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SSC Stenographer 2025 7 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 7 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Static GK, Polity, Geography, Physics, Economics.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 7 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (4) · Static GK (12) · Polity (8) · Geography (4) · Physics (2) · Economics (9) · Biology (1) · Modern History (2) · Current Affairs (1) · Chemistry (1)

Medieval History (4)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate architecture

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the regional features of Gujarat’s medieval architecture?
Architectural forms in Gujarat often incorporated elements from local temple traditions.
Structures such as mosques and tombs in Gujarat featured ornamental carvings like toranas and bell motifs.
Gujarat’s architectural style strictly avoided any decorative influence from indigenous practices.

  1. (a) 2 and 3 Only
  2. (b) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 Only
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 Only

Gujarat’s medieval architecture often displayed a strong regional synthesis of indigenous and Islamic elements. (1) Local temple traditions did influence the design of many secular and religious structures. (2) Mosques and tombs frequently featured ornamental carvings such as toranas and bell motifs , which were drawn from temple architecture. (3) However, it is incorrect to say that Gujarat’s architectural style avoided decorative influence — in fact, it incorporated and celebrated such motifs. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct .
Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q2. Which Mughal emperor did Maharana Pratap face in the Battle of Haldighati ?

  1. (a) Aurangzeb
  2. (b) Babur
  3. (c) Akbar
  4. (d) Jahangir
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Akbar

Maharana Pratap faced the Mughal emperor Akbar in the Battle of Haldighati (1576) . The battle was fought between the forces of Maharana Pratap led by him and the Mughal army led by Raja Man Singh of Amber, a general of Akbar. Though the battle was fierce, it ended inconclusively, but it showed Maharana Pratap’s determination to resist Mughal dominance.
South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q3. Which Chola ruler is credited with the construction of irrigation systems to support agriculture?

  1. (a) Raja Raja Chola I
  2. (b) Rajendra Chola I
  3. (c) Kulottunga Chola I
  4. (d) Aditya Chola I
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajendra Chola I

The correct answer is option 2, Rajendra Chola I. He is credited with significant efforts in expanding irrigation facilities to support agriculture during the Chola period. Rajendra Chola I built a number of tanks, reservoirs, and canals to ensure water supply for cultivation. His reign is marked by an emphasis on agricultural prosperity, which in turn strengthened the economic base of the Chola Empire. While Raja Raja Chola I was a great conqueror and builder of temples, Rajendra Chola I is more specifically remembered for his irrigation works and water management systems that helped sustain large-scale agriculture.
Marathas · Shivaji - life and conquests

Q4. Which Maratha ruler founded the Maratha Empire in 1674, proclaiming himself Chhatrapati?

  1. (a) Shahu
  2. (b) Shivaji
  3. (c) Bajirao I
  4. (d) Sambhaji
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shivaji

The correct answer is option 2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj founded the Maratha Empire in 1674 when he was formally crowned at Raigad fort and assumed the title of Chhatrapati . He built a strong and independent Maratha kingdom by resisting Mughal domination and uniting the Marathas under his leadership. His administration was based on efficient revenue collection, naval power, and a disciplined army. Shivaji also promoted religious tolerance, protected farmers, and encouraged trade, making the Maratha Empire a formidable force in 17th-century India.

Static GK (12)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q5. Consider the following statements about the Trinity of Carnatic Music and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama Shastri lived during the 17th century.
Statement 2: The trinity elevated the kriti form to its highest artistic expression.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

The Trinity of Carnatic Music refers to Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama Shastri , who are regarded as the greatest composers of Carnatic music. They did not belong to the 17th century but to the 18th–19th centuries (Tyagaraja: 1767–1847, Dikshitar: 1775–1835, Shyama Shastri: 1762–1827). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect. However, it is true that the Trinity developed and elevated the kriti form of Carnatic music, giving it its highest artistic and devotional expression. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Space, Defence and Technology · International space missions and agencies

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) is correct?

  1. (a) It is managed entirely by the European Space Agency.
  2. (b) It focuses solely on detecting visible light.
  3. (c) It will consist of a single telescope in India.
  4. (d) It aims to explore cosmic magnetism and dark matter.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It aims to explore cosmic magnetism and dark matter.

The Square Kilometer Array (SKA) is an international radio telescope project and not managed only by the European Space Agency. It is designed to be built in South Africa and Australia , not as a single telescope in India. It does not focus solely on visible light but on radio waves to study the universe. Its primary aim is to explore cosmic magnetism, dark matter, the formation of the first stars and galaxies, and the large-scale structure of the universe . Hence, only statement 4 is correct.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q7. What is the radius of the striking or shooting circle in hockey?

  1. (a) 6.475 meters
  2. (b) 14.63 meters
  3. (c) 16.78 meters
  4. (d) 13.2 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 14.63 meters

In field hockey, the striking (shooting) circle—often called the “ D ”—is an arc drawn with a radius of 14.63 m , which is exactly 16 yards in imperial units. It is measured from the inner edge of each goal post to form two quarter-circles joined by straight lines. A goal counts only if the ball is touched by an attacker from within this circle . Hence, the correct answer is 14.63 meters .
Space, Defence and Technology · Missiles and weapon systems

Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Ramjets operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds.
2. Dual Mode Ramjets can work in both subsonic and supersonic modes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 1 only
  4. (d) Both 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because Ramjets operate efficiently at supersonic speeds (Mach 3 to Mach 6) , but not at hypersonic speeds (above Mach 6). At hypersonic speeds, Scramjets (Supersonic Combustion Ramjets) are efficient. Statement 2 is correct because Dual-Mode Ramjets (DMRJ) can operate in subsonic combustion mode at lower supersonic speeds and shift to supersonic combustion mode at hypersonic speeds . Hence, the correct answer is 2 only .
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q9. What strategic rationale drives India’s investment in Iran’s Chabahar Port?

  1. (a) To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan
  2. (b) To build naval bases in Iran
  3. (c) To import natural gas from Saudi Arabia
  4. (d) To monitor US naval operations
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan

India’s investment in Chabahar Port is primarily strategic. It allows India to bypass Pakistan and gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia for trade and connectivity. This enhances India’s regional influence and supports projects like the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) . The other options (building naval bases, importing gas from Saudi Arabia, monitoring US operations) are not the main rationale.
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q10. Where was the Khelo India University Games 2024 held?

  1. (a) Panaji, Goa
  2. (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  4. (d) Guwahati, Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Guwahati, Assam

The Khelo India University Games 2024 were held in Guwahati, Assam . It was the 4th edition of the games and the first time the event was hosted in the North-East region of India. This highlighted the government’s initiative to promote sports culture across the country, especially in the North-Eastern states which have produced many international athletes.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q11. Which dance form is traditionally associated with the culture of Punjab?

  1. (a) Kuchipudi
  2. (b) Yakshagana
  3. (c) Bhangra
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bhangra

The correct answer is Bhangra , which is the traditional and most popular folk dance of Punjab. It is performed especially during the harvest festival of Baisakhi and reflects the energy, enthusiasm, and agrarian lifestyle of Punjabi culture. Kuchipudi is from Andhra Pradesh, Yakshagana is from Karnataka, and Mohiniyattam is from Kerala — hence they are incorrect in this context.
Sports · Cricket

Q12. What does the term "Duckworth-Lewis Method" relate to in cricket?

  1. (a) Bowling speed calculation
  2. (b) Fielding restrictions
  3. (c) Player ranking system
  4. (d) Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches

The Duckworth-Lewis (D/L) Method is a mathematical formula used in limited-overs cricket to calculate the revised target score for the team batting second in case the match is interrupted due to rain or other conditions. It balances resources like overs left and wickets in hand.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q13. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is often viewed as a strategic counter-initiative to which other major global connectivity projects?

  1. (a) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)
  2. (b) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
  3. (c) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
  4. (d) Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)

The correct answer is option 1. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced during the G20 Summit in 2023, is seen as a major strategic counter to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). The IMEC aims to connect India with Europe through the Middle East via shipping routes, railways, and digital as well as energy infrastructure. Unlike the BRI, which has often been criticised for debt traps and lack of transparency, IMEC is projected as a more sustainable and collaborative model of connectivity involving India, the US, the European Union, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, and other partners. It reflects India’s growing role in providing alternative infrastructure and connectivity solutions in the global order.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q14. Which of the following is true about the Gudi Padwa festival?
1. It marks the beginning of the Hindu New Year based on the lunisolar calendar.
2. The term Gudi refers to a sacred scripture recited on this day.
3. Traditionally, celebrations begin with the consumption of sweets for good luck.

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1

The correct answer is option 4. Gudi Padwa is a major festival celebrated in Maharashtra and some other parts of India. It marks the beginning of the Hindu New Year according to the lunisolar calendar, which usually falls in March or April. The word "Gudi" does not refer to a scripture but to a decorated flag or emblem raised outside homes, symbolising victory and prosperity. While sweets are prepared and shared during the festival, the traditional practice specifically begins with eating neem leaves mixed with jaggery, symbolising a balance of bitter and sweet experiences in life, not with sweets alone. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q15. Who was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature for Geetanjali ?

  1. (a) Arundhati Roy
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) R. K. Narayan
  4. (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rabindranath Tagore

The correct answer is option 4. Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his collection of poems titled Geetanjali (Song Offerings). He was awarded for his profoundly sensitive, fresh, and beautiful verse, which introduced Indian literature to the Western world. Tagore not only became the first Indian but also the first Asian to win a Nobel Prize in Literature, making it a historic achievement. His writings emphasized humanism, universalism, and spirituality, and his contribution to literature, music, and education made him one of the greatest cultural icons of India.
Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q16. Shobhana Ranade’s legacy as a Gandhian is most closely aligned with which contemporary governance initiative?

  1. (a) Startup India
  2. (b) National Education Policy 2020
  3. (c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
  4. (d) Gaganyaan Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

The correct answer is option 3. Shobhana Ranade, a devoted Gandhian, dedicated her life to social service, women empowerment, rural upliftment, and promotion of cleanliness and sanitation in society, inspired by Gandhiji’s ideals of truth and non-violence. Her legacy resonates strongly with the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan , a flagship programme launched in 2014 by the Government of India to achieve universal sanitation and cleanliness. Just as Mahatma Gandhi emphasised cleanliness as a vital part of independence and self-respect, Shobhana Ranade’s contributions in promoting hygiene, simplicity, and community well-being are aligned with the goals of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

Polity (8)

Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q17. Which body has the power to amend the Union and State power distribution under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Supreme Court
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Lok Sabha
  4. (d) State Legislature
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament

The power to amend the distribution of powers between the Union and the States under the Indian Constitution rests exclusively with the Parliament of India . According to Article 368 , Parliament can amend the Constitution, including provisions dealing with Union-State relations. However, in cases involving federal provisions (such as the distribution of legislative powers), amendments must also be ratified by at least half of the State Legislatures. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review but cannot amend the Constitution. Therefore, the correct answer is Parliament .
Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q18. Who among the following is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) The President of India
  2. (b) The Parliament
  3. (c) The Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) The Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Supreme Court of India

The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution. It has the ultimate authority to decide constitutional disputes, review laws, and protect the fundamental rights of citizens. Neither the President nor the Parliament can overrule its constitutional interpretation.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Lokpal and Lokayukta

Q19. Which of the following accurately describes the statutory responsibilities of the Lokpal under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 ?

  1. (a) The Lokpal is a constitutional body tasked with making final judgments in corruption cases
  2. (b) The Lokpal operates under the direct administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office
  3. (c) The Lokpal is mandated to provide the President with an annual report, which will be laid before both Houses of Parliament
  4. (d) The Lokpal must submit regular reports to the Election Commission for public disclosure
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Lokpal is mandated to provide the President with an annual report, which will be laid before both Houses of Parliament

The correct answer is option 3. The Lokpal is a statutory (not constitutional) body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. It does not make final judgments in corruption cases, but inquires into complaints of corruption against public officials and refers them to competent authorities for further action. The Lokpal is independent and not under the control of the Prime Minister’s Office. According to the Act, the Lokpal must present an annual report to the President, who lays it before both Houses of Parliament.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. All-India Services common to Union & states.
2. Controlled by state governments only.
Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 1

The correct answer is option 4. All-India Services such as the IAS, IPS and IFS are services that are common to both the Union and the states. Officers of these services are recruited and trained by the Union Government but are allocated to various states to serve under the respective state governments. This ensures uniformity in administration and strengthens the unity of the federal system. Hence, statement 1 is correct. However, these services are not controlled solely by the states, as the Union Government plays a crucial role in their recruitment, cadre allocation, training, service conditions and disciplinary matters. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q21. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India?

  1. (a) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
  2. (b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  3. (c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  4. (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002

The correct answer is option 4. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India by inserting Article 21-A in the Constitution. This Article provides free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years as a Fundamental Right. The Act also modified Article 45, directing the State to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years, and amended Article 51A to add a new fundamental duty of parents and guardians to ensure opportunities for education to their children. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 was later enacted to give effect to this constitutional provision.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, what is the punishment for mob lynching?

  1. (a) House arrest
  2. (b) No punishment
  3. (c) Fine only
  4. (d) Life imprisonment or death penalty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Life imprisonment or death penalty

The correct answer is option 4. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 has specifically recognised mob lynching as a punishable offence. According to the provisions, if a mob commits murder based on race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the punishment prescribed is life imprisonment or death penalty, along with a fine. This inclusion was made to address rising incidents of mob violence and to strengthen the justice system by making the punishment as severe as murder under the Indian Penal Code. It reflects the seriousness with which the legislature treats mob lynching, placing it on par with the gravest criminal acts.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q23. Under Chapter V of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following qualifies as primary evidence?

  1. (a) A typed copy of the original document
  2. (b) A handwritten summary prepared later
  3. (c) A photocopy of the document signed by a clerk
  4. (d) A counterpart document executed by one of the parties
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A counterpart document executed by one of the parties

The correct answer is option 4. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 , primary evidence refers to the original document itself or any part of it produced for the inspection of the court. In situations where a document is executed in multiple parts, each part signed by the parties is considered primary evidence. Similarly, if the document exists in counterparts, each counterpart executed by one party is regarded as primary evidence against that party. Thus, a counterpart document executed by one of the parties qualifies as primary evidence, whereas typed copies, handwritten summaries, or photocopies are only considered secondary evidence unless authenticated under specific conditions.
Amendments and Important Articles · Basic structure doctrine

Q24. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of constitutional interpretation and judicial doctrine?

  1. (a) The Constitution of India clearly defines the term "basic structure" under Article 368.
  2. (b) The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution.
  3. (c) The Parliament can propose amendments that repeal judicial principles without limitation.
  4. (d) The Judiciary rejected the idea of spirit-based interpretation and strictly follows the written text.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution.

The correct answer is option 2. The "basic structure doctrine" is not defined anywhere in the Constitution of India, including Article 368. Instead, it was evolved by the Supreme Court in the historic Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) case. According to this doctrine, while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its "basic structure" or essential features such as the supremacy of the Constitution, rule of law, judicial review, separation of powers, and fundamental rights. This doctrine was developed to ensure that the balance of democracy, liberty, and justice enshrined in the Constitution remains intact, and to prevent misuse of amendment powers by the legislature.

Geography (4)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q25. Consider the following characteristics:
1. High moisture-retaining capacity, often developing deep cracks during dry hot weather.
2. Ideal for tea and apple cultivation due to high fertility and cold climate preference.
3. Rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina, but poor in phosphoric contents.
Which of the above characteristics are primarily associated with Black Soils?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) Only 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3

Black soils, also called Regur soils, are typically known for their high moisture-retaining capacity (statement 1) and for being rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina, but poor in phosphoric acid (statement 3). These properties make them highly suitable for cotton cultivation, which is why they are also called "Cotton Soils." However, they are not suitable for tea and apple cultivation , which require acidic soils and cooler climates (hence, statement 2 is incorrect). Thus, the correct answer is Only 1 and 3.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q26. The highest rainfall in India gets recorded in the Khasi and Jaintia Hills. In which state will you find these hills?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Nagaland
  3. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Meghalaya

The correct answer is option 4. The Khasi and Jaintia Hills are located in the state of Meghalaya. This region is world-famous for receiving the highest rainfall, with places like Mawsynram and Cherrapunji consistently recording record-breaking rainfall each year. The unique topography of the hills, combined with the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal, results in extremely heavy precipitation. This makes Meghalaya one of the wettest regions not only in India but also in the world.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q27. Name the major coal producing region located in Telangana state?

  1. (a) Singareni Coalfield
  2. (b) Raniganj Coalfield
  3. (c) Talcher Coalfield
  4. (d) Jharia Coalfield
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Singareni Coalfield

The correct answer is option 1. The Singareni Coalfield, located in Telangana, is one of the oldest and most important coal-producing regions in South India. It is operated by Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) , a government-owned company jointly managed by the Government of Telangana and the Government of India. The coal produced here is mainly of non-coking type and is widely used for power generation, cement, and other industries. The Singareni coal mines have played a crucial role in the industrial development of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. In contrast, Raniganj is located in West Bengal, Talcher in Odisha, and Jharia in Jharkhand.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental movements of India

Q28. Which of the following methods was used by the villagers during the Chipko Movement?

  1. (a) Burning forest areas
  2. (b) Violent protests
  3. (c) Filing lawsuits against companies
  4. (d) Hugging trees to prevent cutting
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hugging trees to prevent cutting

The correct answer is option 4. The Chipko Movement, which began in the 1970s in Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh), is one of the most famous environmental movements in India. Villagers, especially women, used the method of hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down by contractors. This peaceful, non-violent form of protest drew global attention to issues of deforestation, ecological balance, and the rights of local communities over natural resources. The movement was inspired by Gandhian methods of non-violent resistance and became a symbol of grassroots environmental activism in India.

Physics (2)

Force and Laws of Motion · Impulse

Q29. Why does a skilled cricketer move his hands backwards while catching a fast-moving ball?

  1. (a) To increase the speed of the ball during impact.
  2. (b) To apply a greater opposing force on the ball for a quick stop.
  3. (c) To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.
  4. (d) To decrease the weight of the ball using gravity.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.

When a cricketer catches a fast-moving ball, the ball has high momentum. If the hands are kept stiff, the momentum changes suddenly, producing a large force which can hurt the hands. By moving the hands backwards, the time taken to stop the ball increases. Since Force = Change in Momentum / Time , increasing the time reduces the force. Hence, the impact on the hands becomes less painful.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q30. An electric kettle is rated 2.2 kW, 220 V. If the cost of electricity is ₹4 per unit (kWh), what is the cost of boiling water for 30 minutes?

  1. (a) ₹8.8
  2. (b) ₹4.4
  3. (c) ₹2.2
  4. (d) ₹1.1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹4.4

Power = 2.2 kW. Time = 30 min = 0.5 h. Energy used = 2.2 × 0.5 = 1.1 kWh (units) . Cost = 1.1 × ₹4 = ₹4.4 → Option 2.

Economics (9)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q31. What is the main focus of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme launched in 2015?

  1. (a) Girl child survival & education
  2. (b) Housing for women
  3. (c) Promoting rural entrepreneurship
  4. (d) Financial inclusion for widows
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Girl child survival & education

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme was launched in 2015 to address the declining child sex ratio and to ensure survival, protection, and education of the girl child . It focuses on gender equality and aims to spread awareness about the importance of girls’ education. Hence, the main focus is girl child survival and education .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q32. How often is the World Happiness Report released?

  1. (a) Quarterly
  2. (b) Triennially
  3. (c) Biennially
  4. (d) Annually
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Annually

The World Happiness Report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UN-SDSN). It ranks countries based on factors such as GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption levels . Hence, it is released once every year .
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q33. What is the role of the finance minister under the FRBM Act?

  1. (a) To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament
  2. (b) To regulate the stock market
  3. (c) To manage foreign trade policies
  4. (d) To oversee disinvestment strategies
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament

Under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 , the Finance Minister is required to present three important fiscal policy statements to Parliament every year : (a) Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, (b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and (c) Macro-Economic Framework Statement. These statements ensure transparency, accountability, and fiscal discipline in the government’s financial management. The main objective is to reduce fiscal deficit and ensure long-term economic stability.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q34. Which curve is typically U-shaped due to the law of variable proportions?

  1. (a) Total Fixed Cost Curve
  2. (b) Average Fixed Cost Curve
  3. (c) Average Variable Cost Curve
  4. (d) Marginal Revenue Curve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Average Variable Cost Curve

The Average Variable Cost (AVC) Curve is typically U-shaped due to the law of variable proportions . Initially, as variable inputs are added, efficiency increases and AVC falls. But after a certain point, diminishing returns set in, causing AVC to rise again, hence forming a U-shape . Other curves like the Total Fixed Cost remain constant, Average Fixed Cost declines continuously, and Marginal Revenue Curve is not related to variable proportions.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q35. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 aimed to promote private sector dominance in all key industries.
Statement II: The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 classified industries into three categories: fully government-owned, mixed sector with government lead, and private sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
  2. (b) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are incorrect
  4. (d) Both statements I and II are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct

Statement I is incorrect because the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was not about private sector dominance; instead, it emphasised the expansion of the public sector in strategic industries. Statement II is correct as the resolution classified industries into three categories: ( i ) Schedule A – exclusive responsibility of the State, (ii) Schedule B – progressively State-owned but with private participation, (iii) Schedule C – private sector with government regulation.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q36. What does a high rank in the Henley Passport Index indicate?

  1. (a) Greater visa-free or visa-on-arrival access for citizens
  2. (b) High economic power
  3. (c) Strong military alliances provided to citizens
  4. (d) Political neutrality
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Greater visa-free or visa-on-arrival access for citizens

A higher rank in the Henley Passport Index means that the citizens of that country enjoy greater visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to more destinations worldwide. It is a measure of passport strength in terms of travel freedom, not necessarily economic or military power.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · WTO

Q37. What role did the WTO membership (1995) play in India’s post-reform globalization strategy?

  1. (a) Strengthened balance of payments
  2. (b) Deepened India’s integration into global trade
  3. (c) Abolished domestic subsidies completely
  4. (d) Encouraged protective tariffs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Deepened India’s integration into global trade

The correct answer is option 2. India’s membership in the WTO in 1995 was a key step in its globalization strategy after the 1991 reforms. It facilitated India’s deeper integration into the global trading system by committing to multilateral trade rules, reducing tariffs, liberalising trade policies, and opening up markets.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q38. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The objective of "Growth with Social Justice & Equality" was introduced in the 10th Five-Year Plan.
Statement II: The first Five-Year Plan was based on the "Harrod-Domar model".
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
  2. (b) Both statements I and II are correct
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are incorrect
  4. (d) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct

The correct answer is option 4. Statement I is incorrect because the concept of "Growth with Social Justice and Equality" was not introduced in the 10th Five-Year Plan, but rather emphasised in later stages, particularly in the 11th Plan (2007–2012), which focused on “Inclusive Growth.” The 10th Plan (2002–2007) had the objective of achieving 8% GDP growth along with reducing poverty and regional imbalances, but it did not formally introduce this phrase. Statement II is correct because the First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) was indeed based on the Harrod-Domar growth model , which emphasises investment and savings as determinants of economic growth. This model suited India’s post-independence conditions, where the focus was on agricultural development, community projects, and basic industries.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q39. Which of the following correctly describes Mission Shakti?
1. It is an integrated women empowerment programme launched in 2022.
2. It is run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
3. The scheme includes Samarthya and Sambal sub-schemes.

  1. (a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Only 1 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

The correct answer is option 1. Mission Shakti is an integrated women empowerment programme launched by the Government of India in 2022. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development and aims to provide safety, security, and empowerment to women. The mission subsumes several existing schemes and works through two main sub-schemes — Samarthya , which focuses on women’s empowerment, social and economic development, and Sambal , which focuses on women’s safety, protection, and support services. By integrating these components, Mission Shakti seeks to create a comprehensive framework for women’s welfare and empowerment across the country.

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Plant hormones and tropic movements

Q40. Identify the correct pairing between a plant hormone and its primary physiological function:

  1. (a) Cytokinin – Initiating abscission of leaves
  2. (b) Ethylene – Ripening of fruits
  3. (c) Auxin – Promoting seed dormancy
  4. (d) Gibberellin – Stimulating cell division in roots
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ethylene – Ripening of fruits

Ethylene is the correct answer because it is the primary hormone responsible for fruit ripening. Cytokinin promotes cell division, not leaf abscission. Auxin prevents seed dormancy (it promotes germination), not increases it. Gibberellin mainly promotes stem elongation and seed germination, not only root cell division.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q41. Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion: British capital accumulation in the 18th century was reinvested in industrial development.
Reason: The capital was largely controlled by merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal aristocracy.

  1. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is option 2. Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. In the 18th century, Britain experienced significant capital accumulation due to trade, colonial exploitation, and profits from overseas commerce. This capital was not in the hands of feudal lords but rather controlled by merchants and industrialists who sought opportunities for profit in new enterprises. As a result, this wealth was reinvested in industries like textiles, coal mining, and iron production, sparking the Industrial Revolution. Therefore, the presence of an entrepreneurial class outside the feudal aristocracy was the key reason why capital accumulation directly contributed to industrial growth.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q42. Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on his birth anniversary. Phule is best known for his contributions to which of the following?

  1. (a) Agriculture and commerce
  2. (b) Industry and infrastructure
  3. (c) Social Reform and Anti-Caste Movement
  4. (d) Military and diplomacy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Social Reform and Anti-Caste Movement

The correct answer is option 3. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule was a great social reformer of 19th century India who is best remembered for his pioneering work in the field of social reform, women’s education, and the anti-caste movement . Along with his wife Savitribai Phule, he started the first girls’ school in Pune in 1848, challenging the orthodox mindset of society. He strongly opposed the caste system and untouchability, and founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 to promote social equality and justice. His efforts laid the foundation for later social reform movements in India and inspired leaders like Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

Current Affairs (1)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q43. In collaboration with which country is ISRO developing the Trishna satellite for high-resolution thermal infrared imaging of Earth?

  1. (a) France
  2. (b) Israel
  3. (c) UAE
  4. (d) USA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) France

The correct answer is option 1. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation ) is collaborating with CNES (the French Space Agency) to develop the Trishna satellite (Thermal Infrared Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment). The main objective of this mission is to provide high-resolution thermal infrared images of Earth, which will be useful in monitoring land surface temperatures, water resources, urban heat islands, and climate change impacts. France has been one of India’s closest partners in space technology, and Trishna represents another step forward in Indo-French space cooperation after successful collaborations like Megha- Tropiques and SARAL satellites.

Chemistry (1)

Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Food chemistry (preservatives, sweeteners, additives)

Q44. Which of the following simple household methods can detect the presence of chalk powder in adulterated wheat flour?

  1. (a) Adding iodine solution to observe color change
  2. (b) Mixing with vinegar to observe fizzing reaction
  3. (c) Heating over flame to detect odor
  4. (d) Soaking in alcohol to dissolve the chalk
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mixing with vinegar to observe fizzing reaction

The correct answer is option 2. A simple household method to detect the presence of chalk powder (which is calcium carbonate) in wheat flour is by mixing the flour with vinegar (acetic acid). If chalk powder is present, it reacts with the acid and produces effervescence (fizzing/bubbles) due to the release of carbon dioxide gas. This reaction is a clear indicator of adulteration. Other listed methods such as adding iodine (used to detect starch), heating (odor test), or soaking in alcohol are not effective for chalk detection.
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