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SSC Stenographer 2025 6 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 6 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Physics, Medieval History, Polity, Economics, Static GK, Biology.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 6 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Physics (3) · Medieval History (2) · Polity (8) · Economics (11) · Static GK (10) · Biology (2) · Geography (4) · Current Affairs (3) · Ancient History (1)

Physics (3)

Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q1. Which property of sound determines its loudness?

  1. (a) Pitch
  2. (b) Wavelength
  3. (c) Frequency
  4. (d) Amplitude
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Amplitude

The correct answer is Amplitude . Loudness of sound depends on the amplitude of the sound wave. A sound wave with larger amplitude carries more energy and is perceived as louder, while a wave with smaller amplitude is softer. Pitch is determined by frequency, and wavelength is related to frequency and velocity, but loudness is directly controlled by amplitude.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q2. A conductor rod moving with a velocity v perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If the length of the rod perpendicular to both v and B is L, the induced EMF across its ends is given by?

  1. (a) BLv
  2. (b) BL²v
  3. (c) Bv /L
  4. (d) B/√L
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) BLv

The correct answer is BLv . According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction , the induced EMF (ε) in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is given by: ε = B × L × v Here, B = magnetic field strength L = length of the conductor v = velocity of the conductor (perpendicular to both L and B) The derivation comes from the formula: ε = dΦ /dt = B × A/time , where the rate of change of magnetic flux (Φ) leads to induced EMF. Since the rod sweeps an area (A = L × displacement), and displacement/time = velocity, the formula reduces to ε = BLv . This principle is the working foundation of devices like electric generators, railguns, and electromagnetic brakes .
Gravitation · Universal law of gravitation and G

Q3. Which force governs the motion of planets, stars, and galaxies?

  1. (a) Gravitational force
  2. (b) Nuclear force
  3. (c) Magnetic force
  4. (d) Electromagnetic force
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gravitational force

The correct answer is Gravitational force . It is the weakest of the four fundamental forces, yet it is the most dominant at astronomical scales. Gravitational force governs the motion of planets around the Sun, stars in galaxies, and even the galaxies themselves. For example, Earth revolves around the Sun due to the Sun’s gravitational pull, and the Moon revolves around the Earth for the same reason. Without gravity, the large-scale structure of the universe would not exist.

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Muhammad Ghori and the battles of Tarain

Q4. Which Rajput ruler defeated Muhammad Ghori in the First Battle of Tarain ?

  1. (a) Prithviraj Chauhan
  2. (b) Hem Chandra Vikramaditya
  3. (c) Bappa Rawal
  4. (d) Rana Sanga
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prithviraj Chauhan

The correct answer is Prithviraj Chauhan . The First Battle of Tarain (also called the Battle of Taraori ) was fought in 1191 AD near Tarain , close to present-day Haryana, between Prithviraj Chauhan (the ruler of Ajmer and Delhi) and Muhammad Ghori (the Ghurid ruler of Afghanistan) . Ghori’s forces advanced into India, aiming to expand their empire. In this battle, Prithviraj Chauhan’s Rajput army defeated Ghori decisively , and Ghori himself was badly injured and forced to retreat. This victory highlighted the military strength of the Rajputs . However, Muhammad Ghori returned the very next year with a stronger and better-prepared army. In the Second Battle of Tarain (1192 AD) , Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan, which became a turning point in Indian history as it laid the foundation for Muslim rule in North India .
Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q5. Which Mughal Emperor issued the Deccan campaign against the Marathas and spent significant time in the region? ?

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Jahangir
  3. (c) Aurangzeb
  4. (d) Shah Jahan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aurangzeb

The correct answer is Aurangzeb . He is most remembered for his long Deccan campaigns which consumed the later part of his reign. Aurangzeb shifted his capital to the Deccan region and spent nearly 25 years (1681–1707) engaged in battles against the Marathas, Bijapur, and Golconda. These campaigns strained the Mughal treasury and weakened the empire. His continuous struggle with the Marathas, especially against leaders like Shivaji and later Sambhaji, turned the Deccan into the centre of Mughal-Maratha conflicts. Unlike Akbar, Jahangir, or Shah Jahan, it was Aurangzeb who made the Deccan the focus of his imperial policy.

Polity (8)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q6. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to the Schedules of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Twelfth Schedule – Election of President and Vice-President
  2. (b) Eleventh Schedule – Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats
  3. (c) Tenth Schedule – Languages recognised by the Constitution
  4. (d) Ninth Schedule – Allocation of powers between Union and States
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Eleventh Schedule – Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats

The correct answer is Eleventh Schedule – Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats . The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 , which came into effect in 1993 . It contains 29 subjects related to Panchayati Raj institutions, such as agriculture, rural housing, drinking water, health, sanitation, education, poverty alleviation, etc. The Twelfth Schedule actually deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities , not the election of President and Vice-President. The Tenth Schedule deals with the anti-defection law , not languages. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951 and contains laws related to land reforms and agrarian reforms that cannot be challenged in courts. Thus, only Option 2 is correct .
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q7. How does Article 356 impact the federal structure of India?

  1. (a) It ensures judicial independence
  2. (b) It enforces cooperative federalism
  3. (c) It promotes decentralization
  4. (d) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments

The correct answer is It allows Centre to dismiss State governments. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution provides for President’s Rule in a state if the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions. The President, on the advice of the Union Government, can assume control of the state machinery and dismiss the elected state government. This centralises power and impacts the federal structure. The S.R. Bommai case (1994) restricted misuse of this provision. The other options are incorrect because Article 356 has nothing to do with judicial independence, cooperative federalism, or decentralisation .
Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q8. Which schedule of the Constitution contains provisions for the disqualification of legislators under the anti-defection law?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Eighth Schedule
  3. (c) Tenth Schedule
  4. (d) Ninth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tenth Schedule

The correct answer is Tenth Schedule . The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, also known as the Anti-Defection Law , was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 . It provides the grounds on which legislators (both MPs and MLAs) can be disqualified on the basis of defection. A member is disqualified if they voluntarily give up the membership of the party, or if they vote/abstain against the direction of the party without prior permission. The power to decide disqualification lies with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha/State Legislative Assembly , depending on the case. This law was enacted to curb political instability caused by frequent defections and to strengthen democracy by ensuring party discipline.
Union Executive · Vice-President

Q9. The Vice-President of India is part of which branch of the government?

  1. (a) Executive only
  2. (b) Legislative only
  3. (c) Judicial only
  4. (d) Both Executive and Legislative
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both Executive and Legislative

The correct answer is Both Executive and Legislative . The Vice-President of India holds a dual role . As the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha , he is an integral part of the Legislature . At the same time, being the second-highest constitutional office after the President, he is also a part of the Executive branch . In the absence of the President (due to death, resignation, removal, or otherwise), the Vice-President acts as the Acting President of India . Thus, the Vice-President connects both the Executive and Legislative wings of the Indian government.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q10. Which of the following is a subject under the State List?

  1. (a) Public Order
  2. (b) Defence
  3. (c) Banking
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Public Order

The correct answer is Public Order . Under the Indian Constitution, subjects of governance are divided into three lists— Union List, State List, and Concurrent List —as given in the Seventh Schedule. Matters of national importance like defence , foreign affairs, and banking fall under the Union List . Subjects of both national and regional importance , like education, forests, and marriage laws, are in the Concurrent List , where both Centre and States can make laws. However, Public Order and Police are explicitly placed under the State List , meaning that only State Governments have the authority to legislate and administer them. This ensures that law and order, being a matter of local governance, is handled directly by the State.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q11. Which principle of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 ensures that entities collecting personal data must obtain explicit consent from individuals?

  1. (a) Purpose Limitation
  2. (b) Data Localization
  3. (c) Notice and Choice Framework
  4. (d) Storage Reduction Compliance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Notice and Choice Framework

The correct answer is Notice and Choice Framework . Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, this principle requires entities collecting personal data to provide clear notice to individuals about how their data will be used and to obtain their explicit consent before processing it. This ensures that individuals have control over their personal information and can make informed choices. It establishes transparency and accountability for data fiduciaries. Other principles like Purpose Limitation deal with restricting use of data to specific purposes, Data Localization relates to storing data within the country, and Storage Reduction Compliance concerns minimizing data retention. Hence, only Notice and Choice Framework ensures explicit consent from individuals.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q12. Under which article can the President declare a National Emergency?

  1. (a) Article 356
  2. (b) Article 360
  3. (c) Article 365
  4. (d) Article 352
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 352

The correct answer is Article 352 . Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency if he/she is satisfied that the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion . Originally, the term used was “internal disturbance,” but the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) replaced it with “armed rebellion” to prevent misuse. Once proclaimed, the federal structure of India is significantly altered, as the Union government assumes greater power over the states. Fundamental Rights, particularly under Article 19, can remain suspended during the operation of a National Emergency. India has witnessed the proclamation of National Emergency thrice – in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Indo-Pak war) , and 1975 (internal emergency declared by Indira Gandhi) . Thus, Article 352 is the constitutional basis for National Emergencies, whereas Article 356 deals with President’s Rule in states, and Article 360 with Financial Emergency.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q13. Which of the following powers granted under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 extends beyond the scope of its predecessor, the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920?

  1. (a) Restricting identification procedures only to convicts
  2. (b) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data
  3. (c) Limiting law enforcement access to stored data
  4. (d) Allowing only fingerprints for crime investigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data

The correct answer is Permitting collection of biometric and biological data . The Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920 was very limited in scope, allowing only the collection of simple physical measurements like fingerprints and footprints of convicts. In contrast, the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 significantly expands the scope by authorising police and prison officials to collect a wide range of biometric and biological data, including iris scans, retina scans, facial recognition, DNA samples, behavioural attributes, and other modern identification techniques. This makes the 2022 Act more comprehensive and technology-driven, aligning with modern law enforcement requirements. This expansion has been justified on grounds of aiding investigation, improving conviction rates, and keeping pace with evolving crimes, though it has also raised debates regarding privacy and misuse of sensitive personal data.

Economics (11)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q14. What is the term for the shift of workers from agriculture to industry and services?

  1. (a) Industrialization
  2. (b) Urbanization
  3. (c) Occupational diversification
  4. (d) Economic transition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Occupational diversification

The correct answer is Occupational diversification . It refers to the process in which workers gradually shift from agriculture to industry and services. In a developing economy, the majority of the population is initially dependent on agriculture, but with economic growth, more employment opportunities arise in industry and services, leading to a diversification of occupations. Industrialization refers specifically to the growth of industries. Urbanization refers to the growth of towns and cities due to migration. Economic transition is a broader term that includes structural changes in the economy, not just occupation shift. Hence, only Option 3 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q15. In which year were the major economic reforms introduced in India?

  1. (a) 1985
  2. (b) 2000
  3. (c) 1991
  4. (d) 1990
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1991

The correct answer is 1991 . India faced a severe economic crisis in 1991, with foreign exchange reserves barely enough to cover a few weeks of imports. To tackle this, the Government of India under Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh introduced a series of major economic reforms. These reforms are known as the Liberalisation , Privatisation , and Globalisation (LPG) reforms . The reforms included measures like devaluation of the rupee, reduction in import tariffs, ending the Licence Raj, encouraging foreign direct investment (FDI), and liberalising industrial policies. This marked a turning point in India’s economy, shifting from a closed, centrally planned system to a market-oriented, globally integrated economy. These reforms not only stabilized India’s economic situation but also laid the foundation for rapid growth in the following decades, transforming India into one of the world’s fastest-growing economies.
Planning and NITI Aayog · NITI Aayog

Q16. Who was appointed as the CEO (Chief Executive Officer) of NITI Aayog in February 2023?

  1. (a) Dr. Vivek Joshi
  2. (b) Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
  3. (c) BVR Subrahmanyam
  4. (d) Amitabh Kant
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) BVR Subrahmanyam

The correct answer is B.V.R. Subrahmanyam . In February 2023, he was appointed as the CEO of NITI Aayog , succeeding Parameswaran Iyer , who was earlier serving in this role and later moved to the World Bank. Subrahmanyam is a retired IAS officer of the 1987 batch from the Chhattisgarh cadre . He has earlier served as the Chief Secretary of Jammu & Kashmir and has held senior positions in the Prime Minister’s Office. His appointment brought administrative experience and governance expertise to NITI Aayog, which is India’s premier policy think tank aimed at fostering cooperative federalism and promoting sustainable development.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q17. What is a major difficulty in the data collection process for the Happiness Index across different countries?

  1. (a) Lack of financial resources for advertising
  2. (b) Recording trade statistics accurately
  3. (c) Ensuring consistent and uniform survey methods globally
  4. (d) Language barriers in economic treaties
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ensuring consistent and uniform survey methods globally

The correct answer is Ensuring consistent and uniform survey methods globally . The Happiness Index measures subjective well-being through surveys and indicators like income, health, freedom, social support, and perceptions of corruption. However, the main difficulty lies in ensuring that data collection methods are consistent across countries . Cultural differences, variations in interpretation of questions, and lack of uniform survey methodologies can lead to biased or incomparable results. For example, the way “happiness” is perceived in a Scandinavian country may differ from that in an Asian or African country. Thus, standardization of methodology is one of the biggest challenges.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q18. Which of the following is a key reason for the decline in the agricultural sector in India after 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) Rising minimum support prices for all crops
  2. (b) Greater protection through higher import duties
  3. (c) Shift toward export-oriented cash crops and reduced public investment
  4. (d) Increased investment in irrigation and rural infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shift toward export-oriented cash crops and reduced public investment

The correct answer is Shift toward export-oriented cash crops and reduced public investment . After the 1991 economic reforms, India adopted a policy of liberalisation , privatisation , and globalisation . This led to an agricultural shift towards cash crops for export , such as cotton, sugarcane, and oilseeds, rather than traditional food crops. At the same time, the government reduced subsidies and public investment in key areas like irrigation, rural infrastructure, and agricultural research. These changes made farmers more vulnerable to international price fluctuations and reduced overall productivity growth in agriculture.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q19. How many key variables are used in the World Happiness Report to explain happiness levels?

  1. (a) 8
  2. (b) 10
  3. (c) 6
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6

The correct answer is 6 variables . The World Happiness Report explains global happiness rankings using six main factors: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perception of corruption . Together, these variables provide a comprehensive understanding of why some countries rank higher in happiness than others.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q20. Which scheme was launched to promote entrepreneurship among SC and ST communities?

  1. (a) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
  2. (b) Start-Up India
  3. (c) Stand-Up India
  4. (d) MUDRA Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stand-Up India

The correct answer is Stand-Up India . This scheme was launched in 2016 to promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and women entrepreneurs . Under this scheme, banks are required to provide loans between ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a new enterprise. It aims to empower disadvantaged groups by facilitating their participation in economic activities and self-employment.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q21. The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that as a consumer consumes more and more units of a commodity:

  1. (a) Marginal utility remains constant.
  2. (b) Marginal utility derived from each additional unit decreases.
  3. (c) Total utility increases at an increasing rate.
  4. (d) Total utility decreases.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Marginal utility derived from each additional unit decreases.

The correct answer is Marginal utility derived from each additional unit decreases . The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility in economics states that when a consumer keeps consuming additional units of the same good, the satisfaction (utility) gained from each extra unit decreases after a certain point. For example, eating one slice of pizza gives high satisfaction, the second gives slightly less, and by the fourth or fifth slice, the satisfaction may become very low or even negative.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q22. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) system?
1. ULPIN assigns a unique ID to every land parcel in India.
2. ULPIN is a 14-digit identification number.
3. ULPIN helps track land ownership and resolve disputes.
4. ULPIN is only for urban areas and not rural land.

  1. (a) 1, 3, and 4 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only . The ULPIN (Unique Land Parcel Identification Number) is part of the government’s Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP). It provides a unique 14-digit identification number to every land parcel in India. This helps in maintaining transparency in land records, ensuring security of ownership, and reducing land disputes. It also enables integration of land records with Aadhaar, revenue records, and banking systems, making land transactions easier and more reliable. Importantly, ULPIN is applicable to both urban and rural areas , so statement 4 is incorrect.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q23. What was the role of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in the Technology Mission on Oilseeds?

  1. (a) To regulate trade policies
  2. (b) To manage oilseed procurement and processing
  3. (c) To develop genetically modified crops
  4. (d) To promote milk production
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To manage oilseed procurement and processing

The correct answer is To manage oilseed procurement and processing . Under the Technology Mission on Oilseeds launched in 1986, the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was entrusted with the responsibility of procurement, processing, and marketing of oilseeds and their products. This was part of the larger effort to achieve self-sufficiency in edible oils and reduce dependence on imports. The NDDB played a crucial role by implementing cooperative structures, ensuring fair prices for farmers, and modernizing oilseed processing units. Options like trade regulation and milk promotion were not part of this mission, while genetically modified crops were not in focus during that period.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q24. Which platform is used for submitting ideas under the INSPIRE MANAK Scheme?

  1. (a) INSPIRE Portal INSPIRE
  2. (b) National Innovation Portal
  3. (c) Digital India Portal
  4. (d) Science and Technology Portal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) INSPIRE Portal INSPIRE

The correct answer is INSPIRE Portal . The INSPIRE MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge) Scheme, implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the National Innovation Foundation (NIF), aims to encourage original ideas and innovation among students of classes 6 to 10. Students submit their innovative ideas through the INSPIRE portal . This helps in nurturing creativity and promoting a culture of scientific thinking at an early age. The portal provides a systematic platform for registering, evaluating, and shortlisting ideas.

Static GK (10)

Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q25. What is the primary goal of the BIMSTEC Free Trade Area (FTA)?

  1. (a) To promote cultural exchanges
  2. (b) To reduce trade barriers and enhance economic cooperation
  3. (c) To regulate trade policies globally
  4. (d) To establish a common currency among BIMSTEC nations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce trade barriers and enhance economic cooperation

The correct answer is "To reduce trade barriers and enhance economic cooperation." The BIMSTEC Free Trade Area (FTA) aims to create a framework where member countries (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) can trade with minimal restrictions. The objective is to facilitate smoother flow of goods, reduce tariffs, and strengthen regional integration for collective economic growth.
Option 1 (cultural exchange) is a goal of regional cooperation but not the FTA.
Option 3 (regulating global trade policies) falls under WTO’s domain, not BIMSTEC.
Option 4 (common currency) is not part of BIMSTEC’s framework. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
Monuments and Heritage · World monuments and wonders

Q26. Which architectural style is best described by the following features: ribbed vaults, pointed arches, flying buttresses, and stained-glass windows?

  1. (a) Gothic
  2. (b) Deccan
  3. (c) Mughal
  4. (d) Indo-Islamic
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gothic

The correct answer is Gothic architecture . This European architectural style (12th–16th centuries) is especially known for its ribbed vaults , pointed arches , flying buttresses , and large stained-glass windows that allowed more light to enter cathedrals. Structures like Notre-Dame Cathedral (Paris) and Chartres Cathedral (France) are famous examples. Option 2 (Deccan) refers to regional architecture of South India and is unrelated. Option 3 (Mughal) is characterised by domes, minarets, and gardens, not stained glass or rib vaults. Option 4 (Indo-Islamic) involves arches and domes but lacks features like flying buttresses. Hence, Gothic style is the correct choice.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q27. Which Indian space mission marked the successful launch of 104 satellites in a single mission?

  1. (a) GSLV Mk III
  2. (b) Chandrayaan-2
  3. (c) PSLV-C37
  4. (d) Astrosat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) PSLV-C37

The correct answer is PSLV-C37 . On 15 February 2017 , the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) created a world record by successfully launching 104 satellites in a single mission from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota . The main payload was Cartosat-2D , an earth observation satellite, along with 103 co-passenger satellites. Out of these, 96 satellites belonged to the USA , while the rest were from countries like Israel, Kazakhstan, Netherlands, Switzerland, UAE, and India. This mission demonstrated India’s ability to launch multiple satellites efficiently at low cost, making ISRO a global leader in space technology. It also showcased India’s growing role in the commercial space market , as many foreign nations relied on ISRO for launching their satellites. The success of PSLV-C37 further cemented ISRO’s reputation as a reliable and cost-effective space agency worldwide.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q28. The term "deuce" is associated with which sport?

  1. (a) Football
  2. (b) Hockey
  3. (c) Tennis
  4. (d) Basketball
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tennis

The correct answer is Tennis . In tennis, the term "deuce" is used when both players have scored 40–40 , meaning the score is tied at a crucial point. At deuce, a player must win two consecutive points to win the game – the first point gives "advantage," and if the player wins the next point, they win the game. However, if the opponent wins the next point after deuce, the score returns to deuce again. This rule makes tennis more competitive and ensures that a game cannot be won by a single point once it reaches 40–40. The concept of deuce highlights the endurance, mental strength, and consistency required in tennis.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q29. Consider the below statements regarding the Aditya-L1 mission and its payloads:
1. The SUIT payload on Aditya-L1 is designed to image the solar disk in the near-ultraviolet (UV) spectrum to study the temperature and chemical composition of the Sun’s photosphere and chromosphere.
2. The SoLEXS instrument is a high-resolution X-ray spectrometer used to study solar flares and active regions in soft X-ray wavelengths.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) 2 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2 . Aditya-L1 is India’s first dedicated solar mission launched by ISRO in September 2023. It is positioned at the Lagrangian point L1, about 1.5 million km from Earth, to provide continuous observation of the Sun. The SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) studies the solar disk in the near-ultraviolet spectrum, helping in the analysis of the Sun’s photosphere and chromosphere , including their temperature variations and chemical composition . The SoLEXS (Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer) is designed to study solar flares and active regions by detecting soft X-rays, which are key indicators of solar activity. Both instruments together enhance our understanding of solar dynamics and their influence on space weather.
Sports · Stadiums and venues

Q30. Which city is home to the cricket ground, Wankhede Stadium?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mumbai

The correct answer is Mumbai . Wankhede Stadium is one of India’s most iconic cricket stadiums, located in Churchgate , Mumbai, Maharashtra . It was established in 1974 and has hosted many historic matches, including the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final , where India defeated Sri Lanka to win the trophy under MS Dhoni’s captaincy. The stadium is the home ground of the Mumbai cricket team and the Mumbai Indians IPL franchise . With a seating capacity of around 33,000 spectators , it remains one of the premier venues for international and domestic cricket in India.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q31. What is the name of the writer of Tomb of Sand , the first Hindi book to be awarded the International Booker Prize?

  1. (a) Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. (b) Arundhati Roy
  3. (c) Kiran Desai
  4. (d) Geetanjali Shree
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Geetanjali Shree

The correct answer is Geetanjali Shree . She became the first Indian author to win the International Booker Prize in 2022 for her Hindi novel "Ret Samadhi" , translated into English as "Tomb of Sand" by Daisy Rockwell. This award brought Hindi literature into global recognition and marked a historic moment for Indian regional languages in world literature.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q32. Which of the following is the specific port facility within Chabahar Port that India is primarily developing and operating?

  1. (a) Shahid Beheshti Port
  2. (b) Jask Port
  3. (c) Bandar Abbas Port
  4. (d) Shahid Kalantari Port
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shahid Beheshti Port

The correct answer is Shahid Beheshti Port . Chabahar Port, located in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchestan province, is of immense strategic importance for India. India is developing the Shahid Beheshti terminal to secure an alternative trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. This port allows India access to international North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) and strengthens India-Iran relations. Unlike Bandar Abbas, which is dominated by Iran, Chabahar gives India a direct role in port operations. The development also boosts India’s connectivity projects and supports regional trade and security objectives.
Organisations and Headquarters · Founders and founding years

Q33. Which institution was established in 1961 to promote management education in India?

  1. (a) National Productivity Council (NPC)
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
  3. (c) University Grants Commission (UGC)
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indian Institute of Management (IIM)

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Management (IIM) . The first IIM was established in Calcutta (now Kolkata) in 1961 , with collaboration from the Government of India, Government of West Bengal, Ford Foundation, and MIT Sloan School of Management . Soon after, another IIM was set up in Ahmedabad . These institutes were created to promote excellence in management education, research, and training to meet the growing demand for professional managers in post-independence India. Over time, IIMs have become premier management institutes globally, offering postgraduate, doctoral, and executive education programs.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q34. Which of the following is recognized as a classical dance of India?

  1. (a) Bhangra
  2. (b) Lavani
  3. (c) Bharatnatyam
  4. (d) Garba
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatnatyam

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam . It is one of the eight officially recognized classical dance forms of India. Bharatnatyam originated in Tamil Nadu and is deeply connected with devotional themes, especially dedicated to Lord Shiva. It combines expressive gestures (mudras), rhythmic movements, and storytelling to depict spiritual ideas from Hindu scriptures like the Natya Shastra . In contrast, Bhangra (Punjab), Lavani (Maharashtra), and Garba (Gujarat) are important folk dances but are not classified as classical dances. Bharatnatyam’s antiquity and codified traditions give it classical status.

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and vacuoles

Q35. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding vacuoles?

  1. (a) In some plant cells, the central vacuole can take up most of the cell’s volume
  2. (b) Vacuoles serve as storage sacs for both solids and liquids
  3. (c) Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in plant cells
  4. (d) Animal cells usually contain smaller vacuoles compared to plant cells
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in plant cells

The correct answer is “Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in plant cells.” This is incorrect because in reality, plant cells generally have a single large central vacuole that occupies up to 80–90% of the cell’s volume, playing a major role in maintaining turgor pressure, storing nutrients, and waste management. In contrast, animal cells contain multiple small vacuoles , which are much smaller in size and perform functions like storage and transport. Hence, vacuoles are larger in plant cells, not in animal cells.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood - components and functions

Q36. What is the scientific term for white blood cells?

  1. (a) Thrombocytes
  2. (b) Platelets
  3. (c) Erythrocytes
  4. (d) Leucocytes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Leucocytes

The correct answer is Leucocytes . White blood cells (WBCs) are scientifically known as leucocytes. Their main function is to defend the body against infections, bacteria, viruses, and other foreign invaders. They form a crucial part of the immune system. There are several types of WBCs such as neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils, each with specialized roles in immunity. The term "Erythrocytes" refers to red blood cells (RBCs), which transport oxygen. "Thrombocytes" or platelets are responsible for blood clotting. Hence, the correct term for white blood cells is leucocytes.

Geography (4)

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q37. Which Union Territory has the highest population density as per Census 2011?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Chandigarh
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Delhi

The correct answer is Delhi . As per the Census of India 2011, Delhi recorded the highest population density among Union Territories , with 11,320 persons per square kilometre . This extreme density is due to Delhi being the national capital, attracting massive rural-to-urban migration, rapid urbanisation , and concentration of administrative, commercial, and service-sector activities. Puducherry had a density of around 2,598 persons per sq km , influenced by its coastal settlements. Lakshadweep had a density of about 2,149 persons per sq km , owing to its limited land area. Chandigarh recorded around 9,252 persons per sq km , making it very dense, but still lower than Delhi. Thus, Delhi stands out as the Union Territory with the highest population density in 2011 .
Atmosphere and Climate · Insolation and heat budget

Q38. Read the following statements:
Statement 1: The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as advection.
Statement 2: The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called convection.
Statement 3: ‘Loo’ winds in northern India during summer are caused by advection.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 3 is correct
  3. (c) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only Statement 3 is correct

The correct answer is Only Statement 3 is correct . Statement 1 is incorrect because vertical heating of the atmosphere is called convection, not advection . Advection refers to the horizontal transfer of heat by the movement of air. Statement 2 is also wrong because it reverses the terms — the horizontal movement of air transferring heat is advection, while vertical movement is convection. Statement 3 is correct: the hot, dry summer winds known as ‘Loo’ in northern India are indeed caused by advection , which transfers heat horizontally.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q39. Which of these rivers does not originate in the Peninsular Plateau of India?

  1. (a) Cauvery
  2. (b) Godavari
  3. (c) Krishna
  4. (d) Ganga
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ganga

The correct answer is Ganga River . The Ganga originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas (Uttarakhand) and not from the Peninsular Plateau. In contrast, the Cauvery, Godavari, and Krishna rivers all originate from the Peninsular Plateau. Cauvery originates from the Western Ghats in Karnataka, Godavari from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra, and Krishna from Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. The Peninsular rivers are rain-fed and seasonal, while the Ganga is a Himalayan river that is perennial, fed by both rainfall and melting glaciers. Thus, the Ganga stands out as the only river among the options that does not belong to the Peninsular Plateau river system .
India - Drainage System · East-flowing peninsular rivers

Q40. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the Eastern Coastal Plains?

  1. (a) Mahi
  2. (b) Tapi
  3. (c) Narmada
  4. (d) Godavari
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Godavari

The correct answer is Godavari River . The Godavari, also called the "Dakshin Ganga" or "Ganga of the South," is the largest river of peninsular India and flows eastwards into the Bay of Bengal. As it slows down near its mouth, it deposits huge amounts of alluvium, thereby forming an extensive delta in the Eastern Coastal Plains, particularly in Andhra Pradesh. In contrast, rivers like the Narmada, Tapi, and Mahi flow westwards into the Arabian Sea and form estuaries rather than deltas because of their narrow and submerged coastal plains. Deltas are typically formed by large rivers with broad floodplains, slow gradient near the mouth, and heavy silt load—conditions that the Godavari fulfills. The fertile Godavari delta is also famous for intensive agriculture, particularly rice cultivation, and supports dense settlements.

Current Affairs (3)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q41. Consider the following statements:
1. Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman to head SEBI in March 2022.
2. Tuhin Kanta Pandey has been appointed as the new SEBI Chief for three years from February 28, 2025.
3. Saudi Arabia has awarded PM Narendra Modi the Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only . Madhabi Puri Buch indeed became the first woman Chairperson of SEBI in March 2022, marking a historic milestone in Indian financial regulation. Recently, Tuhin Kanta Pandey, former Secretary of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), was appointed as the next SEBI Chairman starting from February 28, 2025 for a three-year term. However, the claim that Saudi Arabia awarded PM Narendra Modi the "Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer" is incorrect , as this award was conferred by Kuwait , not Saudi Arabia.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q42. Which of the following is the main reason that Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Mr. Michal Spiczko , President of the Kabaddi Federation of Poland?

  1. (a) To appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in Europe
  2. (b) To sign a trade agreement between India and Poland
  3. (c) To congratulate him on Poland’s football achievements
  4. (d) To discuss military cooperation through sports
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in Europe

The correct answer is to appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in Europe . Kabaddi, a traditional Indian sport, has gained international recognition in recent years, especially through leagues like Pro Kabaddi League and international federations. Mr. Michal Spiczko , as the President of the Kabaddi Federation of Poland, has been working actively to popularise Kabaddi in Europe by organizing tournaments and encouraging youth participation. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s meeting was meant to acknowledge and appreciate these contributions, strengthening cultural ties between India and Europe through sports diplomacy. The other options such as trade agreements, football, or military cooperation were not the purpose of this specific meeting.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q43. The primary objective of the LUPEX Mission, a collaboration between ISRO and JAXA, is to:

  1. (a) Study the Martian atmosphere and soil composition
  2. (b) Deploy a communication satellite in lunar orbit
  3. (c) Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark side
  4. (d) Observe solar flares and coronal mass ejections
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark side

The correct answer is Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark side . The LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) Mission is a joint collaboration between ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) . Its main objective is to study the presence of water ice on the lunar surface, especially at the south pole, and analyse its potential for supporting future human habitation and exploration. The mission will use a rover and lander to explore the dark regions of the Moon, where sunlight never reaches and water ice is more likely to be preserved. This makes LUPEX a crucial step for long-term lunar exploration and resource utilisation .

Ancient History (1)

Mauryan Empire · Chandragupta Maurya

Q44. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire?

  1. (a) Bindusara
  2. (b) Ashoka
  3. (c) Chandragupta Maurya
  4. (d) Harshavardhana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chandragupta Maurya

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya . He founded the Maurya Empire in 321 BCE after overthrowing the Nanda dynasty with the guidance and support of Chanakya (Kautilya) , the author of Arthashastra . Chandragupta united most of the Indian subcontinent under one central administration, making it the first major empire in India. His reign laid the foundation for political unity and strong administration. Later, his grandson Ashoka the Great expanded the empire to its greatest territorial extent and spread Buddhism.
Other Options: Bindusara was Chandragupta Maurya’s son and the second Mauryan ruler.
Ashoka was the grandson of Chandragupta and the most famous Mauryan ruler.
Harshavardhana ruled much later (7th century CE) and belonged to the Vardhana dynasty, not the Maurya Empire.
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