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SSC Stenographer 2025 6 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 6 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Economics, Modern History, Current Affairs, Physics.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 6 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (10) · Static GK (10) · Economics (9) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (3) · Physics (2) · Geography (4) · Medieval History (2) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (1) · Ancient History (1)

Polity (10)

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q1. Which of the following was a major effect of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

  1. (a) It reduced the term of the Lok Sabha to four years.
  2. (b) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties.
  3. (c) It introduced Fundamental Rights for citizens.
  4. (d) It abolished the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties.

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, is often called the "Mini Constitution" because of the wide-ranging changes it introduced. One of its major effects was to increase the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 6 years (later reduced back to 5 years by the 44th Amendment). It also introduced Fundamental Duties in the Constitution under Article 51A, making it mandatory for citizens to perform certain responsibilities towards the nation. Additionally, it strengthened the Directive Principles of State Policy by giving them precedence over Fundamental Rights in certain cases. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q2. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, promotes e-filing and virtual trials to expedite the justice delivery system.
Reason (R): The integration of technology aims to reduce case pendency and enhance accessibility to justice.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has been introduced to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. One of its major reforms is the adoption of technology in the judicial process , including e-filing of cases, digital records, and virtual trials . The objective is to ensure speedy justice, reduce pendency of cases, and improve transparency in the system. The Reason (R) correctly explains the Assertion (A), because the promotion of e-filing and virtual trials (A) is indeed aimed at reducing pendency and enhancing accessibility (R). Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q3. Which constitutional amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 24th Amendment
  3. (c) 44th Amendment
  4. (d) 52nd Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is popularly called the "Mini Constitution" because it brought about the most comprehensive changes to the Indian Constitution since its adoption in 1950. Enacted during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, this amendment gave unprecedented powers to the Parliament, curtailed the powers of the judiciary, extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from 5 to 6 years, and inserted the Fundamental Duties into the Constitution. It also added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble. The amendment made sweeping changes in almost every part of the Constitution, hence it is considered as a "Mini Constitution".
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q4. Which of the following statements based on the Union List entries is/are correct?
1. The Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on lotteries conducted by both the Central and State governments.
2. Matters related to the incorporation and regulation of cooperative societies are included in the Union List.
3. The Reserve Bank of India, foreign exchange, and currency are all under the legislative domain of the Union.
4. Parliament can make laws regarding corporations whose activities are not limited to one State, excluding universities.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 4
  2. (b) All four statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1, 3, and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1, 3, and 4

The correct answer is Only 1, 3, and 4 . Under the Constitution of India, the Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament has the power to legislate. Lotteries conducted by the Central and State governments come under the Union List, so Parliament has exclusive power here. Similarly, subjects such as currency, foreign exchange, and the Reserve Bank of India are also under Union jurisdiction. Moreover, Parliament can make laws regarding corporations whose activities extend beyond one state (excluding universities). However, cooperative societies are not in the Union List; they are covered under the State List or the 97th Constitutional Amendment placed them partly under the Concurrent List. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, while 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q5. Read the statements given below:
Statement 1: The Constitution of India divides the legislative subjects into 3 lists, namely the Centre, State and Concurrent List.
Statement 2: The subject of ‘Protection of wild animals and birds’ is transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the 42nd Amendment Act.
Statement 3: Only the Parliament of India can make laws on the subjects under the Concurrent List.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only Statement 2 is correct
  4. (d) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct

The correct answer is Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct . The Constitution of India divides legislative powers into three lists —the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List—mentioned in the Seventh Schedule. This ensures a federal distribution of powers. By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 , the subject of “protection of wild animals and birds” was shifted from the State List to the Concurrent List so that both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on this matter. However, Statement 3 is wrong because subjects in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both Parliament and State Legislatures , though in case of conflict, the Union law prevails. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · OCI, NRI and CAA

Q6. What is the role of the Foreigners’ Tribunal in the NRC (National Register of Citizens) process?

  1. (a) To issue voter ID cards
  2. (b) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC
  3. (c) To conduct the Census
  4. (d) To deport illegal immigrants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC

The correct answer is to verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC . The Foreigners’ Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body established under the Foreigners Act, 1946. In the NRC process, especially in Assam, individuals who are excluded from the NRC list can approach the Foreigners’ Tribunal to prove their Indian citizenship. The tribunal examines documents, hears arguments, and delivers judgments on whether a person is an Indian citizen or a foreign national. It does not issue voter ID cards, conduct the Census, or directly deport individuals; deportation is the responsibility of the government after due legal process. The tribunal’s role is strictly to decide on citizenship verification .
Local Government · Gram Sabha and three-tier structure

Q7. Which level of the Panchayati Raj system operates at the village level?

  1. (a) Zila Parishad
  2. (b) Gram Sabha
  3. (c) Gram Panchayat
  4. (d) Panchayat Samiti
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gram Panchayat

The correct answer is Gram Panchayat . The Panchayati Raj system in India is a three-tier structure consisting of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block/intermediate level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level. The Gram Panchayat is directly elected by the members of the Gram Sabha (all adult villagers) and is responsible for local governance, village development, sanitation, water supply, street lighting, and implementation of government schemes. It is the grassroots democratic institution that ensures people’s participation in governance at the village level.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita introduces community service as a punishment for minor offences.
2. The scope of summary trials has been limited to only serious offences under the new law.
3. The reformative approach aims to ensure societal reintegration of offenders.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only . The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) in 2023, introduced several reforms in the criminal justice system. (1) For minor offences, the law has introduced community service as a punishment , marking a shift from purely punitive to reformative justice. (2) The statement about summary trials is incorrect—BNS has actually expanded the scope of summary trials to cover more petty offences for speedy justice, not limited them to serious offences. (3) The law also emphasizes a reformative approach , aiming for the rehabilitation and reintegration of offenders back into society. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while 2 is wrong.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Nature of the Constitution (federal, unitary, parliamentary)

Q9. Which of these is not a feature of Indian federalism?

  1. (a) Division of Powers
  2. (b) Dual Citizenship
  3. (c) Independent Judiciary
  4. (d) Written Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dual Citizenship

The correct answer is Dual Citizenship . Indian federalism is unique and is often described as “quasi-federal” with a strong unitary bias. The key features of Indian federalism include: (1) Division of powers between the Union and the States (through Union, State, and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule); (2) Independent Judiciary to resolve disputes between Centre and States; and (3) a Written Constitution that clearly defines the structure of the federation. However, unlike the USA, India does not provide dual citizenship —there is only single citizenship of India . This ensures unity and integrity of the nation, as all Indians are recognized equally regardless of their state of residence. Hence, “Dual Citizenship” is not a feature of Indian federalism.
Union Executive · President - election and qualifications

Q10. Which body is responsible for resolving disputes related to the election of the President of India?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) Lok Sabha
  3. (c) Rajya Sabha
  4. (d) Election Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Supreme Court

The correct answer is the Supreme Court. According to Article 71 of the Indian Constitution, any dispute related to the election of the President or Vice President of India is dealt with exclusively by the Supreme Court of India. The decision of the Supreme Court in such matters is final and cannot be challenged in any other court. While the Election Commission is responsible for conducting the elections, it does not have the authority to resolve disputes. Similarly, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha do not play a role in adjudicating election-related conflicts. Therefore, the constitutional provision ensures that the Supreme Court alone has the power to settle these disputes, maintaining fairness and judicial oversight in the process.

Static GK (10)

Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q11. In which state is the folk music tradition of " Zikir " popular?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

The folk music tradition of " Zikir " is popular in Assam . It was introduced by the 17th-century Assamese Sufi saint and reformer Azan Fakir . Zikir songs are devotional in nature and are sung to spread messages of communal harmony, morality, and spirituality. These songs combine elements of Islamic Sufi philosophy with the cultural traditions of Assam, making them unique in style and rhythm.
Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q12. What was the role of the University Grants Commission (UGC), established in 1956?

  1. (a) To promote agricultural development
  2. (b) To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India
  3. (c) To regulate trade agreements
  4. (d) To manage industrial policies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India

The correct answer is to oversee and fund higher education institutions in India . The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally established by an Act of Parliament in 1956 . Its main role was to coordinate, determine, and maintain standards of higher education in India. UGC is responsible for distributing funds to central and state universities, monitoring their functioning, and ensuring quality in teaching and research. It also grants recognition to universities and colleges, thus serving as a regulatory body for higher education. Over the years, UGC has played a crucial role in expanding access to higher education, promoting research, and introducing reforms to improve quality.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q13. In which year did UNESCO recognize Durga Puja as an Intangible Cultural Heritage?

  1. (a) 2015
  2. (b) 2019
  3. (c) 2021
  4. (d) 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2021

The correct answer is 2021 . Durga Puja, one of the grandest festivals celebrated mainly in West Bengal, was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2021. It was recognized not just as a religious festival but as a social and cultural event that brings together communities, art, craft, theatre, music, and traditions. UNESCO highlighted how Durga Puja reflects the city of Kolkata’s rich cultural diversity and collective creativity. This recognition placed Durga Puja alongside other global cultural practices preserved for their universal value.
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q14. The Nehru Cup, a prominent international football tournament in India, was last held in which year?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2012
  4. (d) 2007
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2012

The correct answer is 2012 . The Nehru Cup, an international football tournament organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF), was named after India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. It was first introduced in 1982 with the aim of promoting football in India and bringing international exposure to Indian players. The tournament featured participation from teams across Asia, Africa, and other regions. The last edition of the Nehru Cup was held in New Delhi in 2012 , where India emerged as the champion by defeating Cameroon in the final. After 2012, the tournament has not been organized due to various administrative and scheduling reasons, making 2012 the last year it was played.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q15. Kathak is a classical dance form that developed in which region of India?

  1. (a) Southern India
  2. (b) Northern India
  3. (c) Eastern India
  4. (d) Western India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Northern India

The correct answer is Northern India . Kathak is one of the eight recognized classical dance forms of India. It originated from the word Katha meaning “story” and was traditionally performed by storytellers ( Kathakars ) who narrated mythological tales through dance, music, and expressions. Kathak flourished particularly in the courts of North India during the Mughal era where it absorbed Persian and Central Asian influences, giving rise to its distinctive style that combines storytelling with intricate footwork, spins, and graceful expressions. Today, Kathak is practiced widely across India and globally, but its roots remain deeply tied to the cultural traditions of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and other northern regions .
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q16. Which temple, built by the Chandela dynasty in the 10th–11th centuries, is known for its exquisite sculptures?

  1. (a) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
  2. (b) Lingaraja Temple
  3. (c) Sun Temple, Modhera
  4. (d) Brihadeeswarar Temple
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple

The correct answer is Kandariya Mahadeva Temple . It was built in the 11th century by King Vidyadhara of the Chandela dynasty in Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh. The temple is the largest and most ornate of the Khajuraho group of temples and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is renowned for its exquisite sculptures and erotic art , which symbolize life, spirituality, and the celebration of human desires in harmony with divine principles. The temple stands as a masterpiece of Nagara-style architecture with over 800 finely carved sculptures , representing gods, goddesses, apsaras, musicians, and celestial beings. Other temples like Lingaraja (Odisha), Sun Temple ( Modhera , Gujarat), and Brihadeeswarar (Tamil Nadu) are significant but were built by different dynasties, not the Chandelas.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q17. Which Indian-American author wrote The Namesake , later adapted into a film?

  1. (a) Arundhati Roy
  2. (b) Jhumpa Lahiri
  3. (c) Kiran Desai
  4. (d) Chetan Bhagat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jhumpa Lahiri

The correct answer is Jhumpa Lahiri . She is an Indian-American author known for her works on themes of identity, migration, and the experiences of Indian immigrants in America. The Namesake , published in 2003, was her first novel, which follows the life of Gogol Ganguli, the son of Indian immigrants in the United States, exploring cultural displacement and identity struggles. The novel received international acclaim and was later adapted into a popular film in 2006, directed by Mira Nair. Jhumpa Lahiri has also won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction (2000) for her debut short-story collection Interpreter of Maladies .
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q18. India’s primary interest in developing Chabahar Port is to:

  1. (a) Establish a direct naval base for military operations in the Persian Gulf.
  2. (b) Export agricultural products exclusively to Iran.
  3. (c) Gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
  4. (d) Develop a new tourism hub for its citizens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.

The correct answer is to gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan . The Chabahar Port, located in southeastern Iran along the Gulf of Oman, is strategically important for India. It provides India with an alternative trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia without relying on Pakistan, which has historically denied India overland transit access. Chabahar is often seen as India’s counter to Pakistan’s Gwadar Port (developed with Chinese assistance) and plays a vital role in India’s International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) strategy. It enhances India’s regional connectivity, boosts trade ties, and strengthens its geopolitical presence in the region, especially in competition with China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q19. What was the key scientific objective of Chandrayaan-3?

  1. (a) To orbit the Moon
  2. (b) To demonstrate a safe lunar landing and rover operation
  3. (c) To measure gravitational waves
  4. (d) To study Mars’ atmosphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To demonstrate a safe lunar landing and rover operation

The correct answer is to demonstrate a safe lunar landing and rover operation . Chandrayaan-3, launched by ISRO on 14 July 2023 , was India’s third lunar mission and a follow-up to Chandrayaan-2. Unlike Chandrayaan-2, which had a partial success due to the lander crash, Chandrayaan-3’s primary objective was not orbital science but technology demonstration . Its key goals were: (1) achieving a soft and safe landing on the lunar surface, (2) deploying a rover to conduct mobility tests , and (3) carrying out basic scientific experiments on lunar soil and rocks . Chandrayaan-3 successfully landed on 23 August 2023 near the Moon’s south pole, making India the first country to land in this region and the fourth nation globally to achieve a soft lunar landing . This marked a historic achievement for India’s space programme .
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q20. Which countries are members of BIMSTEC?

  1. (a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand
  2. (b) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Thailand
  3. (c) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
  4. (d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand

The correct answer is Option 4. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) was established in 1997 with the aim of fostering regional cooperation among countries in South Asia and Southeast Asia. Its current members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. It connects South Asia with Southeast Asia and works in areas like trade, connectivity, energy, technology, fisheries, agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, and climate change. Pakistan, Afghanistan, and the Maldives are not members of BIMSTEC, which often causes confusion among candidates.

Economics (9)

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q21. Which Indian state was the first to benefit from the Green Revolution?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Punjab

The state of Punjab was the first to benefit from the Green Revolution in the mid-1960s. The introduction of high-yield variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and advanced irrigation methods significantly boosted agricultural productivity. Punjab, with its fertile soil and well-developed irrigation facilities, quickly became the "food bowl of India." The Green Revolution helped India achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, especially wheat and rice.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q22. What is the purpose of the two-day Hands-on Training Workshop on the e-SAKSHI Portal held in June 2024?

  1. (a) To demonstrate biometric tracking of MPLAD assets
  2. (b) To train MPs in drafting local development plans
  3. (c) To train officials on the revised fund flow procedure under MPLAD Scheme
  4. (d) To launch a new e-commerce platform for district development
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To train officials on the revised fund flow procedure under MPLAD Scheme

The purpose of the two-day Hands-on Training Workshop on the e-SAKSHI Portal in June 2024 was to train officials on the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD (Members of Parliament Local Area Development) Scheme . The MPLAD scheme enables MPs to recommend developmental works in their constituencies. To ensure transparency, accountability, and faster fund allocation, the government revised the fund flow mechanism and integrated it with the e-SAKSHI digital platform. The workshop helped officials understand the updated process, digital monitoring, and efficient utilization of funds for local development.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q23. Which major reform was introduced in the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020?

  1. (a) Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5+3+3+4 structure
  2. (b) Compulsory Sanskrit education
  3. (c) Elimination of private schools
  4. (d) Mandatory board exams for all grades
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5+3+3+4 structure

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is one of the most significant reforms in India’s education system after 34 years. A key reform was the replacement of the 10+2 system with a new 5+3+3+4 structure . Under this, the first 5 years focus on foundational learning (including pre-primary and grades 1–2), the next 3 years are for preparatory stage (grades 3–5), followed by 3 years of middle stage (grades 6–8), and finally 4 years of secondary stage (grades 9–12). This system emphasises early childhood care, skill development, flexibility in subject choices, and holistic growth of students , aligning Indian education with global standards.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q24. The concept of "opportunity cost" in economics refers to:

  1. (a) The cost incurred in the past that cannot be recovered.
  2. (b) The monetary cost of the most expensive alternative.
  3. (c) The value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.
  4. (d) The cost of all alternatives that are not chosen.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.

The concept of opportunity cost is central to economics and decision-making. It means the value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made . Since resources like time, money, and labour are limited, whenever we choose one option, we lose the potential benefit of the other alternative. For example, if a student spends time studying economics instead of mathematics, the opportunity cost is the knowledge of mathematics that could have been gained. This concept highlights the importance of rational choice and resource allocation.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q25. Which government body was responsible for implementing the Technology Mission on Oilseeds?

  1. (a) Ministry of Commerce
  2. (b) Ministry of Education
  3. (c) Ministry of Agriculture
  4. (d) Ministry of Defense
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Agriculture

The Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO) was launched in 1986 to reduce India’s heavy dependence on edible oil imports and to boost domestic oilseed production. The responsibility of implementing this mission was given to the Ministry of Agriculture , as oilseed farming is directly linked to agricultural practices. The mission aimed to improve productivity through better seeds, modern farming techniques, irrigation facilities, and price support for farmers. Later, this mission played a crucial role in making India almost self-sufficient in oilseed production by the 1990s.
Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q26. Which of the following is not a Maharatna company as of 2024?

  1. (a) Steel Authority of India Limited
  2. (b) Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
  3. (c) Hindustan Copper Limited
  4. (d) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hindustan Copper Limited

The correct answer is Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) . In India, Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) are classified into Maharatna , Navratna , and Miniratna categories based on their performance, turnover, and global presence. As of 2024, there are 13 Maharatna companies , including Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), Oil & Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), and National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) . These companies enjoy greater financial and operational autonomy to compete globally. However, Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) is categorized as a Mini Ratna Category-I company , not a Maharatna . This makes it the correct answer.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q27. What is the primary purpose of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016?

  1. (a) To regulate stock market investments
  2. (b) To promote foreign direct investment
  3. (c) To simplify the process of resolving financial distress in businesses
  4. (d) To provide protection for startups from financial harassment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To simplify the process of resolving financial distress in businesses

The correct answer is to simplify the process of resolving financial distress in businesses . The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 was enacted to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of individuals, partnerships, and companies. Before IBC, insolvency cases in India were delayed for years due to multiple overlapping laws and lengthy legal processes. IBC introduced a time-bound mechanism (180 to 270 days) for resolving insolvency, allowing creditors to recover their money quickly and efficiently. It has significantly improved India’s ranking in the Ease of Doing Business Index , especially in the "Resolving Insolvency" parameter. While it indirectly boosts investment by improving financial discipline, its primary goal is to ensure a speedy and transparent resolution of financial distress.
Planning and NITI Aayog · NITI Aayog

Q28. The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) focuses on:

  1. (a) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions
  2. (b) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts
  3. (c) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries
  4. (d) Improving governance in urban areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts

The correct answer is Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts . The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) was launched by the Government of India in January 2018 , under the guidance of NITI Aayog . It aims to quickly and effectively transform 112 identified underdeveloped districts across India by focusing on key areas such as health and nutrition, education, agriculture and water resources, financial inclusion, skill development, and basic infrastructure. The programme uses a data-driven ranking system (Delta Ranking) to monitor progress and promote competition among districts. By encouraging convergence of central and state schemes, collaboration among stakeholders, and competition among districts, ADP seeks to uplift some of the most backward regions of India, ensuring inclusive growth and reducing regional disparities.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Statement I: A bank’s main liability is the deposits it holds.
Statement II: Open Market Operations involve buying and selling government bonds.
Statement III: The Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks.

  1. (a) Only Statements I and II are correct
  2. (b) Only Statements II and III are correct
  3. (c) I, II and III all three statements are correct
  4. (d) Only Statement III is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) I, II and III all three statements are correct

The correct answer is that all three statements are correct. A bank’s main liability is always the deposits it holds because these are obligations that the bank must repay to depositors on demand or as per terms. Open Market Operations are an essential monetary policy tool of the RBI and they include the purchase and sale of government securities to control liquidity and inflation in the economy. The Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which the RBI provides long-term credit to commercial banks, and it has a significant impact on lending rates and overall money supply in the market. Therefore, all three statements are factually accurate and represent the core functions of banking and monetary policy in India.

Modern History (1)

Towards Independence and Partition · Subhas Chandra Bose and INA

Q30. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Rash Behari Bose?

  1. (a) He was honoured with the prestigious title 'Order of the rising sun'.
  2. (b) He was independent India’s first Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army.
  3. (c) He was an important figure in the Ghadar Movement and in the formation of the Azad Hind Fauj.
  4. (d) He founded Indian Independence League in Tokyo in 1942.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) He was independent India’s first Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army.

The incorrect statement is that Rash Behari Bose was independent India’s first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army. This is not true because after India’s independence in 1947, General K. M. Cariappa became the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army in 1949. Rash Behari Bose was a prominent revolutionary leader who played a key role in the Ghadar Movement and later in establishing the Indian Independence League in Japan (1942) . He also handed over leadership of the League to Subhas Chandra Bose , which ultimately led to the formation of the Azad Hind Fauj (INA) . In recognition of his contributions, Japan honoured him with the prestigious title "Order of the Rising Sun" .

Current Affairs (3)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q31. What is the name of India’s first reusable hybrid rocket launched by a Tamil Nadu-based startup?

  1. (a) AGNI-V
  2. (b) VAYU-1
  3. (c) RHUMI-1 ‍
  4. (d) RAKSHA-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) RHUMI-1 ‍

India’s first reusable hybrid rocket is named RHUMI-1 , developed by a Tamil Nadu-based space startup. Hybrid rockets use a combination of solid and liquid fuel, making them safer and more efficient than traditional rockets. The innovation of reusability helps in reducing launch costs significantly, similar to global models like SpaceX. The successful launch of RHUMI-1 represents a major milestone in India’s private space sector, showcasing the potential of startups in contributing to space research and satellite deployment in future.
Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q32. Consider the following two statements, labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer from the given options.
Assertion (A): India’s participation in the Asian Winter Games 2025 will be unique, as it will be the first time the government has provided full financial support.
Reason (R): The government’s objective is to enhance India’s presence and performance in winter sports by ensuring fair and meritocratic athlete selection.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). India’s participation in the Asian Winter Games 2025 is indeed significant because the government has decided to provide full financial assistance to athletes for the first time. This ensures that financial constraints do not stop talented athletes from competing. Moreover, the government’s focus on merit-based and transparent athlete selection directly supports this step, as it enhances India’s representation in winter sports, where historically the country has had limited participation. Thus, the Reason explains the Assertion correctly, making option (3) the right answer.
Defence and Security - Current · Defence personnel, firsts and ceremonial events

Q33. Who became Indian Navy’s first woman fighter pilot streamer on 3 July 2025?

  1. (a) Bina Kumari
  2. (b) Aastha Poonia
  3. (c) Neha Sharma
  4. (d) Vidya Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aastha Poonia

The correct answer is Aastha Poonia . On 3rd July 2025 , Aastha Poonia created history by becoming the Indian Navy’s first woman fighter pilot streamer . This achievement marks a significant milestone in India’s journey towards gender inclusivity in the armed forces. Earlier, women officers were inducted into the Navy in limited roles, but recent reforms have opened combat and aviation streams for them. Aastha Poonia’s achievement is not only a personal milestone but also an inspiration for aspiring women who aim to join the defence forces. Her induction reflects India’s commitment to providing equal opportunities for women in all combat and operational roles, strengthening the nation’s defence preparedness.

Physics (2)

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Nature and properties of light

Q34. Which of the following phenomena occurs when a wave passes through a narrow slit?

  1. (a) Refraction
  2. (b) Reflection
  3. (c) Absorption
  4. (d) Diffraction
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Diffraction

The correct answer is Diffraction . Diffraction is the phenomenon where waves bend or spread out when they pass through a narrow slit or around the edges of an obstacle. This effect is most prominent when the size of the slit is comparable to the wavelength of the wave. For example, light waves produce a diffraction pattern when passed through a narrow slit, showing alternate bright and dark fringes. Similarly, sound waves can bend around corners due to diffraction. This principle is important in optics, wave physics, and even in designing scientific instruments like diffraction gratings.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q35. At what orientation does a rotating coil in a uniform magnetic field generate the maximum induced EMF?

  1. (a) When the coil’s plane is at 45° to the magnetic field lines
  2. (b) When the magnetic flux through the coil is maximum
  3. (c) When the coil’s plane is parallel to the magnetic field lines
  4. (d) When the coil’s plane is perpendicular (90°) to the magnetic field lines
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) When the coil’s plane is parallel to the magnetic field lines

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Geography (4)

India - Drainage System · Tributaries and confluences

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding the Ghaghara River system:
1. The Ghaghara originates from the Mapchachungo glacier in the Himalayas.
2. It forms a deep gorge at Shishapani before entering the plains.
3. It merges with the Ganga at Allahabad after receiving the Sarda River.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 2

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 . The Ghaghara River, also known as Karnali in Nepal, originates from the Mapchachungo Glacier in the Tibet Himalayas . As it flows down from the mountains, it forms a deep gorge at Shishapani before entering the plains of India. However, the third statement is incorrect because the Ghaghara River does not meet the Ganga at Allahabad (Prayagraj). Instead, it joins the Ganga at Chhapra in Bihar after flowing through Uttar Pradesh. The confusion often arises as many Himalayan rivers merge into the Ganga system, but Ghaghara’s confluence is specifically at Chhapra . Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while 3 is wrong.
Universe and Solar System · The Sun

Q37. What are the streams of charged particles ejected by the Sun into space called?

  1. (a) Solar flares
  2. (b) Coronal loops
  3. (c) Sunspots
  4. (d) Solar wind
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Solar wind

The correct answer is Solar wind . Solar wind refers to the continuous flow of charged particles (mainly electrons and protons) that are ejected from the outer layer of the Sun’s atmosphere, called the corona. These high-energy particles travel at very high speeds (around 400–800 km/s) and spread throughout the solar system. The solar wind interacts with Earth’s magnetic field, giving rise to spectacular natural phenomena such as auroras (Northern and Southern Lights) . It also has effects on satellite communication, GPS systems, and can even pose risks to astronauts in space. While solar flares and sunspots are solar activities, only the solar wind specifically refers to these charged particle streams.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q38. What shape does a population pyramid take for a rapidly growing population?

  1. (a) Circular shape
  2. (b) Rectangular shape
  3. (c) Inverted triangle shape
  4. (d) Triangular shape
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Triangular shape

The correct answer is Triangular shape . A population pyramid shows the distribution of a population by age and sex. In the case of a rapidly growing population , the pyramid has a very broad base (indicating a high birth rate and large number of young people) and a very narrow top (indicating fewer elderly people due to low life expectancy). This triangular shape reflects countries with high fertility rates and relatively high mortality rates, usually seen in developing nations. Over time, as growth stabilizes, the pyramid may take a more rectangular shape.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q39. Which of the following plateaus is located in the northeastern part of India?

  1. (a) Deccan Plateau
  2. (b) Malwa Plateau
  3. (c) Chota Nagpur Plateau
  4. (d) Shillong Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shillong Plateau

The correct answer is Shillong Plateau. It is located in the northeastern region of India, mainly in the state of Meghalaya. This plateau is an extension of the Indian peninsular plateau but separated from the main peninsular block by the Garo- Rajmahal Gap. It is one of the oldest landforms in India, composed mainly of Precambrian rocks. The Shillong Plateau is famous for its high elevation, heavy rainfall, and natural beauty, and it plays an important role in the geography of Northeast India. The other plateaus like the Deccan, Malwa, and Chota Nagpur are located in central or southern India, not in the northeastern region.

Medieval History (2)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Battle of Talikota

Q40. Which confederation of Sultanates defeated the Vijayanagara Empire in the Battle of Talikota ?

  1. (a) Mughal Empire
  2. (b) Bahmani Sultanate
  3. (c) Deccan Sultanates
  4. (d) Rajput Confederacy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Deccan Sultanates

The correct answer is Deccan Sultanates . The Battle of Talikota (1565) was a decisive turning point in South Indian history. The Vijayanagara Empire, under the leadership of Rama Raya, faced a coalition of the Deccan Sultanates— Bijapur, Ahmadnagar , Golconda, and Bidar . These Sultanates, once part of the Bahmani kingdom, had formed an alliance to curb the growing power of Vijayanagara . The battle ended with a crushing defeat of Vijayanagara ; Rama Raya was captured and executed, and the magnificent city of Hampi was looted and destroyed. This battle marked the decline of Vijayanagara’s political and military power, though remnants of the empire survived in a weakened form for a few decades.
Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q41. Which Pratihara ruler successfully repelled Arab invasions in North-Western India?

  1. (a) Nagabhata I
  2. (b) Rajyapala
  3. (c) Vatsaraja
  4. (d) Mihira Bhoja
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nagabhata I

The correct answer is Nagabhata I . He was the founder of the Pratihara dynasty in the 8th century CE. During his reign, Arab forces from Sindh attempted to expand into North-Western India after the Arab conquest of Sindh. Nagabhata I united several Rajput clans and decisively defeated the Arab army near the region of Rajasthan and Gujarat. This victory checked further Arab expansion into India and established the Pratiharas as a strong power in northern India. Later rulers like Vatsaraja and Mihira Bhoja expanded the empire, but it was Nagabhata I who earned fame for resisting the early Arab invasions.

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q42. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Cell wall – Composed mainly of protein
  2. (b) Plasma membrane – Located outside the cell wall
  3. (c) Cellulose – Provides structural strength to plant cells
  4. (d) Plasmolysis – Gain of water by plant cell
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cellulose – Provides structural strength to plant cells

The correct answer is Cellulose – Provides structural strength to plant cells . Plant cell walls are mainly made up of cellulose, which is a polysaccharide. Cellulose microfibrils form a rigid framework that provides mechanical strength and support to plant cells, allowing them to maintain their shape and resist osmotic pressure. The other options are incorrect: (1) Cell wall is not mainly protein, it is mainly cellulose; (2) Plasma membrane is located inside the cell wall, not outside; (4) Plasmolysis refers to the loss of water from a plant cell in a hypertonic solution, not the gain of water. Thus, only option (3) is correctly matched.
Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q43. The cell uses internal compartmentalization to manage its complexity.
Which of the following best reflects this idea?

  1. (a) All cellular functions occur in the same space without any separation.
  2. (b) Organelles in eukaryotic cells float freely without any specific role.
  3. (c) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles that separate different functions.
  4. (d) Prokaryotic cells use multiple membranes to isolate cell activities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles that separate different functions.

The correct answer is Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles that separate different functions . Internal compartmentalization is a key feature of eukaryotic cells , where organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus are surrounded by membranes. This allows specific biochemical processes to occur in isolated environments, improving efficiency and reducing interference between different activities. For example, DNA replication occurs inside the nucleus, while energy production happens in mitochondria. This division of labor enables eukaryotic cells to manage their complexity, grow larger, and perform highly specialized functions compared to prokaryotic cells, which lack such compartmentalization.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q44. Which AQI range corresponds to “Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups”?

  1. (a) 51–100
  2. (b) 101–150
  3. (c) 151–200
  4. (d) 0–50
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 101–150

The correct answer is 101–150 . The Air Quality Index (AQI) is a numerical scale used to measure and report air quality levels. It classifies air pollution into categories that indicate health impacts. The range 0–50 indicates “Good,” 51–100 is “Moderate,” 101–150 is “Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups” (such as children, elderly people, and those with respiratory or heart conditions), 151–200 is “Unhealthy,” 201–300 is “Very Unhealthy,” and 301–500 is “Hazardous.” In the range 101–150, healthy people may not be affected, but sensitive groups can experience breathing difficulties and aggravated health conditions.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Discovery and excavators

Q45. Which of the following is considered the oldest known civilization of the Indian subcontinent?

  1. (a) Indus Valley Civilization
  2. (b) Vedic Civilization
  3. (c) Gupta Empire
  4. (d) Maurya Civilization
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indus Valley Civilization

The correct answer is Indus Valley Civilization . Also known as the Harappan Civilization , it is regarded as the oldest known civilization of the Indian subcontinent , flourishing approximately between 2500 BCE and 1500 BCE . It extended across present-day Pakistan, northwest India, and parts of Afghanistan. Major sites include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Lothal, Kalibangan, and Dholavira . The Indus Valley Civilization is notable for its advanced urban planning, drainage systems, standardized weights and measures, and trade networks . Unlike later civilizations such as the Vedic Civilization or the Mauryan Empire, the Indus Valley Civilization predates them by centuries, making it the earliest organized urban culture in the region.
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