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SSC Stenographer 2025 6 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 6 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Biology, Economics, Polity, Current Affairs, Static GK.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 6 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Geography (9) · Biology (2) · Economics (10) · Polity (7) · Current Affairs (3) · Static GK (11) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Physics (1)

Geography (9)

Universe and Solar System · The Sun

Q1. Which of the following systems can be affected by a solar storm?
1. GPS signal accuracy
2. Power transmission systems
3. Submarine communication cables
4. Pipeline infrastructure

  1. (a) 3 and 4 only
  2. (b) 1,2,3, and 4 all of these
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1,2,3, and 4 all of these

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4 all of these . A solar storm, also known as a geomagnetic storm, occurs when charged particles from the Sun interact with Earth’s magnetosphere. This can disrupt GPS signals by disturbing the ionosphere, which affects satellite-based navigation systems. Power transmission systems are highly vulnerable because geomagnetically induced currents (GICs) can overload transformers and lead to large-scale blackouts. Submarine communication cables , though shielded, have repeaters powered electrically, which can be disturbed by geomagnetic variations. Pipeline infrastructure can also suffer because GICs can accelerate corrosion in long pipelines, making them unsafe over time. Thus, all four systems—GPS accuracy, power grids, submarine cables, and pipelines—can be adversely affected during strong solar storms, as seen in historical events like the 1989 Quebec blackout and the Carrington Event of 1859.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q2. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Birth rate measures the number of children born per 1000 people annually.
(2) Pull factors include opportunities that attract people to new regions.
(3) Death rate is always higher than birth rate.
(4) Push factors can include civil unrest and lack of jobs.

  1. (a) All of the above
  2. (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

The correct statements are (1), (2), and (4). Statement (1) is correct because birth rate is defined as the number of live births per 1000 individuals in a population per year, and it is a key demographic indicator used to study population growth. Statement (2) is correct as pull factors are positive conditions like job opportunities, better education, health facilities, or security that attract people to migrate to new areas. Statement (4) is also correct because push factors such as unemployment, poverty, war, or civil unrest drive people to leave their place of origin. Statement (3) is incorrect because the death rate is not always higher than the birth rate; in fact, in most developing countries, birth rates are usually much higher than death rates, leading to rapid population growth.
Atmosphere and Climate · Insolation and heat budget

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a primary factor affecting the variation of insolation on Earth?

  1. (a) Angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays
  2. (b) Rotation of the Earth on its axis
  3. (c) Transparency of the atmosphere
  4. (d) Presence of water bodies in an area
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Presence of water bodies in an area

The correct answer is Presence of water bodies in an area . The primary factors affecting insolation include ( i ) the angle of the Sun’s rays, which determines how concentrated the solar energy is; (ii) the rotation of the Earth on its axis, which influences day and night cycle and solar duration; and (iii) the transparency of the atmosphere, which controls how much solar radiation reaches the Earth’s surface after scattering and absorption. While the presence of water bodies influences local climate by regulating temperature through heat absorption and release, it is not considered a direct primary factor affecting global variation of insolation.
Environment and Protected Areas · National parks

Q4. What is the role of National Parks under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?

  1. (a) To promote tourism
  2. (b) To oversee elections
  3. (c) To regulate trade
  4. (d) To protect wildlife and their habitats
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To protect wildlife and their habitats

Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 , the main role of National Parks is to ensure the protection of wildlife and their natural habitats . National Parks are protected areas where activities such as hunting, poaching, grazing, or any form of exploitation of forest resources are strictly prohibited. The objective is to provide a safe environment for endangered species and preserve biodiversity. Tourism may occur, but it is regulated and secondary, not the primary role. Elections and trade regulation have no relation to National Parks.
Environment and Protected Areas · Endangered species and IUCN

Q5. Which of the following statements best links a current conservation initiative for the Great Indian Bustard with its geographical location?

  1. (a) National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra conducted habitat simulation for GIB.
  2. (b) India’s first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
  3. (c) A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation.
  4. (d) Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the largest wild GIB population.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India’s first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Rajasthan, where the National Breeding Centre for Great Indian Bustard in Jaisalmer successfully carried out the first artificial insemination of GIB . This links conservation efforts directly with the natural range of the GIB, as Rajasthan’s Thar Desert is the bird’s primary habitat. The initiative is a significant milestone because the Great Indian Bustard is critically endangered, with less than 200 individuals left in India.
India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q6. Name the organization that made the Golden Quadrilateral Project connecting major cities of India feasible?

  1. (a) Border Roads Organization (BRO)
  2. (b) Indian Railways
  3. (c) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  4. (d) Ministry of Urban Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)

The Golden Quadrilateral Project is one of India’s largest infrastructure projects, aimed at connecting four major metropolitan cities— Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata —through a network of highways. The project was implemented by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), initiated in 2001 during the tenure of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Covering over 5,800 km, it greatly improved connectivity, reduced travel time, and boosted trade, industry, and economic growth across India.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q7. The Alaknanda River originates from which of the following?

  1. (a) Satopanth Glacier
  2. (b) Zemu Glacier
  3. (c) Milam Glacier
  4. (d) Gangotri Glacier
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Satopanth Glacier

The Alaknanda River , a major tributary of the Ganga, originates from the Satopanth Glacier located near Badrinath in Uttarakhand at an altitude of around 3,800 metres . It flows through several pilgrimage sites including Badrinath, Joshimath, and Rudraprayag . At Devprayag , it merges with the Bhagirathi River, and from this confluence the river is known as the Ganga . The Satopanth Glacier is not only the source of Alaknanda but also has mythological importance as it is linked to the Pandavas’ journey to heaven in the Mahabharata.
India - Population and Census · SC and ST population

Q8. Which Indian Union Territory has the most Scheduled Castes?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) Ladakh
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Delhi

Among the Union Territories of India, Delhi has the largest Scheduled Caste (SC) population . According to census data, Delhi has a significant share of SC communities because of its dense urban population and migration from neighbouring states such as Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Rajasthan. The proportion of SCs in Delhi is higher compared to other UTs like Chandigarh, Ladakh, or Lakshadweep, which either have small populations or negligible SC communities. Hence, the correct answer is Delhi.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q9. Which layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is primarily responsible for absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun?

  1. (a) Troposphere
  2. (b) Stratosphere
  3. (c) Mesosphere
  4. (d) Thermosphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Stratosphere

The correct answer is Stratosphere . The stratosphere contains the ozone layer , which plays a crucial role in absorbing most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. This protective shield prevents excessive UV rays from reaching the Earth’s surface, thus safeguarding human health, animals, and plant life. Without the ozone layer, life on Earth would be severely threatened due to increased risks of skin cancer, cataracts, and damage to ecosystems.

Biology (2)

Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Animal kingdom - non-chordates

Q10. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of sponges (Phylum Porifera)?

  1. (a) Presence of cnidoblasts for defense
  2. (b) Radial symmetry and presence of tentacles
  3. (c) Water canal system and choanocytes
  4. (d) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Water canal system and choanocytes

The correct answer is Water canal system and choanocytes . Sponges, belonging to Phylum Porifera, are the simplest multicellular animals. Their most unique feature is the water canal system , which helps in food capture, respiration, and excretion. Water enters through tiny pores (ostia), passes through a system of canals, and exits via a large opening (osculum). The movement of water is facilitated by special cells called choanocytes (collar cells) , which have flagella to create water currents and trap food particles. Unlike cnidarians, they do not possess cnidoblasts ; unlike echinoderms, they do not have radial symmetry; and unlike arthropods, they lack jointed appendages or a chitinous exoskeleton. Thus, the water canal system and choanocytes are the defining characteristics of sponges.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Apiculture and sericulture

Q11. High honey yield and gentle behaviour in bees for commercial beekeeping can be achieved through one of the following methods:

  1. (a) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and remain in hives longer
  2. (b) Using wild bee species with aggressive defence traits
  3. (c) Frequently relocating hives to prevent bees from settling
  4. (d) Avoiding bee farms and relying solely on natural honey collection
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and remain in hives longer

The correct answer is the introduction of Italian bees (Apis mellifera) , which are known worldwide for their high honey yield and docile (gentle) behaviour . These bees remain in hives for longer periods, making management easier for commercial beekeeping. In contrast, wild bee species may be aggressive and harder to handle, frequent relocation disturbs colonies and reduces productivity, and avoiding bee farms limits large-scale honey production. Hence, Italian bees are preferred for commercial apiculture in India and many other countries.

Economics (10)

Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q12. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 aimed at:

  1. (a) Developing rural areas
  2. (b) Promoting public sector
  3. (c) Opening up foreign trade
  4. (d) Privatizing industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Promoting public sector

The correct answer is Promoting public sector . The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 was India’s first major industrial policy after independence , laying the foundation for planned economic development. It emphasized the importance of the public sector in driving industrial growth and assigned strategic industries like arms, atomic energy, railways, and heavy machinery to government ownership and control. It divided industries into four broad categories—(1) those exclusively under the state, (2) those where the state would play a dominant role, (3) those left to private initiative but under regulation, and (4) small and cottage industries. This policy marked the beginning of India’s mixed economy model , where both public and private sectors coexisted, but with the public sector playing the leading role. The aim was not privatization or foreign trade expansion, but to build a self-reliant industrial base through state intervention .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q13. What was the objective of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan?

  1. (a) Promoting digital payments
  2. (b) Providing rural housing
  3. (c) Achieving universal sanitation coverage
  4. (d) Creating jobs in the rural sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Achieving universal sanitation coverage

The correct answer is Achieving universal sanitation coverage . Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on 2nd October 2014 by the Government of India with the primary aim to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management. Its objective was to bring about universal sanitation coverage, construct toilets in rural and urban areas, and promote hygiene practices. The mission was implemented in two phases: Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) for rural areas and Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) for towns and cities. By 2019, the campaign declared rural India Open Defecation Free (ODF) , although efforts continue to ensure sustainability and waste management. Thus, the core purpose of the mission was not digital payments, rural housing, or job creation, but achieving sanitation and hygiene for all .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q14. Which of the following is NOT a direct outcome of using the Happiness Index?

  1. (a) Enhancing social services
  2. (b) Monitoring population growth
  3. (c) Improving healthcare services
  4. (d) Creating education policies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Monitoring population growth

The Happiness Index is used globally to measure the well-being and life satisfaction of citizens. It helps governments and policymakers identify areas such as social services, healthcare, education, mental well-being, and quality of life that need improvement. By analysing happiness levels, governments can frame better social and economic policies. However, monitoring population growth is not a direct outcome of this index. Population studies fall under demographic and census activities, not happiness measurement. Thus, while the Happiness Index can indirectly influence policies related to population (through quality of life), its primary outcomes are more related to well-being services and social development policies rather than population monitoring.
National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q15. According to Keynesian theory, during recession, what should the government ideally do?

  1. (a) Reduce spending
  2. (b) Increase spending and cut taxes
  3. (c) Promote imports
  4. (d) Increase interest rates
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Increase spending and cut taxes

According to Keynesian theory , recessions occur because of a lack of aggregate demand in the economy. Keynes argued that during a downturn, the government should increase spending and cut taxes to boost demand. By spending more on public works, infrastructure, and welfare schemes, the government creates jobs and income, which further stimulates consumption. Cutting taxes leaves more disposable income in people’s hands, encouraging them to spend and invest, which helps pull the economy out of recession. On the other hand, reducing spending or raising interest rates would worsen the recession.
Money and Banking · RBI - history and functions

Q16. Arrange the following RBI Governors in the correct chronological order of their tenure (from earliest to latest):
Dr. Y. V. Reddy
Dr. D. Subbarao
Dr. Urjit R. Patel
Shri Sanjay Malhotra

  1. (a) 2, 1, 3, 4
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  3. (c) 2, 3, 1, 4
  4. (d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3, 4

The correct chronological order is 1. Dr. Y. V. Reddy (2003–2008), 2. Dr. D. Subbarao (2008–2013), 3. Dr. Urjit R. Patel (2016–2018), 4. Shri Sanjay Malhotra (current appointment) . Dr. Y. V. Reddy succeeded Bimal Jalan in 2003 and was followed by D. Subbarao. Later, after Raghuram Rajan, Dr. Urjit Patel took charge in 2016. Shri Sanjay Malhotra has been recently appointed, making him the latest in the sequence.
National Income · Economic growth and development

Q17. What does the term ‘capital formation’ refer to in macroeconomics?

  1. (a) Decrease in foreign direct investment
  2. (b) Increase in financial savings
  3. (c) Growth in production capacity through investment
  4. (d) Expansion of consumer credit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Growth in production capacity through investment

In macroeconomics, capital formation refers to the process of increasing a country’s stock of physical and productive assets through investment. It means using savings and investments to create new machines, factories, infrastructure, and technology that enhance production capacity. Simply saving money does not count as capital formation unless it is invested to generate future production. Thus, capital formation directly contributes to economic growth by expanding the ability of the economy to produce goods and services.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q18. The PM-MITRA scheme is focused on which of the following objectives ?

  1. (a) Creating rail-based infrastructure hubs-
  2. (b) Enhancing textile exports and setting up large textile parks
  3. (c) Providing smart classrooms in rural schools
  4. (d) Expanding petroleum retail chains
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Enhancing textile exports and setting up large textile parks

The PM-MITRA (Prime Minister Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme is aimed at enhancing India’s textile sector by setting up large textile parks across the country. These parks integrate the complete textile value chain from fibre to final product, boosting textile exports, generating large-scale employment, and making India globally competitive in textiles.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q19. What significant institutional development emerged from banking reforms after 1991 to regulate financial stability?

  1. (a) Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
  2. (b) NABARD
  3. (c) Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
  4. (d) MSME Credit Bureau
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)

After the 1991 economic reforms, India introduced several measures to strengthen financial stability. One of the key institutional developments was the creation of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS) in 1994 under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The BFS was established to oversee and regulate commercial banks, financial institutions, and non-banking finance companies (NBFCs). Its creation was based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee (1991), which emphasised the need for stronger supervision and prudential regulation to prevent financial instability. Thus, BFS played a crucial role in ensuring transparency, accountability, and effective monitoring in the financial system.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q20. How did Second Generation Reforms impact foreign investment in India?

  1. (a) It reduced foreign investment
  2. (b) It increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate
  3. (c) It restricted foreign companies from entering India
  4. (d) It had no impact on foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate

Second Generation Reforms, introduced in the 1990s and early 2000s, aimed at liberalising the Indian economy further after the First Generation Reforms of 1991. These included reforms in areas such as banking, insurance, telecom, capital markets, taxation, and infrastructure. By improving transparency, simplifying procedures, and ensuring a more investor-friendly climate, these reforms encouraged greater foreign direct investment (FDI). As a result, India witnessed significant inflows of foreign capital, which supported industrial growth and economic development. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q21. The regulatory framework adopted by India between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the "License Raj," aimed to direct economic activity.
While it had certain intended benefits, what was a significant unintended negative consequence often associated with this system?

  1. (a) A rapid increase in the quality and global competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent quality control measures.
  2. (b) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to inefficiencies.
  3. (c) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic activities.
  4. (d) The fostering of a highly competitive market environment with numerous players in each industry.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to inefficiencies.

The "License Raj" required businesses to obtain multiple government permits and clearances to start and operate. While it was meant to regulate growth and ensure balanced development, it led to barriers for new entrants . This stifled competition, discouraged innovation, and created inefficiencies in industries. Instead of promoting competitiveness, it often resulted in monopolies and corruption, limiting India’s industrial potential until liberalisation in 1991.

Polity (7)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. What is the punishment for abetment of an offense under the POCSO Act?

  1. (a) Community service
  2. (b) No punishment
  3. (c) Same punishment as the offense
  4. (d) Half the punishment prescribed for the offense
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Same punishment as the offense

The correct answer is Same punishment as the offense . Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, abetment of an offense is treated with the same seriousness as the commission of the actual offense. Section 16 of the Act defines abetment broadly, including instigation, conspiracy, or aiding the offense. Section 17 of the Act clearly states that the punishment for abetment will be the same as is prescribed for the offense itself . This ensures that individuals who encourage, plan, or support such crimes cannot escape with lesser punishment, reflecting the Act’s strict stance on protecting children from sexual exploitation.
Parliament · Parliamentary proceedings (Question Hour, Zero Hour, motions)

Q23. According to the Constitution of India, what is the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament?

  1. (a) One-third of the total number of members of the House.
  2. (b) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
  3. (c) Fifty members in the Lok Sabha and Twenty-five members in the Rajya Sabha.
  4. (d) One-fourth of the total number of members of the House.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.

According to Article 100(3) of the Indian Constitution , the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of that House . If at any time during a meeting there is no quorum, the presiding officer must either adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until a quorum is met. The purpose of this rule is to ensure meaningful participation and to prevent decisions being made in the absence of sufficient members. The other options are incorrect because the Constitution clearly specifies "one-tenth" and not one-third, one-fourth, or fixed numbers.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q24. If "a soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the law". According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, has he committed an offence?

  1. (a) Yes, because he could have disobeyed
  2. (b) No, because he followed public orders
  3. (c) No, because he believed in good faith that he was bound by law
  4. (d) Yes, because violence is punishable
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) No, because he believed in good faith that he was bound by law

According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 , a soldier who fires upon a mob under the lawful command of his superior officer does not commit an offence if the act is done in good faith believing that he is bound by law . The concept of "good faith" means that the soldier genuinely believes he is legally obligated to follow such an order. In such cases, liability rests with the authority that issued the command, not with the soldier who acted in obedience. This principle protects personnel in service from punishment when they act under lawful duty, provided there is no malicious intent.
Constitutional Development and Making · Committees of the Constituent Assembly

Q25. Which of the following is correctly matched with their leadership role in the Constituent Assembly (During the making of the Indian constitution)?

  1. (a) G.V. Mavalankar – Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly.
  2. (b) K.M. Munshi – Leader of the Committee on Fundamental Rights.
  3. (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Head of the Committee on the Functions of the Assembly.
  4. (d) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar – Chairman of the Order of Business Committee.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) G.V. Mavalankar – Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly.

G.V. Mavalankar , who later became the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, was indeed the Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly . This committee was responsible for defining how the Assembly would conduct its work until the Constitution was completed. Other roles were different: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee ; K.M. Munshi was a key member of the Drafting Committee but not the leader of the Fundamental Rights Committee (that role was played by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel initially, with contributions from others); and N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar chaired the Rules of Procedure and Order of Business Committee . Therefore, the correct match is with G.V. Mavalankar.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Scheduled and tribal areas (Fifth and Sixth Schedules)

Q26. Which of the following North-Eastern states has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule?

  1. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Tripura
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tripura

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the North-Eastern states through Autonomous District Councils. It applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram . Among the given options, Tripura is covered under the Sixth Schedule. In Tripura, the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) was established to safeguard the rights and culture of indigenous tribal communities. This system ensures self-governance in tribal regions and protects their socio-economic and cultural practices.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q27. Which of the following bodies has the power to create new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States?

  1. (a) The Prime Minister with the consent of all Chief Ministers.
  2. (b) The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.
  3. (c) The President of India by issuing an executive order.
  4. (d) The Union Cabinet by a simple majority.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

The correct answer is The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority . According to Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has the authority to pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority empowering Parliament to create new All-India Services. This ensures federal cooperation between the Union and the States.
Constitutional Development and Making · Committees of the Constituent Assembly

Q28. Who headed the Credentials Committee in the Constituent Assembly?

  1. (a) T.T. Krishnamachari
  2. (b) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
  3. (c) K.M. Munshi
  4. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar

The correct answer is Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar . He was a distinguished lawyer and an important member of the Constituent Assembly. As the head of the Credentials Committee , he verified the credentials of members before they took their seats. His role was crucial in ensuring the legitimacy of the Constituent Assembly’s composition.

Current Affairs (3)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q29. Where was the National Shooting Championship 2024 held?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  2. (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Panaji, Goa
  4. (d) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

The National Shooting Championship 2024 was held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh . Bhopal has emerged as a major shooting hub of India in recent years due to the Madhya Pradesh State Shooting Academy , which is equipped with world-class facilities for both 10m air rifle/pistol and 25m & 50m events. This venue has hosted several national and international events, providing excellent infrastructure to train top shooters. The 2024 championship in Bhopal brought together the best shooters from across the country, serving as an important platform for selection trials ahead of international competitions.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q30. Who was invited as the chief guest for India’s 76th Republic Day celebrations on January 26, 2025?

  1. (a) Joko Widodo
  2. (b) Prabowo Subianto
  3. (c) Anwar Ibrahim
  4. (d) Ferdinand Marcos Jr.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prabowo Subianto

For the 76th Republic Day celebrations of India on 26th January 2025 , Prabowo Subianto , the President-elect of Indonesia, was invited as the chief guest. Republic Day has a tradition of inviting a foreign leader as the guest of honour , symbolising India’s strong diplomatic ties. The invitation to Prabowo highlights the importance of India–Indonesia relations, especially in the Indo-Pacific region where both countries are strategic partners.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q31. SpaDeX mission is related to ____.

  1. (a) Space docking
  2. (b) Artificial intelligence
  3. (c) Planetary geology
  4. (d) Space farming
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Space docking

The SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission is related to space docking technology . It is an experimental mission by ISRO to demonstrate autonomous docking in space, which is crucial for future space station programs, crew transfer, and satellite servicing. Space docking allows two spacecraft to join in orbit, enabling refueling, repairs, and transfer of astronauts.

Static GK (11)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q32. Which classical dance form originated in Andhra Pradesh and incorporates both singing and dancing?

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Manipuri
  3. (c) Kathakali
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kuchipudi

The correct answer is Kuchipudi . This classical dance form originated in Andhra Pradesh and is unique because it combines both singing and dancing, unlike most other Indian classical dances which rely only on dance. Kuchipudi performances traditionally involve storytelling based on Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata. The performers are not just dancers but also sing the dialogues or songs during the enactment, which makes it distinct. It evolved in the Kuchipudi village of Krishna district and is recognised as one of the eight major classical dances of India.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q33. Which of the following correctly pairs a monument with its architectural style?

  1. (a) India Gate – Rajput
  2. (b) Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic
  3. (c) Lotus Temple – Mughal
  4. (d) Khajuraho Temples – French
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic

The correct answer is Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic . Qutub Minar, located in Delhi, was commissioned by Qutb- ud -din Aibak in 1199 and later completed by Iltutmish. It is a classic example of Indo-Islamic architecture , combining Islamic arches, domes, and calligraphy with Indian motifs. The other options are incorrect: India Gate is built in the Indo-Saracenic style (not Rajput); Lotus Temple belongs to the Bahá’í faith architecture (not Mughal); and Khajuraho Temples are famous for their Nagara style of temple architecture (not French).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q34. Ganesh Chaturthi, celebrated widely in Maharashtra, is associated with:

  1. (a) The birth of Lord Ganesha
  2. (b) The marriage of Shiva and Parvati
  3. (c) The descent of Ganga
  4. (d) The return of Krishna to Mathura
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The birth of Lord Ganesha

Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated to mark the birth of Lord Ganesha , the son of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati. It is one of the most popular and widely observed festivals in Maharashtra. The festival lasts for 10 days, starting on the fourth day of the Bhadrapada month (Shukla Paksha Chaturthi) and ending on Anant Chaturdashi . On the last day, idols of Lord Ganesha are immersed in water (known as Ganesh Visarjan ), symbolising his return to Mount Kailash. Socially, this festival was popularised by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in the late 19th century as a public event to bring people together during the freedom struggle.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q35. What is the radius of the centre circle in a football field?

  1. (a) 5.5 m
  2. (b) 9.15 m
  3. (c) 10.5 m
  4. (d) 11 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 9.15 m

According to the official rules of FIFA, the radius of the centre circle in a football field is 9.15 metres . This measurement ensures that players of the opposing team stay at least 10 yards (9.15 m) away from the ball during kick-off. The centre circle is an essential marking that maintains fairness and provides proper space for the team starting play.
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q36. Who among the following is related to the Parakram Diwas? ?

  1. (a) Bhagat Singh
  2. (b) Azad
  3. (c) Subhash Bose
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Subhash Bose

Parakram Diwas is celebrated on 23rd January , the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose . The day was declared by the Government of India in 2021 to honour his immense contribution to India’s freedom struggle and to inspire future generations with his courage and patriotism. Bose was the founder of the Indian National Army (INA), also known as Azad Hind Fauj, which played a significant role in India’s independence movement.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q37. Which of the following best describes the main objective of the Indo-French Megha- Tropiques satellite mission?

  1. (a) Studying polar ice melt and its impact on global sea levels
  2. (b) Monitoring ozone depletion over the equator
  3. (c) Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions
  4. (d) Mapping mineral resources in the Himalayan region
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions

The Indo-French Megha- Tropiques satellite mission , launched in 2011, was specifically designed to study the tropical climate system , especially monsoon dynamics, convective processes, and the water cycle in tropical regions . It carried instruments like SAPHIR (to measure atmospheric humidity) and MADRAS (for rainfall monitoring). Its goal was to provide valuable data for better understanding of weather prediction, climate change impacts, and monsoon behaviour , which are crucial for India’s agriculture and disaster management.
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q38. The “Golden Boot” is awarded in which sport?

  1. (a) Football
  2. (b) Baseball
  3. (c) Hockey
  4. (d) Cricket
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Football

The Golden Boot is awarded in Football (Soccer) to the player who scores the most goals in a particular tournament. It is one of the most prestigious individual awards in the sport. In the FIFA World Cup, the Golden Boot is presented to the highest goal scorer of the tournament. It symbolises excellence in striking ability and goal-scoring consistency. Other football tournaments such as the UEFA European Championship and major club leagues also honour top scorers with a Golden Boot award.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q39. What is one of the major benefits of providing Geographical Indication (GI) tags to local products made by rural artisans?

  1. (a) It helps preserve traditional knowledge and boosts rural incomes
  2. (b) It increases dependency on imported goods
  3. (c) It removes the need for skill development in rural areas
  4. (d) It allows unrestricted copying of the product by other regions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It helps preserve traditional knowledge and boosts rural incomes

The correct answer is It helps preserve traditional knowledge and boosts rural incomes . Geographical Indication (GI) tags are special labels that identify products as originating from a particular region, possessing qualities, reputation, or traditional knowledge linked to that place. For rural artisans, GI tags protect their unique cultural and craft heritage, prevent unauthorized copying, and create market recognition. This not only safeguards traditional skills but also helps in improving incomes by promoting authentic local products nationally and internationally.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q40. Which pair is correctly matched with India’s geopolitical interest?

  1. (a) Ladakh Corridor – Access to Africa
  2. (b) SAGAR Policy – Maritime ties in the Indian Ocean
  3. (c) Kaladan Project – Links to Iran
  4. (d) Ashgabat Agreement – Partnership with BIMSTEC
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) SAGAR Policy – Maritime ties in the Indian Ocean

The correct match is SAGAR Policy – Maritime ties in the Indian Ocean . SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) is India’s vision to strengthen maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean region. It aims at ensuring safe maritime trade, disaster management, and stronger ties with littoral states. The other options are mismatched: Ladakh Corridor is not linked to Africa, Kaladan Project connects India to Myanmar (not Iran), and Ashgabat Agreement is related to Central Asia, not BIMSTEC.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q41. Which of the following is a prominent form of Hindustani classical vocal music?

  1. (a) Kuchipudi
  2. (b) Kathak
  3. (c) Bharatanatyam
  4. (d) Dhrupad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dhrupad

The correct answer is Dhrupad . It is one of the oldest and most prominent forms of Hindustani classical vocal music. Dhrupad is characterised by its spiritual, meditative nature and strict adherence to raga and tala. The other options are all classical dance forms – Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam (from South India) and Kathak (from North India), not vocal music styles.
Space, Defence and Technology · Nuclear programme and institutions

Q42. Which country withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and later developed nuclear weapons?

  1. (a) Syria
  2. (b) Iran
  3. (c) North Korea
  4. (d) Israel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) North Korea

The correct answer is North Korea . In 2003, North Korea officially withdrew from the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) , citing security concerns and U.S. hostility. After its withdrawal, North Korea conducted multiple nuclear tests and successfully developed nuclear weapons, making it one of the few nations outside the NPT framework with nuclear capability.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q43. In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the correct option from the following:
Assertion (A): Rows of circular brick platforms at Harappa were used for religious ceremonies.
Reason (R): These platforms were found to contain wheat and barley grains.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
  2. (b) Both A and R are false
  3. (c) A is false, but R is true
  4. (d) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is false, but R is true

The correct answer is A is false, but R is true . The circular brick platforms at Harappa were not used for religious ceremonies . Archaeological evidence suggests that they were likely related to storage or trade activities . However, it is true that wheat and barley grains were found on these platforms, which indicates their association with agricultural produce. Hence, the Assertion (A) is false, but the Reason (R) is true.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q44. In the context of Mughal administration, who were referred to as Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis?

  1. (a) Persian-trained officers recruited from Safavid Iran
  2. (b) Central Asian nobles of Turkic origin serving the Mughals
  3. (c) Rajput converts elevated to noble ranks for loyalty
  4. (d) Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule

In the Mughal administrative system, nobles and officials were broadly divided into two categories: Turanis and Iranis (foreign nobles of Central Asian or Persian origin) and Shaikhzadas /Hindustanis (Indian Muslims). The term " Shaikhzadas " or "Hindustanis" was used for indigenous Muslims of India who occupied various administrative and military posts under the Mughal Empire. They were distinguished from foreign-born nobles and played an important role in balancing the power structure within the Mughal nobility. Hence, the correct answer is Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule .

Physics (1)

Electricity · Resistors in series and parallel

Q45. Two resistors named R1 and R2, are connected in parallel. If R1 < R2, what can be inferred about the current flowing through them, given the same potential difference across both?

  1. (a) Current through R1 is greater than through R2.
  2. (b) Current through R1 is less than through R2.
  3. (c) Current through R1 is equal to current through R2.
  4. (d) The current ratio depends on the supply voltage.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Current through R1 is greater than through R2.

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