, Water quality, Environmental management, and Safety and services. India has earned Blue Flag certification for several beaches ( Shivrajpur in Gujarat, Radhanagar in Andaman, etc.).
Option 1: Incorrect. Luxury resorts are not a Blue Flag criterion.
Option 2: Incorrect. Blue Flag beaches must be publicly accessible.
Option 4: Incorrect. UNESCO World Heritage status is a separate designation.

Chemistry (1)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Food chemistry (preservatives, sweeteners, additives)

Q43. Which key compound gives garlic its characteristic sharp taste and strong smell?

  1. (a) Allyl isothiocyanate
  2. (b) Allicin
  3. (c) Capsaicin
  4. (d) Thymol
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Allicin

Correct Answer: Allicin
Allicin (diallyl thiosulfinate ) is the primary organosulfur compound responsible for garlic's pungent smell and sharp taste. It is produced when garlic is crushed or chopped, triggering an enzymatic reaction. Allicin also has antibacterial and medicinal properties.
Option 1 (Allyl isothiocyanate): Incorrect. This compound gives mustard and horseradish their pungency.
Option 3 (Capsaicin): Incorrect. Capsaicin is responsible for the heat/spiciness of chilli peppers.
Option 4 (Thymol): Incorrect. Thymol is the active compound in thyme, used as an antiseptic.

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q44. Read the below statements about synaptic transmission:
1. Synaptic cleft is the gap between two neurons.
2. Neurotransmitters are released from presynaptic terminals.
3. Axon hillock receives impulses from the next neuron.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. The synaptic cleft is the microscopic gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron across which neurotransmitters diffuse.
Statement 2: CORRECT. Neurotransmitters (like acetylcholine, dopamine) are stored in vesicles at the presynaptic terminal and released into the synaptic cleft upon nerve impulse arrival.
Statement 3: INCORRECT. The axon hillock is where the axon originates from the cell body. It INITIATES the nerve impulse (action potential) based on signals received by dendrites. It does not RECEIVE impulses from the next neuron — dendrites do that.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Physics (1)

Modern Physics and Electronics · X-rays, LASER and photoelectric effect

Q45. Read the following statements about the de Broglie hypothesis and wave-particle duality:
1. As a particle's momentum increases, its associated de Broglie wavelength becomes shorter.
2. The de Broglie wavelength is significant for macroscopic objects moving at high speeds.
3. The wave-particle duality applies to photons but not to material particles.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 only

Correct Answer: 1 only
Statement 1: CORRECT. de Broglie wavelength λ = h/p (where h = Planck's constant, p = momentum). As momentum increases, wavelength decreases (inverse relationship). This is a fundamental principle.
Statement 2: INCORRECT. The de Broglie wavelength is negligibly small for macroscopic objects (because their mass is large, making λ = h/mv extremely tiny). It is significant only for subatomic particles like electrons, protons, etc.
Statement 3: INCORRECT. Wave-particle duality applies to ALL matter and radiation — photons, electrons, protons, and even macroscopic particles (though negligibly small). It is not limited to photons.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Mixed-subject questions

Q46. Match the government schemes with their correct objectives and choose the correct option:
[TABLE]
Government Schemes | Objectives
A. Dak Karmayogi | i . Infra monitoring
B. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) | ii. Capacity building for government personnel
C. Aadhaar-enabled Payment System ( AePS ) | iii. Aadhaar-based cashless banking
D. PRAGATI | iv. Financial inclusion through doorstep banking
[/TABLE]

  1. (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D- i
  2. (b) A-ii, B- i , C-iv, D-iii
  3. (c) A-iv, B-iii, C- i , D-ii
  4. (d) A- i , B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D- i

Correct Answer: A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D- i
A. Dak Karmayogi: ii. Capacity building for government personnel — it is a mission for building the capacity of civil servants through online training.
B. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB): iv. Financial inclusion through doorstep banking — IPPB uses India Post's network to bring banking services to people's doorsteps.
C. Aadhaar-enabled Payment System ( AePS ): iii. Aadhaar-based cashless banking — AePS enables banking transactions using Aadhaar authentication.
D. PRAGATI: i . Infra monitoring — PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation) is a platform used by the PM to monitor infrastructure projects and grievances.
Correct matching: A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D- i .
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