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SSC Stenographer 2025 7 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 7 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Static GK, Ancient History, Physics, Medieval History, Biology.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 7 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Economics (8) · Static GK (9) · Ancient History (3) · Physics (1) · Medieval History (1) · Biology (2) · Polity (8) · Geography (8) · Modern History (2) · Current Affairs (2) · Chemistry (1)

Economics (8)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q1. What was the primary impact of the 'License Raj' system on industrial growth in India before 1991?

  1. (a) It created entry barriers, hindered expansion, and fostered inefficiency.
  2. (b) It ensured balanced regional development and prevented monopolies.
  3. (c) It led to efficient resource allocation and increased competition.
  4. (d) It promoted rapid industrial diversification and innovation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It created entry barriers, hindered expansion, and fostered inefficiency.

The correct answer is It created entry barriers, hindered expansion, and fostered inefficiency . The License Raj system (1947–1991) was a strict regulatory framework in India where industries needed government licenses for setting up and expanding businesses. This led to bureaucratic red tape, corruption, limited competition, and inefficiency , which slowed down India’s industrial growth before the 1991 economic reforms.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q2. What does a lower GPI score indicate?

  1. (a) Better environmental practices
  2. (b) Higher risk of war
  3. (c) Higher level of peace
  4. (d) Greater military strength
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Higher level of peace

The Global Peace Index (GPI) is published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) . It measures the relative position of nations and regions according to their levels of peacefulness. The index takes into account factors such as levels of violence, conflict, militarisation, and political stability.A lower GPI score means that a country is performing better in terms of peace indicators. In other words, the lower the score, the higher the level of peace in that country. Countries like Iceland, New Zealand, and Denmark usually rank among the lowest scores, indicating they are the most peaceful nations. On the other hand, countries with higher scores face internal conflicts, terrorism, political instability, or higher militarisation, making them less peaceful.Therefore, the correct answer is: Higher level of peace (Option 3).
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q3. Which of the following best reflects the scarcity problem in economics?

  1. (a) Equal wants and equal resources
  2. (b) Limited wants and unlimited resources
  3. (c) Limited resources and unlimited wants
  4. (d) Unlimited wants and unlimited resources
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Limited resources and unlimited wants

The central problem of economics is the problem of scarcity . Human wants are unlimited , while the resources available to satisfy them are limited . Because of this imbalance, individuals, societies, and governments must make choices about how best to allocate scarce resources to meet competing needs. If resources were unlimited, there would be no scarcity problem, and economics as a subject would not exist. Similarly, if human wants were limited, resources could easily fulfil them. But since wants keep expanding (new goods, better living standards, higher consumption), scarcity always persists. Hence, the best reflection of the scarcity problem is: Limited resources and unlimited wants (Option 3).
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q4. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of a government’s fiscal policy?

  1. (a) To regulate the stock market and financial institutions.
  2. (b) To promote international trade and maintain a favorable balance of payments.
  3. (c) To influence aggregate demand and economic activity through government spending and taxation.
  4. (d) To control the money supply and interest rates.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To influence aggregate demand and economic activity through government spending and taxation.

Fiscal policy is the policy used by the government to manage the economy by adjusting government spending and taxation . The primary aim of fiscal policy is to influence the aggregate demand in the economy and thereby ensure economic stability, employment generation, and sustainable growth.For example, during a recession, the government may increase spending on infrastructure projects and reduce taxes to boost demand and create jobs. Conversely, during high inflation, the government may reduce spending or increase taxes to control excessive demand. Options 1 and 4 relate more to monetary policy , which is controlled by the central bank (like RBI in India) to regulate money supply and interest rates. Option 2 relates to external trade policies. Hence, the correct answer is: To influence aggregate demand and economic activity through government spending and taxation (Option 3).
Planning and NITI Aayog · NITI Aayog

Q5. The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) focuses on:

  1. (a) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries
  2. (b) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts
  3. (c) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions
  4. (d) Improving governance in urban areas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts

The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) was launched by the Government of India in 2018 with the aim of transforming the most underdeveloped and backward districts of the country. The programme focuses on rapid improvement in key sectors such as health and nutrition, education, agriculture and water resources, financial inclusion, skill development, and basic infrastructure. The idea is to uplift districts that lag behind in socio-economic indicators and bring them at par with the rest of the country. It uses real-time monitoring and a ranking-based approach to ensure competition and cooperation among districts. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q6. Which year was the first World Happiness Report published?

  1. (a) 2016
  2. (b) 2010
  3. (c) 2012
  4. (d) 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2012

The first World Happiness Report was published in 2012 by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UN-SDSN). The report ranks countries based on factors such as GDP per capita, social support, life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption. Since then, it has become an annual publication, released every year on 20th March , coinciding with the International Day of Happiness . It highlights the importance of happiness and well-being as key indicators of progress beyond economic growth alone. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: 2012.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · ADB, AIIB, NDB and other banks

Q7. Which of the following initiatives was launched by the BRICS countries?

  1. (a) The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. (b) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
  3. (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
  4. (d) The World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)

The New Development Bank (NDB) , also known as the BRICS Bank , was established by the BRICS nations ( Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa ) in 2014 at the Fortaleza Summit (Brazil) . Its main aim is to provide financial support for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS countries as well as other emerging economies. The headquarters of the NDB is located in Shanghai, China . The other options are incorrect because the IMF (1944) , NATO (1949) , and WTO (1995) were not launched by BRICS but by broader international or regional agreements. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: New Development Bank (NDB).
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q8. What was the recommendation of the Narasimham Committee-II regarding public sector banks?

  1. (a) Privatize all public sector banks
  2. (b) Increase government ownership in public sector banks
  3. (c) Reduce lending by public sector banks
  4. (d) Merge and consolidate public sector banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Merge and consolidate public sector banks

The Narasimham Committee-II (1998) , headed by M. Narasimham, was constituted to recommend banking sector reforms in India. One of its most significant recommendations was the merger and consolidation of public sector banks to create a few strong and competitive banks capable of competing globally. The committee argued that having too many small and weak banks made the sector inefficient and less competitive. Instead of privatisation or reducing government ownership, the focus was on creating stronger institutions through consolidation. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4: Merge and consolidate public sector banks.

Static GK (9)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q9. What was the first published poetry collection by Vinod Kumar Shukla?

  1. (a) Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya
  2. (b) Aakash Dharti Ko Khatakta Hai
  3. (c) Lagbhag Jai Hind
  4. (d) Kavita Se Lambi Kavita
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lagbhag Jai Hind

The correct answer is Lagbhag Jai Hind . Vinod Kumar Shukla, a noted Hindi writer and poet, is known for his simple yet powerful style. His first published poetry collection was "Lagbhag Jai Hind" (1971) , which established him as a significant modern Hindi poet. This work reflects his sharp socio-political observations and unique poetic voice.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q10. Evaluate the following about Carnatic instruments and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: The Mridangam is a melodic percussion instrument used to outline the raga.
Statement 2: Nadaswaram is a double-reed instrument traditionally played in temples and weddings.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 2

Mridangam is not a melodic instrument, but a percussion (rhythm) instrument. It is considered the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music concerts and is used to provide tala (rhythmic cycle) , not to outline the raga. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. On the other hand, Nadaswaram is a traditional double-reed wind instrument , very popular in South India. It is known for its loud, auspicious sound and is commonly played in temples, processions, and weddings. Thus, Statement 2 is correct. Hence, the right answer is Option 4: Only 2.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q11. Which classical dance form is associated with the state of Kerala?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Sattriya
  3. (c) Kathakali
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kathakali

Kathakali is the classical dance form of Kerala, known for its elaborate costumes, face painting (make-up called Chutti ), and highly stylized gestures and expressions. It is a blend of dance, drama, and music, and is often based on stories from epics such as the Mahabharata and the Ramayana. Kathakali performances are traditionally performed in temples and cultural gatherings and are recognized worldwide as one of the most powerful dance-theatre traditions of India. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Kathakali.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q12. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The jaherthan plays a central role in the sacrificial rituals of Erok Sim.
Reason (R): The jaherthan is a sacred grove believed to be inhabited by spirits, including Jaherera, the Lady of the Sacred Grove.

  1. (a) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.
  2. (b) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
  3. (c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
  4. (d) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.

In the Santhal tribal tradition, the jaherthan (sacred grove) holds a central place in their religious and sacrificial rituals such as Erok Sim . These rituals are performed to appease deities and spirits that are believed to reside in the sacred grove. According to belief, Jaherera, the Lady of the Sacred Grove, along with other spirits, inhabits this place. Thus, the jaherthan is not only the site of rituals but also the spiritual center that justifies its importance in sacrificial practices. Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) properly explains Assertion (A). Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q13. Which recent mission by ISRO aims to study the Sun from the Lagrange point L1?

  1. (a) Mangalyaan
  2. (b) Chandrayaan-3
  3. (c) Aditya-L1
  4. (d) Shukrayaan-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aditya-L1

The Aditya-L1 mission is India’s first dedicated space mission to study the Sun. It was launched by ISRO in September 2023. The spacecraft is positioned at the Lagrange point L1 , which is about 1.5 million km away from Earth towards the Sun. This location is ideal as it allows uninterrupted observation of the Sun without being affected by Earth’s shadow or occultation. Aditya-L1 carries seven scientific payloads to study various aspects of the Sun, such as the solar corona, solar emissions, solar wind, and space weather phenomena. The mission is significant because it helps improve our understanding of solar activities and their impact on Earth’s climate, satellites, and communication systems. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q14. In which country, the first Commonwealth Games held?

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Canada

The first Commonwealth Games were held in Canada (Hamilton, Ontario) in 1930. At that time, they were known as the British Empire Games . A total of 11 countries participated in the inaugural edition, and about 400 athletes competed in six sports. The idea of these games was to bring together athletes from countries of the British Empire and promote friendship through sports. Over time, the name was changed from British Empire Games to British Commonwealth Games, and later to Commonwealth Games. Hence, the correct answer is Option 1: Canada.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q15. The 3-point line in basketball is drawn at what distance from the basket in international competitions?

  1. (a) 5.75 meters
  2. (b) 6.25 meters
  3. (c) 6.75 meters
  4. (d) 7.25 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6.75 meters

In international basketball competitions governed by FIBA (International Basketball Federation) , the 3-point line is drawn at a distance of 6.75 meters (22 feet 1.75 inches) from the basket. This distance was standardized in 2010 by FIBA for consistency in international play. In contrast, the NBA (National Basketball Association) in the United States uses a slightly longer 3-point distance of 7.24 meters (23 feet 9 inches) . Therefore, for international matches, the correct answer is 6.75 meters .
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q16. In May 2024, India signed a long-term agreement for the operation of Chabahar Port. What is the duration of this agreement?

  1. (a) 99 years
  2. (b) 5 years
  3. (c) 20 years
  4. (d) 10 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 10 years

In May 2024 , India signed a historic long-term agreement with Iran for the operation of the Chabahar Port , which is strategically significant for India’s connectivity to Afghanistan and Central Asia while bypassing Pakistan. The agreement was signed for a period of 10 years , marking the first long-term arrangement for India at this port. Earlier, India was managing the port through short-term contracts. This new 10-year agreement provides India with a more stable and secure presence at Chabahar.
Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q17. Under which ministry does the National Productivity Council operate?

  1. (a) Ministry of Education
  2. (b) Ministry of Agriculture
  3. (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  4. (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

The National Productivity Council (NPC) operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India . It is an autonomous organization established in 1958 to promote productivity culture in India. The NPC works in collaboration with industries, government departments, and international organizations to improve productivity, quality, and competitiveness. It also represents India in the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) .

Ancient History (3)

Post-Gupta Period · Nalanda and ancient universities

Q18. Which Pala ruler is known for founding the great Buddhist university at Vikramashila?

  1. (a) Dharmapala
  2. (b) Gopala I
  3. (c) Devapala
  4. (d) Mahipala I
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dharmapala

The correct answer is Dharmapala . He was the second ruler of the Pala dynasty (c. 770–810 CE), succeeding Gopala I. Dharmapala not only expanded the Pala Empire to a great extent but also became a significant patron of Buddhism. To strengthen Buddhist learning and culture, he established the Vikramashila University on the banks of the Ganga river in present-day Bhagalpur district, Bihar. Along with Nalanda, Odantapuri, and Somapura Mahavihara, Vikramashila became one of the five great centres of Buddhist learning in ancient India. Vikramashila was particularly famous for Tantric Buddhism (Vajrayana) studies, attracting students from Tibet, Nepal, and other parts of Asia. Dharmapala also patronized many Buddhist scholars like Haribhadra and Santarakshita. His reign marked a golden phase in the cultural and educational history of India.
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q19. Consider the following statements about Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves:
1. These caves are near Bhubaneswar and were meant for Jain monks.
2. All caves are shaped like flowers and are carved from independent boulders.
3. Each cave has multiple shrines dedicated to different Buddhist deities.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
  3. (c) 2 and 3 Only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 Only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves , located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha , were carved during the reign of Kharavela (1st century BCE) of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. These caves were primarily meant for Jain monks to live and meditate. Among the caves, Udayagiri (Hill of Sunrise) has 18 caves and Khandagiri has 15 caves. The caves contain inscriptions, reliefs, and carvings related to Jainism , including depictions of Tirthankaras. Statement 1 is correct because they were indeed meant for Jain monks. Statement 2 is incorrect because the caves are not flower-shaped; instead, they are rock-cut structures carved into hillsides. Statement 3 is also incorrect because the caves are Jain monuments, not dedicated to Buddhist deities. Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.
Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q20. Which Mauryan ruler is credited with the establishment of the spy system in his empire?

  1. (a) Bindusara
  2. (b) Ashoka
  3. (c) Brihadratha
  4. (d) Chandragupta Maurya
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chandragupta Maurya

The credit for establishing an efficient spy system in the Mauryan Empire goes to Chandragupta Maurya . With the guidance of his chief advisor Chanakya (Kautilya) , Chandragupta created a strong network of spies who helped him in administration, maintaining law and order, and keeping an eye on officials and enemies. The Arthashastra , written by Kautilya, highlights the importance of espionage in governance, and this system became one of the key strengths of the Mauryan administration.

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Kepler's laws and planetary motion

Q21. According to the Law of Periods, the square of a planet’s time period is proportional to:

  1. (a) The cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
  2. (b) The product of its mass and orbital speed
  3. (c) The square root of its orbital radius
  4. (d) The square of its distance from the sun
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit

According to Kepler’s Third Law , also known as the Law of Periods , there is a mathematical relationship between the orbital period of a planet and the size of its orbit. The law states that the square of the orbital period (T²) of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (a³) of its orbit . This means that planets that are farther from the Sun take a much longer time to complete one revolution compared to those closer to the Sun.
Mathematically: T² ∝ a³ Here, T = orbital period of the planet, a = semi-major axis of the planet’s orbit. This law is important because it applies to all planets, moons, and even artificial satellites. For example, Earth takes 1 year to orbit the Sun, whereas Jupiter, being farther away, takes about 12 years, which is consistent with this law. Thus, the correct option is the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit .

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q22. The Battle of Samugarh was fought between Aurangzeb and which Mughal prince?

  1. (a) Jahangir
  2. (b) Dara Shikoh
  3. (c) Murad Baksh
  4. (d) Shah Jahan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dara Shikoh

The Battle of Samugarh was fought on 29 May 1658 near Agra between the Mughal princes during the war of succession after Emperor Shah Jahan fell ill. The two main contenders in this battle were Aurangzeb and his elder brother Dara Shikoh , the eldest son of Shah Jahan. Dara Shikoh, being the crown prince and Shah Jahan’s favourite, commanded a large army but lacked military skills and practical strategy. Aurangzeb, on the other hand, allied with his brother Murad Baksh and proved to be tactically superior. In the battle, Dara was decisively defeated, which paved the way for Aurangzeb to eventually capture Agra, imprison Shah Jahan, and declare himself the emperor in 1658. Thus, the correct answer is: Dara Shikoh (Option 2).

Biology (2)

Biotechnology and Applied Biology · GM crops and Bt cotton

Q23. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of developing Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in agriculture?

  1. (a) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality
  2. (b) To eliminate the need for fertilizers and pesticides entirely
  3. (c) To reduce the cost of manual weeding and irrigation only
  4. (d) To grow crops only in artificial laboratory environments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in agriculture are created by altering the genetic material of crops using modern biotechnology. The primary objective of developing GMOs is to increase crop productivity, make them resistant to pests and diseases, and enhance their nutritional value . For example, Bt cotton was developed to resist bollworm pests, while Golden Rice was engineered to provide higher Vitamin A content to address malnutrition. While GMOs may also reduce dependency on chemical pesticides, fertilizers, and irrigation costs, these are secondary benefits. The main focus remains on ensuring higher yield, better resistance to pests, and improved quality of food to meet the demands of the growing population. Thus, the correct answer is: To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality (Option 1).
Reproduction · Fertilisation, embryo development and pregnancy

Q24. Which of the following correctly represents the chronological order of human development during gestation?

  1. (a) Zygote → Fetus → Embryo
  2. (b) Zygote → Embryo → Fetus
  3. (c) Embryo → Zygote → Fetus
  4. (d) Fetus → Embryo → Zygote
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Zygote → Embryo → Fetus

Human development during gestation follows a specific biological sequence: 1. Zygote: It is formed immediately after the fusion of sperm and egg (fertilisation). It is a single-celled structure that contains the full set of chromosomes. 2. Embryo: After several cell divisions, the zygote develops into an embryo. This stage usually lasts up to the 8th week of pregnancy . In this period, the basic body structures and organs begin to form. 3. Fetus: After the 8th week, the developing human is referred to as a fetus. At this stage, growth and maturation of organs occur, and by birth, the fetus becomes fully developed. Thus, the correct chronological order is: Zygote → Embryo → Fetus (Option 2).

Polity (8)

Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q25. Which constitutional features in India are linked to the Australian Constitution?
A) Freedom of trade and commerce
B) Joint sitting of the two Houses
C) Federal structure with strong Centre
D) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

  1. (a) Only B
  2. (b) Only A
  3. (c) A and C both
  4. (d) A and B both
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A and B both

India borrowed many constitutional features from different countries while framing the Constitution. From the Australian Constitution , two major provisions were adopted:1. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse (Article 301–307): This ensures free trade and commerce throughout the territory of India without unnecessary restrictions, a principle drawn from Australia.2. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament (Article 108): In case of a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, both Houses sit together for a joint session. This practice too is inspired by the Australian parliamentary system.Other features like a federal structure with a strong centre come from Canada, while the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is taken from the Government of India Act, 1935. Thus, the correct answer is: A and B both (Option 4).
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q26. As per Chapter I (Preliminary) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is not applicable under the Act?

  1. (a) Hearings before a District Magistrate
  2. (b) Affidavits submitted before court officer
  3. (c) Trials before Military Court (Court-Martial)
  4. (d) Proceedings before Civil Judge Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Affidavits submitted before court officer

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 and sets out the law relating to admissibility of evidence in judicial proceedings. According to Chapter I, the Act applies to judicial proceedings before courts, hearings before District Magistrates, proceedings before Civil Judges, and trials before Military Courts. However, affidavits submitted before a court officer do not fall under the scope of this Act because they are governed by separate procedural laws such as the Civil Procedure Code. Therefore, they are not treated as evidence unless a specific law provides otherwise. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q27. How did the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 extend the legal abortion framework in India?

  1. (a) Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases
  2. (b) Restricted abortion access only to married women
  3. (c) Allowed termination solely on the discretion of healthcare providers
  4. (d) Made abortion legal for all pregnancies up to 30 weeks
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 was introduced to expand access to safe and legal abortions in India. The most significant change was the extension of the upper gestation limit for termination of pregnancy from 20 weeks to 24 weeks in special categories of women such as survivors of rape, incest victims, differently-abled women, and minors. The Act also emphasized confidentiality, stating that the identity of the woman undergoing abortion cannot be revealed. Importantly, the law also recognized the right of unmarried women to seek abortion on the grounds of contraceptive failure, thus removing the earlier restriction of it being applicable only to married women. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q28. The new criminal laws aim to replace British-era laws with a focus on:

  1. (a) Justice delivery and citizen rights
  2. (b) Political advantages
  3. (c) Religious governance
  4. (d) Corporate laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Justice delivery and citizen rights

The new criminal laws enacted in 2023, namely the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), have been introduced to replace colonial-era legislations like the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act. The main focus of these new laws is to strengthen justice delivery, safeguard citizen rights, and ensure speedy trials . They emphasize victim-centric justice, use of modern technology such as electronic evidence, and stricter provisions against crimes like mob lynching, organized crime, and crimes against women and children. Unlike the British laws which were designed to maintain control over the population, the new framework aims to prioritize citizens’ rights and deliver justice more efficiently. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q29. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Land and agriculture fall under the State List.
Statement II: Marriage laws and adoption fall under the Concurrent List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement II is correct
  2. (b) Neither statement I nor II is correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are correct
  4. (d) Only Statement I is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements I and II are correct

In the Indian Constitution, the Seventh Schedule distributes powers between the Union and State legislatures through three lists – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Land and agriculture are subjects that fall under the State List , which means states have the authority to legislate on these matters. On the other hand, marriage, divorce, adoption, succession, and other personal laws are included in the Concurrent List , where both the Centre and the States can make laws. However, in case of conflict, the Union law prevails. Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Parliament · Speaker and Deputy Speaker

Q30. What is the role of the Speaker in case of a tied vote in the Lok Sabha election?

  1. (a) Decides based on personal preference
  2. (b) Votes to break the tie
  3. (c) Does not participate
  4. (d) Refers the decision to the President
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Votes to break the tie

In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker normally does not vote in the first instance. However, in case of a tie (equal number of votes in favour and against a motion) , the Speaker exercises the casting vote . This power is provided under Article 100 of the Constitution of India . The casting vote is used to break the deadlock and maintain the smooth functioning of the House. The Speaker’s decision in such cases is considered final and binding. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2: Votes to break the tie.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q31. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the extent of executive power of the Union?

  1. (a) Article 75
  2. (b) Article 52
  3. (c) Article 73
  4. (d) Article 78
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 73

The extent of the executive power of the Union is dealt with in Article 73 of the Indian Constitution. According to this Article, the executive power of the Union extends to matters on which Parliament has the power to make laws and to the exercise of such rights, authority, and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the Government of India under any treaty or agreement. Article 73 thus defines the scope and boundaries of the Union’s executive authority. The other Articles mentioned are related but different: Article 52 establishes the office of the President, Article 75 deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers, and Article 78 deals with the duties of the Prime Minister regarding communication with the President. Hence, the correct answer is Article 73 .
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q32. Which article provides for the appointment of Governors in India?

  1. (a) Article 154
  2. (b) Article 155
  3. (c) Article 168
  4. (d) Article 170
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 155

The provision for the appointment of Governors in the states of India is contained in Article 155 of the Constitution. According to this Article, “The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.” Article 154, on the other hand, deals with the executive power of the State, Article 168 deals with the constitution of State Legislatures, and Article 170 deals with the composition of the Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, the correct answer is Article 155 .

Geography (8)

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q33. Which of the following statements best explains why certain regions exhibit high population density?

  1. (a) Regions with limited natural resources tend to have Areas with scarce natural resources have higher population concentrations because of greater competition for few materials.
  2. (b) High population density is predominantly found in areas with poor infrastructure and limited access to essential services.
  3. (c) Regions offering fertile land, favorable climates, abundant natural resources, and robust economic opportunities are more likely to have high population densities.
  4. (d) Areas characterized by mountainous terrain and arid climates often support dense populations because of their challenging living conditions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Regions offering fertile land, favorable climates, abundant natural resources, and robust economic opportunities are more likely to have high population densities.

The regions that have fertile land, favorable climate, abundant natural resources and good economic opportunities usually attract a large number of people. Fertile soil ensures continuous agricultural production, favorable climate makes living conditions comfortable, abundant resources support industries and livelihoods, and economic opportunities generate employment. These combined advantages result in higher population density. For example, the Indo-Gangetic plain in India, the Nile valley in Egypt and the Yangtze basin in China are some of the most densely populated regions of the world. On the other hand, deserts, mountains and extreme climate regions remain sparsely populated due to harsh living conditions. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
Universe and Solar System · Earth - shape, size and motions

Q34. If a person view the Earth from above the North Pole, he will observe that the Earth rotates in:

  1. (a) No rotation
  2. (b) Random spin
  3. (c) Anti-clockwise
  4. (d) Clockwise
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anti-clockwise

The Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours, causing day and night. When viewed from above the North Pole, the direction of Earth’s rotation appears to be anti-clockwise (counter-clockwise) . This rotation is from west to east, which is why the Sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west. If someone views the Earth from above the South Pole, the rotation would appear as clockwise, but from the North Pole it is clearly anti-clockwise. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q35. The Western Coastal Plains are narrower compared to the Eastern Coastal Plains because:

  1. (a) They receive less rainfall
  2. (b) They are less populated comparatively
  3. (c) They are older in formation
  4. (d) They are bordered by the Western Ghats
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They are bordered by the Western Ghats

The Western Coastal Plains lie between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats. Since the Western Ghats are located very close to the coast, the plains in this region remain narrow in width, varying roughly between 50 to 100 km. In contrast, the Eastern Coastal Plains, lying between the Bay of Bengal and the Eastern Ghats, are much broader because the Eastern Ghats lie farther inland, leaving a wider stretch of lowlands. Therefore, the narrowness of the Western Coastal Plains is directly due to their proximity and bordering by the Western Ghats. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environment and climate schemes and missions

Q36. Which government scheme aims to phase out unfit and polluting vehicles from India’s roads to reduce emissions and boost automotive industry recycling?

  1. (a) National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Sadak Yojana
  3. (c) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme
  4. (d) Smart City Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme

The Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme (VVMP) , also known as the Vehicle Scrappage Policy, was launched by the Government of India to phase out old, unfit, and polluting vehicles from Indian roads. The main objectives are to reduce vehicular air pollution, improve road safety, and encourage the recycling of materials from old vehicles, which in turn will boost the automotive and steel industries. Under this programme, private vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than 15 years that fail fitness and emission tests are to be scrapped. Owners are incentivized with benefits like tax rebates and discounts on new vehicle purchases. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil erosion and conservation

Q37. Read the given below statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Chambal River is known for its badland topography called the Chambal ravines.
Reason (R): The Chambal flows through a deep gorge and eroded terrain before joining the Yamuna.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) A is true, but R is false.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The Chambal River, a tributary of the Yamuna, is particularly famous for its badland topography , which is locally known as the Chambal ravines. These ravines are formed due to continuous erosion by water and wind over time, creating deep gullies and rugged terrain. The reason behind this badland development is that the Chambal flows through a deeply eroded region before joining the Yamuna. This erosion process explains why the Chambal basin is characterized by ravines and badland topography. Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and R correctly explains A. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q38. In which decade did India experience a negative growth rate in population?

  1. (a) 1901–1911
  2. (b) 1911–1921
  3. (c) 1931–1941
  4. (d) 2001–2011
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1911–1921

India’s population growth has generally been positive across all census decades, except for 1911–1921 , which is historically known as the “ Decade of Great Demographic Disaster .” During this period, India witnessed a negative growth rate of –0.31% . The main reasons were widespread epidemics like the 1918 influenza pandemic , which killed millions, coupled with famines, poverty, and the aftermath of World War I. This was the only decade in Indian census history when the population actually declined instead of growing. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2: 1911–1921.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q39. Name the state which is the largest producer of lignite coal?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

The largest producer of lignite coal in India is Tamil Nadu . The Neyveli Lignite Corporation (NLC), located in Tamil Nadu, plays a major role in the production and utilization of lignite coal. Tamil Nadu has extensive lignite reserves, especially in the Neyveli mines , which are among the largest in Asia. Lignite is often referred to as “brown coal” and is used mainly for power generation. Other states like Rajasthan and Gujarat also produce lignite, but Tamil Nadu remains the leading state due to its huge reserves and mining capacity. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4: Tamil Nadu.
Universe and Solar System · Eclipses, seasons, day and night

Q40. Consider the following statements:
1. A solar eclipse – The Moon casts a shadow on Earth when it comes between the Sun and Earth.
2. A lunar eclipse – During the new moon phase, the Moon passes through the Earth’s shadow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2
  3. (c) 2 only
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 only

The correct statement is 1 only . A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth , casting its shadow on Earth, which makes the Sun partially or completely invisible from certain areas. On the other hand, the description of lunar eclipse in statement 2 is wrong. A lunar eclipse occurs not during the new moon, but during the full moon phase , when the Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, causing the Moon to pass through Earth’s shadow. Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Modern History (2)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q41. Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Thiru K. Kamaraj on his birth anniversary. He is remembered for his contributions to which of the following areas?

  1. (a) Literature and environmental reforms
  2. (b) Industrialization and foreign policy
  3. (c) Freedom struggle and social welfare governance
  4. (d) Trade liberalization and digital governance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Freedom struggle and social welfare governance

Thiru K. Kamaraj, popularly known as the “Kingmaker” in Indian politics, was a veteran freedom fighter and a respected statesman from Tamil Nadu. He actively participated in India’s freedom struggle and went to jail several times during the independence movement. After independence, as the Chief Minister of Madras State (now Tamil Nadu), he is remembered for his remarkable social welfare governance, especially in the field of education. He introduced the Midday Meal Scheme to ensure that poor children attended school and focused on expanding schools to rural areas. His contributions laid the foundation for Tamil Nadu’s high literacy rate. Because of his simple lifestyle and dedication to public welfare, he is also admired as a model leader. Therefore, he is remembered primarily for his role in the freedom struggle and social welfare governance , which matches Option 3.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Anglo-French rivalry and Carnatic wars

Q42. Which of the following best captures the broader geopolitical shift triggered by the decisive defeat of the Nawab of Carnatic’s forces in their confrontation with European powers?

  1. (a) It revealed systemic vulnerabilities in native military structures, prompting European companies to transition from trade to political hegemony.
  2. (b) It disillusioned European companies, resulting in a strategic withdrawal from inland military affairs.
  3. (c) It consolidated indigenous authority, forcing European traders into commercial treaties under local oversight.
  4. (d) It established a stable dual-administrative system between Indian principalities and foreign chartered companies.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It revealed systemic vulnerabilities in native military structures, prompting European companies to transition from trade to political hegemony.

The decisive defeat of the Nawab of Carnatic’s forces in their confrontation with European powers revealed the deep weaknesses in the indigenous Indian military system compared to the modernized and disciplined European armies. This turning point demonstrated that traditional Indian rulers could no longer rely solely on their older military structures to challenge European companies. As a result, the European trading companies, especially the British East India Company, began shifting from being mere commercial entities to establishing political and military dominance in India. This marked the beginning of a significant geopolitical transformation where trade slowly gave way to colonial control. Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Current Affairs (2)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q43. How can NISAR provide valuable information for understanding the relationship between fluid injection and earthquake?

  1. (a) By monitoring water table levels
  2. (b) By analyzing satellite imagery of earthquake damage
  3. (c) By tracking changes in ground surface elevation associated with pumping and injection
  4. (d) By measuring seismic activity in real time
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By tracking changes in ground surface elevation associated with pumping and injection

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth-observing satellite mission between NASA and ISRO designed to monitor changes on the Earth’s surface with high precision. One of its major uses is in tracking ground deformation. When fluids such as water, oil, or gas are injected into or withdrawn from underground reservoirs, the surface elevation of the ground can change. These changes are very subtle but can be detected by NISAR’s radar imaging technology. Such monitoring is crucial for understanding how fluid injection or extraction activities may induce seismicity, i.e., cause earthquakes. Hence, NISAR provides valuable insights into the connection between fluid injection and earthquakes by tracking ground surface elevation changes, making Option 3 correct.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q44. What makes Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi's contributions in Atomic Energy distinct from conventional research output, as per his Vigyan Shri citation ?

  1. (a) Strategic innovation in both materials and process R&D
  2. (b) Advances in isotopic separation only
  3. (c) Discovery of a new radioactive element
  4. (d) Development of radiation therapy devices
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Strategic innovation in both materials and process R&D

Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi has been recognized for his pioneering work in the field of Atomic Energy which goes beyond conventional academic research. According to his Vigyan Shri citation, his contributions stand out because of strategic innovations in both materials and process research and development (R&D) . This means he not only focused on developing advanced nuclear materials but also on innovating the processes through which these materials are designed, tested, and implemented in nuclear energy applications. Such dual emphasis on materials and processes has strengthened India’s self-reliance and technological capability in atomic energy, making his work distinct from standard research output. Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Chemistry (1)

Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q45. Which of Rutherford’s experimental observations led him to conclude that the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a very small region?

  1. (a) A very small fraction of α-particles rebounded almost backwards.
  2. (b) Most α-particles followed a straight path through the gold foil.
  3. (c) A small fraction of α-particles were deflected by small angles.
  4. (d) Electrons were found to orbit the nucleus in specific energy levels.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A very small fraction of α-particles rebounded almost backwards.

In Rutherford’s famous gold foil experiment, he observed that most α-particles passed through the foil without deflection , but a very small fraction of them rebounded almost backwards . This unexpected result indicated that the positive charge and most of the mass of the atom are concentrated in a very tiny central region called the nucleus , while the rest of the atom is mostly empty space. This discovery overturned the plum pudding model of the atom and led to the nuclear model of the atom.
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