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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 9 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 9 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Medieval History, Polity, Static GK, Ancient History, Modern History.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 9 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (8) · Medieval History (3) · Polity (3) · Static GK (14) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (4) · Current Affairs (4) · Geography (6) · Biology (3) · Miscellaneous (1)

Economics (8)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q1. The World Happiness Report primarily relies on which type of data?

  1. (a) Objective economic indicators only
  2. (b) Subjective life evaluations and well-being measures
  3. (c) Environmental sustainability metrics
  4. (d) Military strength and geopolitical stability
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Subjective life evaluations and well-being measures

Correct Answer: Subjective life evaluations and well-being measures
The World Happiness Report, published annually by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, primarily uses data from the Gallup World Poll, which asks people to evaluate their own lives using the Cantril Ladder (self-reported life satisfaction). This makes it a subjective, perception-based report.
Option 1 (Objective economic indicators): Incorrect. While GDP per capita is one factor considered, the core data is subjective self-evaluation.
Option 3 (Environmental metrics): Incorrect. Not the basis of the report.
Option 4 (Military strength): Incorrect. Not related to the methodology of this report.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q2. Which of the following is a typical example of Revenue Expenditure?

  1. (a) Construction of a railway terminal
  2. (b) Purchase of land for a PSU facility
  3. (c) Interest paid on a government loan
  4. (d) Funding a national highway project
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Interest paid on a government loan

Correct Answer: Interest paid on a government loan
Revenue Expenditure is the expenditure that does not create assets or reduce liabilities. Interest paid on government loans is a recurring expense that does not create any new asset — it is a classic example of revenue expenditure.
Option 1 (Construction of railway terminal): Capital Expenditure — creates a long-term asset.
Option 2 (Purchase of land): Capital Expenditure — acquisition of an asset.
Option 4 (Funding highway project): Capital Expenditure — infrastructure creation.
Inflation · Types of inflation (demand-pull, cost-push, stagflation)

Q3. Which of the following statements shows an accurate understanding of a macroeconomic concept?

  1. (a) Gross Domestic Product includes earnings sent home by citizens working abroad.
  2. (b) When the general price level rises, the value of money tends to fall.
  3. (c) A country's budget is considered balanced when exports exceed imports.
  4. (d) The central bank controls inflation mainly through changes in income tax rates.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) When the general price level rises, the value of money tends to fall.

Correct Answer: When the general price level rises, the value of money tends to fall.
This is a fundamental macroeconomic principle: Inflation (rise in general price level) reduces the purchasing power of money. When prices rise, each unit of currency buys fewer goods and services — so the value/purchasing power of money falls. This is the inverse relationship between price level and value of money.
Option 1: Incorrect. GDP does NOT include earnings sent home by overseas workers (those are remittances and part of GNP). GDP measures output produced within the country's borders.
Option 3: Incorrect. A balanced budget means government revenue = government expenditure, not exports vs imports (that's trade balance).
Option 4: Incorrect. Central banks control inflation primarily through monetary policy tools (interest rates, CRR, repo rate) — NOT income tax rates (that's fiscal policy by the government).
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q4. Trade policy prior to 1991 was characterized by:

  1. (a) Free trade
  2. (b) Import liberalization
  3. (c) High tariffs and quotas
  4. (d) Foreign direct investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High tariffs and quotas

Correct Answer: High tariffs and quotas
Before the 1991 economic reforms, India followed an inward-looking, protectionist trade policy. The key features were: high import tariffs, strict import quotas, licensing requirements (License Raj), and heavy restrictions on foreign investment. This was to protect domestic industries under the ISI (Import Substitution Industrialization) strategy.
Option 1 (Free trade): Incorrect. India was far from free trade before 1991.
Option 2 (Import liberalization): Incorrect. This happened AFTER 1991.
Option 4 (Foreign direct investment): Incorrect. FDI was heavily restricted before 1991.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q5. Which of the following statements about public sector industries is correct?

  1. (a) They are owned by private individuals.
  2. (b) They operate without government regulation.
  3. (c) They are owned and operated by government agencies.
  4. (d) They are only run in rural areas.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They are owned and operated by government agencies.

Correct Answer: They are owned and operated by government agencies.
Public sector industries (also called Public Sector Undertakings — PSUs) are enterprises that are owned, managed, and controlled by the government (central or state). Examples include ONGC, BHEL, SAIL, Coal India, etc. The government has a majority shareholding and administrative control.
Option 1: Incorrect. Private ownership defines private sector, not public sector.
Option 2: Incorrect. PSUs are actually MORE regulated, not less.
Option 4: Incorrect. PSUs operate in urban, semi-urban, and rural areas alike.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q6. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Third Five Year Plan failed to meet its targets.
Reason (R): The failure was mainly due to external shocks like war and drought.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true but R is false
  4. (d) A is false but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
India's Third Five Year Plan (1961–66) failed significantly to meet its targets. The reasons were the Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, followed by severe drought in 1965–66. These external shocks diverted resources to defence and disrupted agricultural production. R correctly explains the failure of the Third Plan (A).
This led to three 'Plan Holidays' (Annual Plans) from 1966–69 before the Fourth Five Year Plan began.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q7. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Fourth Five Year Plan aimed at growth with stability and self-reliance.
Reason (R): It was launched after the shocks of war and droughts during the previous plan period.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true but R is false
  4. (d) A is false but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
The Fourth Five Year Plan (1969–74) had twin objectives of 'growth with stability' and 'progressive achievement of self-reliance'. This was directly in response to the instability caused by the wars of 1962 and 1965 and the severe droughts of 1965–66 that severely impacted the Third Plan. The Fourth Plan was formulated to restore stability and reduce dependence on foreign aid. R correctly explains A.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q8. Which of the following was a key feature of financial sector reforms under NEP 1991?

  1. (a) Increased RBI control
  2. (b) Nationalization of banks
  3. (c) Establishment of private sector banks
  4. (d) Restriction of FDI in banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Establishment of private sector banks

Correct Answer: Establishment of private sector banks
Under the New Economic Policy (NEP) 1991 and the Narasimham Committee recommendations, the financial sector saw major liberalization. A key reform was allowing the establishment of private sector banks — HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Axis Bank (formerly UTI Bank) were all set up in the mid-1990s as a result. This broke the monopoly of nationalized public sector banks.
Option 1 (Increased RBI control): Incorrect. NEP 1991 actually reduced regulatory control and allowed more market freedom.
Option 2 (Nationalization of banks): Incorrect. Bank nationalization happened in 1969 and 1980 — the opposite of 1991 reforms.
Option 4 (Restriction of FDI in banks): Incorrect. FDI in banking was liberalized, not restricted, after 1991.

Medieval History (3)

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of North India (Kabir, Ramananda, Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai)

Q9. The Bhakti saint who propagated devotion to Rama in the Awadhi dialect was:

  1. (a) Kabir
  2. (b) Tulsidas
  3. (c) Surdas
  4. (d) Namdev
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tulsidas

Correct Answer: Tulsidas
Tulsidas (1532–1623) was the greatest Bhakti saint who propagated Ram bhakti through the Awadhi dialect. His magnum opus Ramcharitmanas is written entirely in Awadhi and is one of the most widely read texts in North India.
Option 1 (Kabir): Incorrect. Kabir wrote in Sadhukkadi / Khariboli dialect and emphasized a formless God (Nirguna bhakti).
Option 3 (Surdas): Incorrect. Surdas wrote in Braj Bhasha about Krishna's childhood (Saguna bhakti).
Option 4 (Namdev): Incorrect. Namdev was a Maharashtrian saint who wrote in Marathi and Hindi, focused on Vithoba worship.
Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Medieval literature and authors

Q10. Who among the following was the author of Virasolyam ?

  1. (a) Buddhamitra
  2. (b) Ottakuthar
  3. (c) Amirthasagarar
  4. (d) Sekkilar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Buddhamitra

Correct Answer: Buddhamitra
Virasolyam is an 11th-century Tamil grammatical text authored by Buddhamitra, a Buddhist scholar. It is modelled after Tolkappiyam and deals with Tamil grammar.
Option 2 ( Ottakuthar ): Incorrect. He was a Tamil poet in the court of later Chola kings.
Option 3 ( Amirthasagarar ): Incorrect. He is associated with other Tamil literary works.
Option 4 ( Sekkilar ): Incorrect. He is the author of Periya Puranam, a Tamil Shaivite text.
Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q11. In which year did Babur take control of Kabul?

  1. (a) 1500 CE
  2. (b) 1508 CE
  3. (c) 1504 CE
  4. (d) 1512 CE
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1504 CE

Correct Answer: 1504 CE
Babur captured Kabul in 1504 CE. After losing his ancestral territories of Fergana and Samarkand repeatedly, Babur turned towards the south and conquered Kabul in 1504. This became his base for subsequent campaigns into India, eventually leading to the First Battle of Panipat (1526).
Option 1 (1500 CE): Incorrect.
Option 2 (1508 CE): Incorrect.
Option 4 (1512 CE): Incorrect. By this time Babur had already been in Kabul for several years.

Polity (3)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q12. What is the primary purpose of Article 312 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) To regulate the appointment of Supreme Court judges
  2. (b) To create All India Judicial Services
  3. (c) To determine the qualification of Members of Parliament
  4. (d) To define the power of the Attorney General
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To create All India Judicial Services

Correct Answer: To create All India Judicial Services
Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to create new All India Services (including All India Judicial Services) by a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha with not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting. The IAS and IPS are already created under Article 312.
Option 1: Supreme Court judge appointment is covered under Article 124.
Option 3: Qualifications for MPs are covered under Articles 84 and 173.
Option 4: Powers of the Attorney General are defined under Articles 76 and 88.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q13. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces a specific timeframe for pronouncing judgment after the conclusion of arguments in a criminal trial. What is this timeframe?

  1. (a) Within 7 days
  2. (b) Within 15 days
  3. (c) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)
  4. (d) Within 60 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)

Correct Answer: Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days)
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), mandates that after the completion of arguments in a criminal trial, the judgment must be pronounced within 30 days. This period can be extended to 45 days in exceptional cases with written reasons. This provision aims to reduce delays in the criminal justice system.
Option 1 (7 days): Incorrect.
Option 2 (15 days): Incorrect.
Option 4 (60 days): Incorrect.
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q14. Who has the authority to appoint a Sessions Judge of one sessions division as an Additional Sessions Judge of another division?

  1. (a) District Magistrate
  2. (b) High Court
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) State Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) High Court

Correct Answer: High Court
Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) / Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), the High Court has the power to appoint a Sessions Judge of one sessions division to act as an Additional Sessions Judge of another division. The judiciary's internal transfers and appointments at the sessions level are controlled by the respective High Courts.
Option 1 (District Magistrate): Incorrect. DM is an executive officer with no such judicial appointment power.
Option 3 (Supreme Court): Incorrect. The SC oversees High Courts, not direct Sessions Judge appointments.
Option 4 (State Government): Incorrect. The State Government appoints Sessions Judges on the recommendation of the High Court, but transfer within divisions is the High Court's domain.

Static GK (14)

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q15. The Fit India Movement, promoting fitness and sports culture, was launched in which year?

  1. (a) 2017
  2. (b) 2018
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2019

Correct Answer: 2019
The Fit India Movement was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 29, 2019, on National Sports Day (birthday of Major Dhyan Chand). It is a nationwide movement to encourage people to include physical activities and sports in their daily lives.
Option 1 (2017): Incorrect.
Option 2 (2018): Incorrect.
Option 4 (2020): Incorrect. The movement was launched before the COVID-19 pandemic year.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q16. The inaugural season of the Hockey India League took place in 2013. Which city hosted the final match?

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Ranchi
  3. (c) Lucknow
  4. (d) Mohali
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ranchi

Correct Answer: Ranchi
The inaugural Hockey India League (HIL) season was held in 2013. The final of the first season was hosted in Ranchi. Ranchi Rhinos won the first title of the HIL.
Option 1 (Delhi): Incorrect. Delhi was one of the franchise cities but did not host the final.
Option 3 (Lucknow): Incorrect. Not a HIL venue in 2013.
Option 4 (Mohali): Incorrect. Not the final host city.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q17. In which city is the sculptural panel of "Descent of the Ganges" located?

  1. (a) Ellora
  2. (b) Mahabalipuram
  3. (c) Pattadakal
  4. (d) Badami
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahabalipuram

Correct Answer: Mahabalipuram
The "Descent of the Ganges" (also called Arjuna's Penance) is a giant bas-relief rock carving located at Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) in Tamil Nadu. It is one of the largest open-air rock relief carvings in the world, dating to the Pallava period (7th century CE).
Option 1 (Ellora): Incorrect. Ellora is known for rock-cut temples (Kailasa Temple), not this specific panel.
Option 3 (Pattadakal): Incorrect. Pattadakal has Chalukya temples but not this panel.
Option 4 (Badami): Incorrect. Badami has cave temples but not this panel.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q18. Which Nigerian author won the Women's Prize for Fiction in 2007 for "Half of a Yellow Sun"?

  1. (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
  2. (b) Buchi Emecheta
  3. (c) Lola Shoneyin
  4. (d) Sefi Atta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

Correct Answer: Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie, a celebrated Nigerian author, won the Women's Prize for Fiction (formerly Orange Prize) in 2007 for her novel Half of a Yellow Sun, which is set during the Nigerian Civil War (Biafra War, 1967–70).
Option 2 (Buchi Emecheta): Incorrect. She was a prominent Nigerian author but did not win this prize for this book.
Option 3 (Lola Shoneyin ): Incorrect. She is known for The Secret Lives of Baba Segi's Wives.
Option 4 (Sefi Atta): Incorrect. She is a Nigerian author but is not associated with this award.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q19. What is the duration of each half in a standard kabaddi match (men's)?

  1. (a) 15 mins
  2. (b) 20 mins
  3. (c) 30 mins
  4. (d) 25 mins
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20 mins

Correct Answer: 20 mins
In a standard men's kabaddi match (as per international rules), each half is of 20 minutes duration with a 5-minute half-time break. Total playing time = 40 minutes.
Option 1 (15 mins): Incorrect. This applies to women's/junior categories.
Option 3 (30 mins): Incorrect.
Option 4 (25 mins): Incorrect.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q20. " Raslila " is a traditional dance of which state?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh
Raslila (or Rasa Lila) is a traditional dance form associated with Uttar Pradesh, specifically from the Braj region (Mathura, Vrindavan). It depicts the divine love stories of Lord Krishna and the Gopis. It is listed as one of the important folk /classical dance forms of Uttar Pradesh.
Option 1 (Punjab): Incorrect. Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha .
Option 3 (Kerala): Incorrect. Kerala is known for Kathakali, Mohiniyattam , and Theyyam .
Option 4 (West Bengal): Incorrect. West Bengal is known for Chhau and Rabindra Nritya.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q21. What is the central theme of Mando music from Goa?

  1. (a) Religious devotion
  2. (b) War and heroism
  3. (c) Love and historical narratives
  4. (d) Nature and philosophy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Love and historical narratives

Correct Answer: Love and historical narratives
Mando is a classical genre of music unique to Goa, developed in the 18th–19th century during the Portuguese period. Its central themes revolve around love, longing, and historical narratives of Goan society, often reflecting the socio-cultural experiences of the Goan people under colonial rule.
Option 1 (Religious devotion): Incorrect. Mando is not devotional/spiritual music.
Option 2 (War and heroism): Incorrect. It is not a martial music form.
Option 4 (Nature and philosophy): Incorrect. While lyrical, the core theme is love and historical narrative.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q22. Ugadi falls in the first month of the Hindu calendar called:

  1. (a) Vaishakha
  2. (b) Magha
  3. (c) Chaitra
  4. (d) Kartika
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chaitra

Correct Answer: Chaitra
Ugadi (also spelled Yugadi ) marks the New Year for people of the Deccan region (Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka). It falls on the first day of Chaitra (the first month of the Hindu lunar calendar), typically in March–April.
Option 1 (Vaishakha): Incorrect. Vaishakha is the second month — associated with Baisakhi.
Option 2 (Magha): Incorrect. Magha is the 11th month of the Hindu calendar.
Option 4 (Kartika): Incorrect. Kartika is the 8th month, associated with Diwali and Chhath Puja.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q23. Which of the following is true about the Yaoshang Festival in Manipur?

  1. (a) Thabal Chongba is a moonlight circle dance
  2. (b) Pala Eshei sung by unmarried youths
  3. (c) Includes academic quiz competitions
  4. (d) Marks the start of harvest season
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thabal Chongba is a moonlight circle dance

Correct Answer: Thabal Chongba is a moonlight circle dance
Yaoshang is Manipur's biggest festival, celebrated for 5 days during the full moon of Lamta (February–March), coinciding with Holi. Thabal Chongba is the famous moonlight circle dance performed by youths during this festival — this is a defining and authentic feature of Yaoshang .
Option 2 (Pala Eshei by unmarried youths): Incorrect. This description is not accurate for Yaoshang .
Option 3 (Academic quiz competitions): Incorrect. Not a feature of this cultural festival.
Option 4 (Harvest season start): Incorrect. Yaoshang is a spring/Holi-time festival, not a harvest festival.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q24. Which of the following pairs of musical forms/artists and their characteristics is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Rampur Saheswan Gharana – Fast note patterns, technically demanding
  2. (b) Thumri (Banaras Style) – Known for lyrical khayals followed by Tarana
  3. (c) Tappa – Prominent exponent of lyrical love songs (Thumri)
  4. (d) Rasoolan Devi – Slow, expressive, emphasizes mood over strict grammar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rasoolan Devi – Slow, expressive, emphasizes mood over strict grammar

Correct Answer: Rasoolan Devi – Slow, expressive, emphasizes mood over strict grammar
Rasoolan Devi (1902–1974) was a celebrated thumri and dadra singer from Banaras. Her style was indeed slow, deeply expressive, and she emphasized emotional mood ( bhav ) over strict grammatical adherence. This is a characteristic feature of the Banaras thumri tradition.
Option 1 (Rampur Saheswan Gharana): Incorrect. This gharana is known for its strong, forceful style and elaborate taans — not specifically 'fast note patterns'.
Option 2 (Thumri Banaras – lyrical khayals + Tarana ): Incorrect. Banaras thumri is known for its emotional depth; Tarana association is incorrect.
Option 3 (Tappa – lyrical love songs): Incorrect. Tappa is a semi-classical form with rapid, intricate note patterns ( taans ). Thumri singers are associated with lyrical love songs, not tappa.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q25. Analyze the following statements about Handball rules and court specifications:
Assertion (A): The free-throw line in handball is drawn 3 meters outside the goal area line, and it is represented by a broken line.
Reason (R): The segments of the free-throw line are 15 cm long, with spaces of 15 cm between them.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
In handball, the free-throw line (also called the 9-meter line) is drawn 3 meters outside the goal area line (6-meter line). It is represented as a broken/dashed line. The segments are 15 cm long with 15 cm gaps between them. The reason (R) directly explains why the line appears 'broken' — because of the 15 cm segments with 15 cm spaces. Thus, both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q26. Who is the author of 'The Glass Palace'?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Vikram Seth
  3. (c) Salman Rushdie
  4. (d) Raj Kamal Jha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

Correct Answer: Amitav Ghosh
The Glass Palace (2000) is a novel by Amitav Ghosh, the acclaimed Indian author. The novel spans over a century and explores the British colonization of Burma (Myanmar), covering themes of imperialism, family, and identity across multiple generations.
Option 2 (Vikram Seth): Incorrect. Known for A Suitable Boy and The Golden Gate.
Option 3 (Salman Rushdie): Incorrect. Known for Midnight's Children, The Satanic Verses.
Option 4 (Raj Kamal Jha): Incorrect. Known for The Blue Bedspread.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q27. Who led the four-member Indian judo team at the Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou?

  1. (a) Avtar Singh
  2. (b) Indubala Devi Maibam
  3. (c) Tulika Maan
  4. (d) Garima Choudhary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tulika Maan

Correct Answer: Tulika Maan
Tulika Maan, India's top-ranked judoka, led the Indian judo contingent at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China. She is a prominent Indian judoka who has represented India in several international competitions.
Option 1 (Avtar Singh): Incorrect. He is an Indian judoka but did not lead the team.
Option 2 (Indubala Devi Maibam): Incorrect.
Option 4 (Garima Choudhary): Incorrect.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q28. At which Lagrange point does the Aditya-L1 spacecraft orbit?

  1. (a) L1
  2. (b) L2
  3. (c) GEO
  4. (d) SSO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) L1

Correct Answer: L1
Aditya-L1 is India's first solar observatory mission launched by ISRO on September 2, 2023. It orbits around the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1), which is approximately 1.5 million km from Earth. This point offers a continuous, unobstructed view of the Sun, making it ideal for solar observation. It was inserted into a halo orbit around L1 in January 2024.
Option 2 (L2): Incorrect. L2 is where missions like JWST and Chandrayaan-2 orbiter are located.
Option 3 (GEO): Incorrect. Geostationary Earth Orbit is for communication/weather satellites.
Option 4 (SSO): Incorrect. Sun-Synchronous Orbit is used for Earth observation satellites.

Ancient History (2)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan art and architecture

Q29. What is the classical feature of Ashokan pillars?

  1. (a) They had capitals topped with lion sculptures.
  2. (b) They were only found in South India.
  3. (c) They were made of bronze and silver.
  4. (d) They served as fire altars.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They had capitals topped with lion sculptures.

Correct Answer: They had capitals topped with lion sculptures.
The Ashokan pillars are known for their polished sandstone shafts and animal capitals at the top, most famously the Lion Capital of Sarnath (now the National Emblem of India). Lions, bulls, and elephants were common motifs on these capitals.
Option 2: Incorrect. Ashokan pillars are found across the Indian subcontinent including Bihar, UP, Delhi, Haryana — not just South India.
Option 3: Incorrect. They were made of single pieces of polished sandstone, not bronze or silver.
Option 4: Incorrect. They were royal proclamation pillars, not fire altars.
Gupta Empire · Science and mathematics in the Gupta age

Q30. Which of the following works was authored by Varahamihira ?

  1. (a) Mrichchakatika
  2. (b) Sushruta Samhita
  3. (c) Brihat Samhita
  4. (d) Dashakumaracharita
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brihat Samhita

Correct Answer: Brihat Samhita
Varahamihira (6th century CE) was a celebrated Indian astronomer and mathematician in the court of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). His major works include Brihat Samhita (encyclopaedia on astronomy, astrology, and natural sciences), Pancha Siddhantika, and Brihat Jataka.
Option 1 ( Mrichchakatika ): Authored by Shudraka — a Sanskrit play.
Option 2 (Sushruta Samhita): Authored by Sushruta — an ancient text on surgery/medicine.
Option 4 ( Dashakumaracharita ): Authored by Dandin — a Sanskrit prose work.

Modern History (4)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q31. Which system, introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919, classified provincial subjects into "reserved" and "transferred" categories?

  1. (a) Dyarchy
  2. (b) Federation
  3. (c) Bicameralism
  4. (d) Responsible Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dyarchy

Correct Answer: Dyarchy
The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced Dyarchy (dual government) in the provinces. Under this system, provincial subjects were divided into 'reserved' (controlled by the Governor with his executive council — e.g., law, finance, police) and 'transferred' (administered by ministers responsible to the legislature — e.g., education, health, agriculture).
Option 2 (Federation): Incorrect. Federation was introduced later by the Government of India Act, 1935.
Option 3 (Bicameralism): Incorrect. This refers to a two-chamber legislature, not the reserved/transferred distinction.
Option 4 (Responsible Government): Incorrect. Full responsible government came only after independence.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q32. Which of the following correctly describes the responsibilities of Madras and Bombay governors after 1773?

  1. (a) They operated independently of the Bengal Governor-General.
  2. (b) They had to report to the Governor-General on war, peace, and revenue.
  3. (c) They managed trade but not civil administration.
  4. (d) They were answerable only to the Court of Directors in London.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They had to report to the Governor-General on war, peace, and revenue.

Correct Answer: They had to report to the Governor-General on war, peace, and revenue.
The Regulating Act of 1773 established the Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings was the first) as the supreme authority over all British territories in India. The governors of Bombay and Madras were required to report to the Governor-General on matters of war, peace, and revenue — they were subordinated to Bengal.
Option 1: Incorrect. After 1773, they were no longer independent.
Option 3: Incorrect. They managed overall administration, not just trade.
Option 4: Incorrect. While the Court of Directors in London had ultimate authority over all, within India the Madras and Bombay governors reported to the Governor-General.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q33. U Tirot Sing was a tribal chief who led a fierce resistance against the British attempts to build roads through his territory in which region?

  1. (a) Mizoram Hills
  2. (b) Naga Hills
  3. (c) Khasi Hills
  4. (d) Lushai Hills
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills

Correct Answer: Khasi Hills
U Tirot Sing (1802–1835) was a Khasi tribal chief ( Syiem of Nongkhlaw ) who led a fierce armed resistance against the British from 1829–1833 in the Khasi Hills (present-day Meghalaya). The British wanted to build a road through Khasi territory. He was eventually captured and died in exile in Dhaka in 1835. He is a celebrated hero of Meghalaya.
Option 1 (Mizoram Hills): Incorrect. Mizo resistance is associated with different leaders.
Option 2 (Naga Hills): Incorrect. Naga resistance is associated with Naga tribes.
Option 4 (Lushai Hills): Incorrect. This region (now Mizoram) had its own tribal resistance history.
Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q34. Bhima Nayak, a prominent tribal leader during the 1857 rebellion, is known for which of the following contributions?

  1. (a) Leading tribal uprisings in the Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh and coordinating guerrilla tactics against the British.
  2. (b) Negotiating a peace treaty between British authorities and rebel leaders in Central India.
  3. (c) Serving as a close aide to Rani Lakshmibai and leading regular army battalions in open warfare.
  4. (d) Establishing a provisional government in Jhansi during the rebellion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Leading tribal uprisings in the Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh and coordinating guerrilla tactics against the British.

Correct Answer: Leading tribal uprisings in the Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh and coordinating guerrilla tactics against the British.
Bhima Nayak was a Bhil tribal leader from the Satpura region (Nimar, present-day Madhya Pradesh) who participated in the 1857 revolt. He organized and led tribal resistance using guerrilla warfare tactics against British forces in the Satpura ranges. He became a symbol of tribal resistance during the revolt.
Option 2: Incorrect. He was a resistance fighter, not a peace negotiator.
Option 3: Incorrect. He was based in Satpura /MP region, not directly under Rani Lakshmibai.
Option 4: Incorrect. No historical record of him establishing a provisional government in Jhansi.

Current Affairs (4)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q35. Who was conferred Brazil's highest civilian honour, "The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross," in 2025?

  1. (a) Nirmala Sitharaman
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Rajnath Singh
  4. (d) Mallikarjun Kharge
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: Narendra Modi
Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred Brazil's highest civilian honour — the Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross — during his visit to Brazil in 2025 (on the sidelines of the G20 Summit or a bilateral visit). This honour is Brazil's top state decoration given to heads of state.
Option 1 (Nirmala Sitharaman): Incorrect. She is the Finance Minister .
Option 3 (Rajnath Singh): Incorrect. He is the Defence Minister .
Option 4 (Mallikarjun Kharge): Incorrect. He is the President of the Indian National Congress.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q36. What is the primary purpose of ISRO's GSAT-20 (GSAT-N2) satellite?

  1. (a) It provides navigation services across the Indian subcontinent.
  2. (b) It monitors weather patterns over the Indian Ocean.
  3. (c) It delivers high-speed broadband services using Ka-band across India.
  4. (d) It is designed for Earth observation and remote sensing.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It delivers high-speed broadband services using Ka-band across India.

Correct Answer: It delivers high-speed broadband services using Ka-band across India.
GSAT-20 (also called GSAT-N2) is a high-throughput communication satellite built by ISRO and launched by SpaceX's Falcon 9 rocket in November 2024. Its primary purpose is to provide high-speed broadband internet connectivity using Ka-band frequencies across India, including remote and rural areas. It significantly boosts India's communication satellite capacity.
Option 1: Navigation services are provided by NavIC satellites.
Option 2: Weather monitoring is done by INSAT/GISAT series.
Option 4: Earth observation is done by Cartosat / ResourceSat series.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q37. Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Spark Torch Igniters are being increasingly incorporated into advanced rocket engine designs for next-generation launch vehicles.
Reason (R): They provide superior multi-restart capability and consistent, reliable ignition in extreme conditions, allowing for more complex mission profiles and enabling engine reusability.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Spark Torch Igniters are indeed increasingly used in advanced rocket engines (e.g., in cryogenic and reusable engines). The reason correctly identifies why: they offer reliable multi-restart capability, consistent ignition in extreme temperature/pressure conditions, and support engine reusability — all critical for next-generation launch vehicles. R directly and correctly explains A.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q38. What is a primary focus area of the Global Energy Transition Index?

  1. (a) Nuclear energy development
  2. (b) Fossil fuel production
  3. (c) Energy security, sustainability, and equity
  4. (d) Space exploration technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Energy security, sustainability, and equity

Correct Answer: Energy security, sustainability, and equity
The Energy Transition Index (ETI) is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It measures countries on their current energy system performance (energy security, sustainability, equity) and their readiness to transition to clean, affordable, and secure energy. The three pillars — energy security, sustainability, and equity — are the primary focus of the ETI.
Option 1 (Nuclear energy development): Not the primary focus — ETI is about overall transition.
Option 2 (Fossil fuel production): Incorrect. ETI aims at moving AWAY from fossil fuels.
Option 4 (Space exploration): Incorrect. Completely unrelated.

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Thar Desert

Q39. Which of the following statements about the Indian Desert is correct?

  1. (a) The Indian Desert lies to the east of the Aravali Hills and receives moderate rainfall.
  2. (b) It is a rocky plateau covered with dense forests and seasonal rivers.
  3. (c) The Indian Desert is an undulating sandy plain with sand dunes and receives less than 150 mm of rainfall annually.
  4. (d) The region lies in the southern part of the Deccan Plateau and is rich in black soil.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Indian Desert is an undulating sandy plain with sand dunes and receives less than 150 mm of rainfall annually.

Correct Answer: The Indian Desert is an undulating sandy plain with sand dunes and receives less than 150 mm of rainfall annually.
The Thar Desert (Indian Desert) lies to the WEST of the Aravali Hills in Rajasthan. It is a sandy, undulating plain characterized by shifting sand dunes. Annual rainfall is very low — generally less than 150 mm — making it one of the most arid regions in India.
Option 1: Incorrect. The desert lies to the WEST (not east) of the Aravallis ; it does not receive moderate rainfall.
Option 2: Incorrect. It is not a rocky plateau with forests.
Option 4: Incorrect. The region described is the Deccan Trap, not the Thar Desert.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q40. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The eastern coastal plains of India are wider and flatter than the western coastal plains.
Reason (R): Large rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri have created extensive deltas along the eastern coast.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
The Eastern Coastal Plains (Coromandel Coast) are indeed wider and flatter than the Western Coastal Plains (Malabar Coast). The reason is directly linked: major rivers like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri flow eastward and have deposited large amounts of alluvial material, forming extensive deltas, which makes the eastern plains wider and flatter. R correctly explains A.
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q41. Which three states in the Northern Plains region have the highest population densities?

  1. (a) Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jharkhand
  3. (c) Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Assam, Haryana, Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh
Among states in the Northern Plains, Bihar, West Bengal, and Uttar Pradesh have the highest population densities. Bihar has one of the highest population densities in India (~1,106 persons/ sq km), followed by West Bengal (~1,028) and Uttar Pradesh (~829) as per the 2011 census.
Option 1 (Punjab, Haryana, UP): Incorrect. Punjab and Haryana do not rank as high as Bihar and West Bengal.
Option 2 (Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jharkhand): Incorrect. Uttarakhand has a lower density due to hilly terrain.
Option 4 (Assam, Haryana, Chhattisgarh): Incorrect. Chhattisgarh is not a Northern Plains state.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q42. Which of the following statements correctly defines population stabilization?

  1. (a) It refers to the stage where fertility becomes higher than mortality
  2. (b) It refers to zero birth rate
  3. (c) It occurs when the difference between birth rate and death rate is negligible
  4. (d) It indicates exponential growth of urban population
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It occurs when the difference between birth rate and death rate is negligible

Correct Answer: It occurs when the difference between birth rate and death rate is negligible
Population stabilization (Zero Population Growth) occurs when the birth rate and death rate are approximately equal, so the difference between them is negligible — resulting in no net growth in population. This is the condition for a stable population size.
Option 1: Incorrect. If fertility > mortality, population grows — that's not stabilization.
Option 2: Incorrect. Zero birth rate would mean no new births — an extreme scenario, not stabilization.
Option 4: Incorrect. Exponential urban growth is the opposite of stabilization.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q43. Which industrial region in India is historically renowned for its dominance in the cotton textile industry and is often referred to as the "Manchester of India"?

  1. (a) Chota Nagpur Industrial Region
  2. (b) Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region
  3. (c) Hugli Industrial Region
  4. (d) Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial Region
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial Region

Correct Answer: Ahmedabad-Vadodara Industrial Region
Ahmedabad in Gujarat is historically known as the 'Manchester of India' due to its dominance in the cotton textile industry. Ahmedabad had a large number of cotton mills and was the textile capital of India for many decades.
Option 1 (Chota Nagpur): Known for mining and heavy industries (iron, steel, coal).
Option 2 (Mumbai-Pune): Mumbai is known as the commercial capital; also has textiles but the 'Manchester' tag belongs to Ahmedabad.
Option 3 (Hugli): Known for jute industry — the 'Jute Capital' of India.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q44. Consider the following statements about the LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative:
1. It was launched by India during COP26.
2. It emphasizes government regulations over citizen participation.
3. It promotes sustainable habits such as reusing, reducing, and recycling.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 3 are correct
Statement 1: CORRECT. LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) was launched by PM Narendra Modi at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021) as a global initiative.
Statement 2: INCORRECT. LiFE specifically emphasizes individual/citizen-driven behavioral changes and mass movement — NOT government regulations. It is a people-centric, bottom-up approach.
Statement 3: CORRECT. LiFE promotes sustainable habits like mindful use of resources — reuse, reduce, and recycle — as part of an environmentally conscious lifestyle.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Biology (3)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q45. Which enzyme primarily is responsible for joining "Okazaki fragments" during the DNA replication process?

  1. (a) DNA polymerase
  2. (b) DNA ligase
  3. (c) Helicase
  4. (d) Primase
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) DNA ligase

Correct Answer: DNA ligase
Okazaki fragments are short segments of newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand during DNA replication. Once the RNA primers are removed and gaps are filled by DNA polymerase, DNA ligase joins (seals) these fragments together by forming phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous strand.
Option 1 (DNA polymerase): Incorrect. DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA but cannot join fragments.
Option 3 (Helicase): Incorrect. Helicase unwinds the double helix at the replication fork.
Option 4 (Primase): Incorrect. Primase synthesizes RNA primers to initiate DNA replication.
Heredity and Evolution · Origin of life

Q46. Arrange these evolutionary events chronologically:
A. First eukaryotes
B. First prokaryotes
C. Multicellularity
D. Oxygen accumulation

  1. (a) B → D → A → C
  2. (b) A → B → D → C
  3. (c) D → B → A → C
  4. (d) B → A → C → D
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) B → D → A → C

Correct Answer: B → D → A → C
Chronological order of evolutionary events:
B. First prokaryotes: ~3.8–3.5 billion years ago (earliest life forms)
D. Oxygen accumulation: ~2.4 billion years ago (Great Oxidation Event, caused by cyanobacteria)
A. First eukaryotes: ~2–1.8 billion years ago (after oxygen accumulation enabled complex cells)
C. Multicellularity: ~1 billion years ago (eukaryotic cells grouped into multicellular organisms)
Thus, the correct order is B → D → A → C.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q47. Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

  1. (a) Industrial growth
  2. (b) Child mortality reduction
  3. (c) Space exploration
  4. (d) Wildlife protection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Child mortality reduction

Correct Answer: Child mortality reduction
The National Health Mission (NHM), launched in 2013 (combining NRHM and NUHM), aims to strengthen healthcare systems, reduce maternal mortality, reduce child mortality (infant and under-5), control communicable and non-communicable diseases, and improve access to healthcare in rural and urban areas.
Option 1 (Industrial growth): Incorrect. NHM is purely a health sector mission.
Option 3 (Space exploration): Incorrect. Completely unrelated.
Option 4 (Wildlife protection): Incorrect. Wildlife is under the Ministry of Environment.

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Mixed-subject questions

Q48. Which of the following initiative–objective pairings is correctly matched as per Government of India schemes?

  1. (a) UDAN – Road Safety
  2. (b) PM PRANAM – Fertilizer diversification
  3. (c) NBS – Airline support
  4. (d) NSWS – Social welfare
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PM PRANAM – Fertilizer diversification

Correct Answer: PM PRANAM – Fertilizer diversification
PM PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) was launched to incentivize states to promote alternative fertilizers and reduce chemical fertilizer usage. Its objective is fertilizer diversification/reduction of chemical dependency.
Option 1 (UDAN – Road Safety): Incorrect. UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik ) is an affordable regional airline connectivity scheme.
Option 3 (NBS – Airline support): Incorrect. NBS (Nutrient Based Subsidy) is for fertilizer subsidies, not airlines.
Option 4 (NSWS – Social welfare): Incorrect. NSWS (National Single Window System) is for business approvals/clearances.
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