SSC Stenographer 2026 15 September 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

📥 Full paper PDF

Subjects: Medieval History (3) · Modern History (3) · Polity (6) · Static GK (11) · Geography (9) · Economics (3) · Chemistry (1) · Ancient History (2) · Current Affairs (6)

Medieval History (3)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Bahmani kingdom

Q1. Which Bahmani Sultan was honored with the title "Second Aristotle" due to his intellectual and administrative abilities?

(a) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(b) Muhammad Shah II
(c) Firoz Shah Bahmani
(d) Mahmud Gawan

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Muhammad Shah II

Answer: Option 2 — Muhammad Shah II
Muhammad Shah II (reigned 1378–1397) was a scholar-sultan who avoided wars, patronised learning and relief works, and was called "Aristotle" by contemporary chroniclers for his intellect.
His reign is remembered as the most peaceful in Bahmani history — he built mosques and madrasas and organised famine relief.
Revision note — The Bahmani Sultanate
• Founded in 1347 by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (Hasan Gangu), a rebel officer of Muhammad bin Tughlaq; first capital Gulbarga.
• Muhammad Shah I (1358–1375) organised the administration into four tarafs (provinces) and fought the first wars against Vijayanagara.
• Firoz Shah Bahmani (1397–1422) was a learned ruler who knew several languages and married a daughter of Deva Raya I of Vijayanagara after defeating him in the 1406 war (sparked by a goldsmith's daughter of Mudgal); his later defeat at Pangal (1420) broke his power.
• Ahmad Shah Wali shifted the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar (about 1425–1429).
• Mahmud Gawan, a Persian-born minister of Muhammad Shah III, was the real power for two decades; he built the famous madrasa at Bidar and was executed in 1481 through a forged letter — his death began the decline.
• After 1518 the kingdom split into the five Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur (Adil Shahi), Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahi), Berar (Imad Shahi), Bidar (Barid Shahi) and Golconda (Qutb Shahi).
Do not mix these up
• Muhammad Shah II vs Firoz Shah Bahmani — both were scholar-sultans, but the title "Aristotle" belongs to Muhammad Shah II; Firoz Shah is remembered for the Vijayanagara marriage alliance.
• Mahmud Gawan vs the Sultans — Gawan was a wazir (prime minister), never a sultan.
Also asked from this topic: the kingdom Mahmud Gawan served as prime minister (Bahmani); the founder and year of the Bahmani kingdom (Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah, 1347); the event that weakened the Sultanate (Mahmud Gawan's execution, 1481).

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate architecture

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the historical and architectural significance of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque?

(a) Built by Iltutmish as a Shia mosque with Persian inscriptions
(b) Constructed by Alauddin Khalji using granite from South India
(c) Commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak using materials from demolished Hindu and Jain temples
(d) Built by Balban as a tomb complex for Sufi saints near Ajmer

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak using materials from demolished Hindu and Jain temples

Answer: Option 3 — Commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak using materials from demolished Hindu and Jain temples
The Quwwat-ul-Islam ("Might of Islam") mosque, begun in 1192–93 by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, is the earliest surviving mosque in Delhi.
Its own inscription records that it was built from the material of 27 demolished Hindu and Jain temples — the carved pillars in the colonnade still show the temple work.
Revision note — The Qutb complex, Mehrauli (Delhi)
• Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque — Aibak, 1192–93; enlarged by Iltutmish (1230) and again by Alauddin Khalji; the mosque courtyard holds the Iron Pillar of Chandragupta II (Gupta period, rust-free wrought iron).
• Qutb Minar — begun by Aibak in 1199, completed by Iltutmish; the top storeys were repaired by Firoz Shah Tughlaq after lightning damage; height about 72.5 m, five storeys.
• Alai Darwaza (1311) — the southern gateway added by Alauddin Khalji, the first building in India with a true arch and true dome.
• Alai Minar — Khalji's unfinished tower meant to be twice the Qutb Minar's height.
• The complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1993); the style is early Indo-Islamic (Mamluk / Slave dynasty) architecture.
• Aibak's other mosque, Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra at Ajmer (about 1199), was likewise built over a Sanskrit college.
Do not mix these up
• Quwwat-ul-Islam vs Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra — both are Aibak's, but the first is in Delhi, the second in Ajmer.
• Qutb Minar vs Alai Minar — the Qutb Minar was finished by Iltutmish; the Alai Minar was never finished.
Also asked from this topic: the builder of the Alai Darwaza (Alauddin Khalji, 1311); the style of the Qutub Minar, begun by Aibak and completed by Iltutmish (Indo-Islamic, Mamluk); the dynasty that built Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra, Ajmer (Slave dynasty).

Early Medieval North India · Mahmud of Ghazni

Q3. Mahmud of Ghazni's numerous raids into the Indian subcontinent were primarily driven by which objective?

(a) Trade Expansion
(b) Territorial Conquest
(c) Economic plunder
(d) Religious Zeal

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Economic plunder

Answer: Option 3 — Economic plunder
Mahmud's seventeen raids (AD 1000–1027) targeted the wealthy temple towns and cities of north India — Nagarkot, Thanesar, Mathura, Kanauj and Somnath — and he withdrew with the loot each time rather than annexing territory beyond the Punjab.
The wealth financed his army and the buildings of Ghazni; the religious language of his chroniclers was a cover for a plunder economy.
Revision note — Mahmud of Ghazni
• Son of Subuktigin, ruler of Ghazni (Afghanistan) from AD 998 to 1030; the first Muslim ruler to take the title Sultan; the Caliph gave him the title Yamin-ud-Daula.
• First raid in AD 1000 against Jayapala of the Hindu Shahi kingdom; Jayapala's defeat at Peshawar (1001) and Anandapala's at Waihind (1008–09) opened the Punjab.
• Sacked Nagarkot (Kangra) in 1009, Thanesar in 1014, Mathura and Kanauj in 1018, and Somnath (Gujarat) in 1025–26, his most famous raid; the only territory he kept was the Punjab (Lahore).
• Scholars at his court: Al-Biruni (author of Kitab-ul-Hind, in Arabic, on Indian society and science), Firdausi (Shahnama) and Utbi (Tarikh-i-Yamini).
• Effect on India: exposed the political division of the Rajput states and drained their treasuries; the Ghaznavid hold on Punjab later became the springboard for Muhammad Ghori.
Do not mix these up
• Mahmud of Ghazni vs Muhammad Ghori — Mahmud raided for wealth and went home; Ghori (Tarain, 1192) came for territory and founded Turkish rule in India.
• Al-Biruni vs Ibn Battuta — Al-Biruni came with Mahmud (11th century) and wrote Kitab-ul-Hind; Ibn Battuta came to the court of Muhammad bin Tughlaq (14th century) and wrote the Rihla.
Also asked from this topic: the book Al-Biruni wrote after coming to India with Mahmud of Ghazni (Kitab-ul-Hind); the language it was written in (Arabic).

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q4. The Act of Settlement, 1781, was enacted to correct what major flaw of the Regulating Act?

(a) Lack of provision for a civil code
(b) Ambiguity regarding jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(c) Absence of an executive authority
(d) Lack of control over military spending

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ambiguity regarding jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

Answer: Option 2 — Ambiguity regarding jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
The Regulating Act of 1773 set up the Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) without defining its jurisdiction, which produced constant clashes with the Governor-General in Council (the Nand Kumar case 1775, the Patna case, the Cossijurah case 1779–80).
The Act of Settlement, 1781 (also called the Amending Act or Declaratory Act) was passed to remove these defects.
Revision note — The Regulating Act 1773 and its correction in 1781
• Regulating Act 1773 — the first step of parliamentary control over the East India Company; the Governor of Bengal became Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings) with a council of four.
• It created a Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta (1774) with a Chief Justice (Sir Elijah Impey) and three judges, and banned private trade and the taking of presents by Company servants.
• Act of Settlement 1781 — exempted the Governor-General and Council from the Supreme Court's jurisdiction for acts done in their official capacity; revenue matters and Company servants acting officially were also excluded.
• It directed the Supreme Court to apply the personal law of Indians — Hindu law for Hindus, Muslim law for Muslims — in cases involving them.
• Appeals from the provincial courts were to go to the Governor-General in Council, not to the Supreme Court, and the Council was empowered to frame regulations for those courts.
• The next step was Pitt's India Act 1784, which set up the Board of Control and the system of dual government.
Do not mix these up
• Regulating Act 1773 vs Act of Settlement 1781 — 1773 created the Supreme Court; 1781 limited its jurisdiction.
• Act of Settlement 1781 (India) vs Act of Settlement 1701 (England) — the English Act of 1701 settled the succession to the British throne; it has nothing to do with the Company.
Also asked from this topic: what the Regulating Act made the Governor of Bengal (Governor-General of Bengal, council of four); the law that set up the Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774 (Regulating Act of 1773).

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q5. Which key principle was institutionalized by Pitt’s India Act, 1784?

(a) Parliamentary sovereignty over India
(b) Separation of powers between judiciary and executive
(c) Dual control between Company and the British Government
(d) Grant of complete autonomy to Indian provinces

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dual control between Company and the British Government

Answer: Option 3 — Dual control between Company and the British Government
Pitt's India Act, 1784 created a Board of Control in London to supervise the Company's political, civil and military affairs, while the Court of Directors kept its commercial affairs.
This two-headed arrangement — Company plus Crown — is the system of dual control (double government) that lasted until 1858.
Revision note — Pitt's India Act, 1784
• Passed under Prime Minister William Pitt the Younger to cure the defects of the Regulating Act 1773.
• Board of Control: six members, including a Secretary of State and the Chancellor of the Exchequer; it supervised all political matters and could send secret orders through a Secret Committee of three Directors.
• Court of Directors (elected by the Company's shareholders) retained commercial business and patronage over appointments.
• The Company's territories were for the first time called "British possessions in India", and the Governor-General's council was reduced from four to three members.
• Bombay and Madras were made subordinate to the Governor-General in matters of war, revenue and diplomacy; the Governor-General was forbidden to declare war or make treaties without sanction from home.
• The Amending Act of 1786 let Lord Cornwallis override his council and hold the post of Commander-in-Chief as well.
• Dual control ended with the Government of India Act 1858, which abolished both the Board of Control and the Court of Directors and created the Secretary of State for India.
Do not mix these up
• Board of Control vs Court of Directors — the Board (Crown) handled political affairs; the Directors (Company) handled commercial affairs.
• Pitt's India Act 1784 vs Regulating Act 1773 — 1773 was the first parliamentary check on the Company; 1784 created the machinery (Board of Control) to enforce it.
Also asked from this topic: the function of the Board of Control (to supervise civil and military affairs in British India); its size (six members); the bodies abolished by the Government of India Act 1858 (Board of Control and Court of Directors).

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q6. What was the most politically sensitive implication of the Charter Act of 1813?

(a) Recognition of Indian languages in administration
(b) Legal permission for Christian missionaries to operate in India
(c) End of monopoly on trade with China
(d) Full sovereignty granted to Indian princely states

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Legal permission for Christian missionaries to operate in India

Answer: Option 2 — Legal permission for Christian missionaries to operate in India
The Charter Act of 1813 for the first time allowed Christian missionaries to enter Company territory and preach — a step the Company had long resisted for fear of offending Indian religious feeling, which made it the most politically sensitive clause.
Trade with China and the tea trade remained a Company monopoly until 1833, so option 3 describes the wrong Act.
Revision note — The Charter Acts (1793–1853)
• Charter Act 1793 — renewed the Company's charter for 20 years; the Board of Control's salaries were to be paid from Indian revenues.
• Charter Act 1813 — ended the Company's monopoly of trade with India (except tea and trade with China) and asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company's Indian territories.
• The same Act allowed missionaries and set aside Rs 1 lakh a year for the education of Indians — the first state grant for education.
• Charter Act 1833 — ended the China and tea monopoly and all commercial activity of the Company; made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentinck); provided for a Law Commission under Macaulay.
• Charter Act 1853 — introduced open competition for the civil service; created a separate Legislative Council for the Governor-General; reduced the Directors from 24 to 18; renewed the charter with no fixed period.
• The missionary clause of 1813 led to the founding of many mission schools and presses, and fed into later reform debates on sati (1829) and widow remarriage.
Do not mix these up
• 1813 vs 1833 — 1813 ended the Indian trade monopoly; 1833 ended the China and tea monopoly.
• 1813 vs 1853 — the education grant came in 1813; open competition for the ICS came in 1853.
Also asked from this topic: what the 1813 Act excluded from the end of the monopoly (tea and the China trade); the Act that first allocated funds for education (Charter Act 1813); the Act that set up the first Law Commission (Charter Act 1833).

Polity (6)

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q7. Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective and constitutional impact of the 45th Amendment Act, 1980?

(a) It abolished the power of the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
(b) It extended the duration of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five years to six years during the Emergency period.
(c) It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as the reservation of special representation for Anglo-Indians, for an additional ten years beyond the original period.
(d) It inserted the Fundamental Right to Education into the Constitution, making education a justiciable right for all children

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as the reservation of special representation for Anglo-Indians, for an additional ten years beyond the original period.

Answer: Option 3 — It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes … for an additional ten years
The 45th Amendment Act, 1980 amended Article 334 to extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs and the nomination of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies by ten years — from 1980 to 1990.
Article 334 was originally meant to lapse ten years after the Constitution commenced, and it has been extended every decade since.
Revision note — Article 334 and its extensions
• Article 334 fixes a time limit for the reservation of seats (Articles 330 and 332) and Anglo-Indian nomination (Articles 331 and 333).
• Extensions by ten years each: 8th Amendment (1959) to 1970, 23rd (1969) to 1980, 45th (1980) to 1990, 62nd (1989) to 2000, 79th (1999) to 2010, 95th (2009) to 2020, 104th (2019) to 2030.
• The 104th Amendment (2019) extended only the SC/ST reservation; it ended the Anglo-Indian nomination to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• Option 2 describes the 42nd Amendment (1976), which raised the term of the Lok Sabha and Assemblies to six years; the 44th Amendment (1978) restored it to five years.
• Option 4 describes the 86th Amendment (2002), which inserted Article 21A (right to education for children aged 6 to 14).
• The President's ordinance power (Article 123) has never been abolished; the 38th Amendment (1975) had made his satisfaction final, which the 44th Amendment undid.
Do not mix these up
• 95th vs 104th Amendment — both extended Article 334, but only the 104th dropped the Anglo-Indian seats.
• 42nd vs 44th Amendment — the 42nd lengthened the Lok Sabha term to six years; the 44th brought it back to five.
Also asked from this topic: the period by which the 95th Amendment (2009) extended the reservation (ten years, to 2020); the amendment that ended Anglo-Indian nomination (104th, 2019); the Article reserving SC and ST seats in the Lok Sabha (Article 330).

Fundamental Rights · Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)

Q8. Which of the following practices is specifically prohibited by Article 23 of the Indian Constitution as a violation of fundamental rights?

(a) Child labour in hazardous industries
(b) Begar and human trafficking
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Preventive detention without trial

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Begar and human trafficking

Answer: Option 2 — Begar and human trafficking
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (unpaid forced work) and other similar forms of forced labour; any breach is an offence punishable by law.
Child labour in hazardous work is the subject of the next Article, Article 24.
Revision note — Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Article 23(1) — bans traffic in human beings (selling and buying of persons, immoral traffic, devadasi-type practices), begar and forced labour; it protects citizens and foreigners alike and is enforceable against private persons too.
• Article 23(2) — the State may impose compulsory service for public purposes (military or social service) but may not discriminate on grounds of religion, race, caste or class while doing so.
• Article 24 — no child below 14 years may be employed in a factory, mine or any other hazardous employment.
• Supporting laws: Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976, Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act 1956, Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986 (amended 2016), Minimum Wages Act 1948.
• In People's Union for Democratic Rights v Union of India (1982) the Supreme Court held that paying less than the minimum wage amounts to forced labour under Article 23.
• The other options belong elsewhere: preventive detention is dealt with in Article 22, and the Directive Principles are Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Constitution.
Do not mix these up
• Article 23 vs Article 24 — Article 23 is about forced labour and trafficking of any person; Article 24 is about child labour below 14 in hazardous work.
• Article 22 vs Article 23 — Article 22 gives safeguards on arrest and preventive detention; it is part of the Right to Freedom, not the Right against Exploitation.
Also asked from this topic: what Article 23 prohibits (traffic in human beings, begar and forced labour); the Article barring children below 14 from hazardous work (Article 24); the Articles of the Right against Exploitation (23–24).

Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q9. Which of the following powers of the Supreme Court best exemplifies its role as the "Guardian of the Constitution"?

(a) Power to appoint the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the High Courts.
(b) Power to review its own judgments and orders under Article 137.
(c) Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.
(d) Power to grant anticipatory bail to accused persons.

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.

Answer: Option 3 — Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.
Judicial review — the power to examine laws and executive orders and declare them void if they violate the Constitution — is what makes the Supreme Court the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution.
Judges are appointed by the President (not the Court), review under Article 137 concerns only the Court's own orders, and anticipatory bail is an ordinary criminal-law power of the Sessions Court and High Court.
Revision note — Judicial review and the Supreme Court
• The phrase "judicial review" is not in the Constitution; it rests on Article 13 (laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are void), Article 32 and Article 226 (writs), and Articles 131–136, 143, 245, 246 and 254.
• The idea comes from the US case Marbury v Madison (1803); India's judicial review is narrower — "procedure established by law" (Article 21), not "due process".
• Kesavananda Bharati (1973) gave the basic structure doctrine; Minerva Mills (1980) held judicial review itself to be part of the basic structure.
• Article 32 — Dr Ambedkar's "heart and soul" of the Constitution — lets a citizen move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Article 137 — review of its own judgments; Article 141 — its law is binding on all courts; Article 143 — advisory opinion to the President; Article 129 — court of record with power to punish for contempt.
• Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under Article 124 on the collegium's recommendation (Second and Third Judges cases, 1993 and 1998).
Do not mix these up
• Judicial review vs review under Article 137 — judicial review tests the validity of laws; Article 137 lets the Court re-examine its own judgment.
• Judicial review vs judicial activism — review is a constitutional power; activism is the Court's proactive use of it (PIL, relaxed locus standi) from the mid-1970s.
Also asked from this topic: who is called the guardian of the Constitution (the Supreme Court); what makes the judiciary the guardian (judicial review); the Article for review of its own judgments (Article 137); the base of judicial review (Article 13).

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q10. Who, as of July 2025, is India's Minister of External Affairs?

(a) S. Jaishankar
(b) Amit Shah
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Smriti Irani

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) S. Jaishankar

Answer: Option 1 — S. Jaishankar
Dr Subrahmanyam Jaishankar has been Minister of External Affairs since 30 May 2019 and was retained in the portfolio when the third Modi government took office on 9 June 2024.
Amit Shah is Home Minister, Piyush Goyal is Commerce and Industry Minister, and Smriti Irani left the Council of Ministers after losing Amethi in 2024.
Revision note — S. Jaishankar and the MEA
• A 1977-batch IFS officer; Foreign Secretary (January 2015 – January 2018), earlier Ambassador to the USA (2013–15) and to China (2009–13) — India's longest-serving envoy in Beijing.
• The first former Foreign Secretary to become External Affairs Minister; Rajya Sabha member from Gujarat since 2019, re-elected in 2023. Padma Shri (2019).
• Books: The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World (2020) and Why Bharat Matters (2024).
• Ministers of State in the MEA (June 2024): Kirti Vardhan Singh and Pabitra Margherita. Foreign Secretary: Vikram Misri (since 15 July 2024).
• Other key portfolios (Modi 3.0): Home – Amit Shah, Defence – Rajnath Singh, Finance – Nirmala Sitharaman, Commerce – Piyush Goyal, Railways/I&B – Ashwini Vaishnaw.
• Jawaharlal Nehru held the External Affairs portfolio himself as PM (1947–64); Sushma Swaraj (2014–19) was Jaishankar's predecessor.
Do not mix these up
• Foreign Secretary vs External Affairs Minister — the Foreign Secretary is the senior-most IFS civil servant (Vikram Misri); the Minister is the political head (Jaishankar).
• S. Jaishankar vs Jaishankar Prasad — the minister is the diplomat; Jaishankar Prasad was the Hindi poet of Kamayani.
Also asked from this topic: S. Jaishankar's Rajya Sabha state (Gujarat); the author of Why Bharat Matters (S. Jaishankar); the Australian city where he opened a consulate in Nov 2024 (Brisbane).

Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q11. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Admission defined — Section 15
(b) Burden of proof — Section 118
(c) Electronic records — Section 67
(d) Previous judgments — Section 39

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Admission defined — Section 15

Answer: Option 1 — Admission defined — Section 15
Section 15 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 defines an admission (the old Section 17 of the Evidence Act).
The other three pairs point to the wrong sections: burden of proof is Section 104 and electronic records are Sections 61 to 63.
Previous judgments begin at Section 34 — Section 39 is the opinion of experts.
Revision note — Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
• Replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; assented to on 25 December 2023, in force from 1 July 2024 along with the BNS (in place of the IPC) and the BNSS (in place of the CrPC).
• It has 170 sections in 12 chapters, against 167 in the old Act.
• Key section numbers: admission defined — s.15; confession to a police officer not provable — s.23; previous judgments — ss.34 to 38; opinion of experts — s.39; oral evidence must be direct — s.55.
• Electronic and digital records are treated as documents (s.2) and as primary evidence (s.57); their admissibility and the certificate for them are in ss.61 to 63 (old s.65B).
• Burden of proof — s.104; presumption as to dowry death — s.118; estoppel — s.121; who may testify — s.124.
• Terms the Act does not define, such as electronic record and electronic signature, take their meaning from the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Do not mix these up
• Admission vs confession — every confession is an admission, but an admission of guilt in a criminal case is a confession (ss.22 to 24); admissions in general start at s.15.
• Section 39 vs Section 34 — s.39 is expert opinion; s.34 is where previous judgments become relevant.
Also asked from this topic: the law the BSA replaced (Indian Evidence Act, 1872); the number of sections in the BSA (170); the section that makes expert opinion relevant (Section 39).

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q12. Under the Constitution of India, which Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) serves as the foundational basis for the advocacy of a Uniform Civil Code?

(a) Article 40
(b) Article 44
(c) Article 51
(d) Article 25

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 44

Answer: Option 2 — Article 44
Article 44 says the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
That means one law on marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption for everyone, whatever their religion.
It sits in Part IV as a Directive Principle, so it guides the State but cannot be enforced by a court.
Revision note — Directive Principles and Article 44
• DPSPs are Part IV, Articles 36 to 51, borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (1937); Article 37 makes them non-justiciable but fundamental in the governance of the country.
• Article 40 — organisation of village panchayats; Article 44 — uniform civil code; Article 51 — promotion of international peace and security.
• Article 25 is not a DPSP at all — it is the Fundamental Right to freedom of conscience and religion in Part III.
• Other DPSPs asked often: 39A free legal aid; 45 early childhood care (86th Amendment, 2002); 48A environment (42nd Amendment, 1976); 50 separation of judiciary from executive.
• Goa has had a common civil code since the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867; Uttarakhand became the first state after independence to enact a UCC, in force from 27 January 2025.
• The Supreme Court urged a UCC in the Shah Bano case (1985) and again in Sarla Mudgal (1995).
Do not mix these up
• Article 44 vs Article 25 — 44 asks the State to unify personal laws; 25 guarantees the freedom to practise religion. One is a directive, the other an enforceable right.
• Article 40 vs Article 243 — 40 is the directive to organise panchayats; Part IX (Article 243 onwards), added by the 73rd Amendment, 1992, gives them constitutional status.
Also asked from this topic: the Article that provides for a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44); the part of the Constitution the UCC belongs to (Directive Principles); the source of the DPSPs (Ireland).

Static GK (11)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q13. Which of the following authors won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Hindi and later the Jnanpith Award, and is known for novels like Rag Darbari?

(a) Nirmal Verma
(b) Phanishwar Nath Renu
(c) Shrilal Shukla
(d) Krishna Sobti

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shrilal Shukla

Answer: Option 3 — Shrilal Shukla
Shrilal Shukla (1925–2011), an IAS officer from Uttar Pradesh, wrote the satirical novel Rag Darbari (1968) on village politics and corruption in the fictional village of Shivpalganj.
Rag Darbari won him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1970, and he received the Jnanpith Award for 2009 (announced 2011) along with Amar Kant; he was also awarded the Padma Bhushan (2008).
Revision note — Hindi writers who won the Jnanpith
• The Jnanpith Award (instituted 1961, first given 1965 to Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup for Odakkuzhal) is given by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust founded by Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain; it carries Rs 11 lakh and a bronze Vagdevi (Saraswati) statue.
• First Hindi winner: Sumitranandan Pant (1968) for Chidambara; then Ramdhari Singh Dinkar (1972) for Urvashi, S. H. Vatsyayan 'Agyeya' (1978) for Kitni Navon Mein Kitni Baar, Mahadevi Verma (1982) for Yama.
• Later Hindi winners: Naresh Mehta (1992), Nirmal Verma (1999), Kunwar Narayan (2005), Amar Kant and Shrilal Shukla (2009), Kedarnath Singh (2013), Krishna Sobti (2017), Vinod Kumar Shukla (2024).
• Nirmal Verma (option 1) is the Nayi Kahani writer of Ve Din and Kavve aur Kala Pani (Sahitya Akademi 1985, Jnanpith 1999); Krishna Sobti (option 4) wrote Zindaginama (Sahitya Akademi 1980, Jnanpith 2017).
• Phanishwar Nath Renu (option 2) wrote the anchalik (regional) novel Maila Anchal (1954); he received the Padma Shri, not the Jnanpith.
• The Sahitya Akademi Award (since 1955) is given in 24 languages, with a prize of Rs 1 lakh.
Do not mix these up
• Rag Darbari vs Maila Anchal — both are landmark village novels, but Rag Darbari (satire, Shrilal Shukla) is set in Awadh, Maila Anchal (Renu) in Purnea, Bihar.
• Sahitya Akademi Award vs Jnanpith Award — the Akademi award is for one book in one language; the Jnanpith is for an author's lifetime contribution to Indian literature.
Also asked from this topic: the poetic collection that won Sumitranandan Pant the Jnanpith (Chidambara, 1968); the Jnanpith-winning woman Hindi writer (Mahadevi Verma, 1982).

Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q14. Rukmini Devi Arundale is remembered for reviving which traditional Indian art form and integrating it into modern education?

(a) Kathak
(b) Bharatanatyam
(c) Manipuri
(d) Odissi

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bharatanatyam

Answer: Option 2 — Bharatanatyam
Rukmini Devi Arundale (1904–1986) took the temple dance Sadir, then shunned as the art of devadasis, learnt it from Pandanallur Meenakshisundaram Pillai, and gave her first public performance in 1935 at the Theosophical Society, Adyar.
In 1936 she founded Kalakshetra at Chennai, an academy that taught the dance with music, crafts and the arts as a formal curriculum — the "integration into modern education" the stem refers to.
Revision note — Bharatanatyam and its revival
• Bharatanatyam is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu, the oldest of the eight classical dances, rooted in Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra; its old name was Sadir (or Dasi Attam).
• It was codified as the Margam (Alarippu, Jatiswaram, Shabdam, Varnam, Padam, Tillana) by the Tanjore Quartet — the brothers Chinnayya, Ponnayya, Sivanandam and Vadivelu — in the court of Serfoji II in the 19th century.
• The Madras Devadasi (Prevention of Dedication) Act, 1947 ended the devadasi system; E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi led the revival, and it was renamed Bharatanatyam in the 1930s.
• Rukmini Devi was the first woman nominated to the Rajya Sabha (1952 and 1956), an animal-welfare campaigner behind the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, and declined the offer of the Presidency in 1977.
• Honours: Padma Bhushan 1956, Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship 1967.
• Kalakshetra was declared an Institution of National Importance by the Kalakshetra Foundation Act, 1993.
• Other great exponents: Balasaraswati, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Padma Subrahmanyam, Alarmel Valli, Mallika Sarabhai.
Do not mix these up
• Rukmini Devi vs Balasaraswati — both revived Bharatanatyam, but Rukmini Devi came from outside the hereditary tradition and reformed it for the stage; T. Balasaraswati was a devadasi-lineage dancer who kept the traditional style.
• Rukmini Devi vs Kelucharan Mohapatra — Rukmini Devi belongs to Bharatanatyam; Kelucharan Mohapatra is the reviver of Odissi.
Also asked from this topic: the year of Rukmini Devi Arundale's first public Bharatanatyam performance (1935); the old name of Bharatanatyam (Sadir); the state of origin of Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu).

Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q15. The 2023 National Games, held in Goa, introduced water sports as a competitive category. What was the rationale behind this inclusion in context to Goa’s geography and economy?

(a) Promotion of adventure tourism and leveraging coastal identity
(b) Support to fishing communities through government quotas
(c) Encouragement of flood-control innovations
(d) Preparation for Olympics 2032 bids

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Promotion of adventure tourism and leveraging coastal identity

Answer: Option 1 — Promotion of adventure tourism and leveraging coastal identity
Goa is India's smallest state by area but its best-known beach and tourism destination.
The organisers used the 37th National Games to showcase water and beach sports — sailing, rowing, canoeing and kayaking, beach football, beach volleyball, sea swimming — on its coastline and rivers.
The stated aim was to promote Goa as a hub of adventure and water-sports tourism, the sector that drives its economy.
Revision note — 37th National Games, Goa 2023
• Held 26 October – 9 November 2023, Goa's first time as host after the edition allotted to it in the 2000s was repeatedly postponed; opened by the Prime Minister at Fatorda (Margao).
• Mascot Moga — the Indian bison (gaur), Goa's state animal; the motto was "Get Set Goa".
• A record 43 disciplines; new or returning events included sqay, kalaripayattu, pencak silat, mini golf, sea rowing and sailing; the sailing events were held off Dona Paula and rowing on the Chapora river.
• Maharashtra topped the medal table for the first time (228 medals, 80 gold), ahead of Services (SSCB) and Haryana.
• The Games drew criticism for more than 20 doping failures, one of the largest clusters in India.
• Goa's economy rests on tourism, mining (iron ore) and pharmaceuticals; it has the highest per-capita income among Indian states.
Do not mix these up
• National Games 2023 (Goa) vs 2022 (Gujarat) — Goa was the 37th, Gujarat the 36th; the 38th was Uttarakhand, 2025.
• Moga vs Mauli — Moga (gaur) is Goa's mascot; Mauli (monal) is Uttarakhand's.
Also asked from this topic: the state that hosted the 37th National Games in 2023 (Goa); the National Games edition where more than 20 athletes failed doping tests (Goa 2023); the host of the 38th National Games (Uttarakhand, 2025).

Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q16. In which year did the National Games officially replace the All India Olympic Games, and why was this transition important?

(a) 1924 – To align with the International Olympic Charter
(b) 1940 – To give India its own national multi-sport championship
(c) 1948 – To commemorate India’s Olympic debut
(d) 1951 – To mark the Asian Games in Delhi

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1940 – To give India its own national multi-sport championship

Answer: Option 2 — 1940 – To give India its own national multi-sport championship
⚠️ Note: as printed in the paper, no option was correct — option 2 (the official key) read "1934 – To form an independent Indian Olympic Association". RBE has corrected option 2 to the right year, 1940, so the key stays at option 2.
The Games began at Lahore in 1924 as the All India Olympic Games (also called the Indian Olympic Games) and took the name National Games at the Bombay edition of 1940 — from then on they were India's own national multi-sport championship, run by the Indian Olympic Association.
The IOA itself had been formed earlier, in 1927, with Sir Dorabji Tata as president and Dr A. G. Noehren as secretary.
Remember the sequence: 1924 Lahore → IOA 1927 → renamed National Games 1940.
Revision note — History of the National Games
• 1924, Lahore — first edition, held as the All India Olympic Games under the Indian Olympic Committee; the early editions were mostly at Lahore, Allahabad, Madras, Delhi and Calcutta.
• 1927 — the Indian Olympic Association was formed; 1928 — India's hockey team won its first Olympic gold at Amsterdam.
• 1940, Bombay — the 9th edition was the first to be called the National Games.
• 1948, Lucknow — the first National Games of independent India; 1951, New Delhi hosted the first Asian Games (a separate event) at the National Stadium.
• 1985, New Delhi — the Games were restarted on the Olympic pattern with state teams and a village; hence the 1985 edition is numbered the 26th.
• Recent hosts: Kerala 2015 (35th), Gujarat 2022 (36th), Goa 2023 (37th), Uttarakhand 2025 (38th); Meghalaya is to host the 39th.
Do not mix these up
• National Games vs Asian Games 1951 — both are linked to Delhi, but the first Asian Games (1951) were an international event organised by the Asian Games Federation, not a National Games edition.
• Indian Olympic Association (1927) vs the renaming of the Games (1940) — the body came first; the name change came 13 years later.
Also asked from this topic: the year the Indian Olympic Association was formed, with Sir Dorabji Tata as president (1927); where the National Games began in 1924 (Lahore, as the Indian Olympic Games); the first woman president of the IOA (P. T. Usha, 2022).

Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q17. In Commonwealth Games, which rare occurrence led to medal redistribution in women’s relay team in 2010 Delhi Games?

(a) Tie in finish line
(b) Baton exchange outside zone
(c) Doping disqualification of medal-winning team
(d) Protest from host nation

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Doping disqualification of medal-winning team

Answer: Option 3 — Doping disqualification of medal-winning team
At the 2010 Delhi Commonwealth Games India's women's 4 x 400 m relay team (Manjeet Kaur, Sini Jose, Ashwini Akkunji, Mandeep Kaur) won gold, with Nigeria second and England third.
Nigeria's Folashade Abugan then tested positive for a banned steroid, so Nigeria's relay silver was stripped and the medals were redistributed — England moved up to silver and Australia to bronze; India's gold stood.
Revision note — Commonwealth Games 2010, New Delhi
• The 19th Commonwealth Games, 3–14 October 2010, were India's first and only CWG; 71 nations, mascot Shera (the tiger), opened at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium.
• India finished second in the table with 101 medals — 38 gold, 27 silver, 36 bronze — behind Australia; its best ever CWG haul.
• Athletics highlights: Krishna Poonia won the women's discus gold, India's first athletics gold at the CWG since Milkha Singh (1958, Cardiff); the women's 4 x 400 m relay gold came the same week.
• Several members of the relay squad (Ashwini Akkunji, Mandeep Kaur, Sini Jose) later failed dope tests in 2011, but their 2010 medal was not affected.
• The Games were marred by the CWG scam over the Organising Committee headed by Suresh Kalmadi.
• Later Games: Glasgow 2014, Gold Coast 2018, Birmingham 2022 (India's first gold: Mirabai Chanu), and Glasgow 2026 with a reduced programme.
Do not mix these up
• Doping disqualification vs baton-zone disqualification — a baton fault disqualifies a team on the day; a doping case strips a medal after the result.
• Milkha Singh 1958 vs Krishna Poonia 2010 — Milkha won India's first individual CWG athletics gold (440 yards, Cardiff); Poonia was the first Indian woman to win a CWG athletics gold.
Also asked from this topic: the number of silver medals India won at the 2010 Commonwealth Games (27); the first Indian to win an individual Commonwealth Games athletics gold (Milkha Singh); the winner of India's first gold at the 2022 Commonwealth Games (Mirabai Chanu).

Sports · Olympic Games

Q18. Why was Russia banned from the 2020 and 2022 Olympics under the neutral flag status?

(a) Government-level cyber attacks
(b) Political asylum of top athletes
(c) State-sponsored doping scandal
(d) Violation of international sports funding rules

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State-sponsored doping scandal

Answer: Option 3 — State-sponsored doping scandal
Russia was sanctioned for a state-run doping programme exposed by the McLaren Report (2016), which found that samples at the Sochi 2014 Winter Olympics had been swapped with the help of state agencies.
Its athletes therefore competed at Tokyo 2020 (held in 2021) and Beijing 2022 as "ROC" (Russian Olympic Committee) — no Russian flag, no anthem.
Revision note — The Russian doping ban
• WADA declared the Russian anti-doping agency RUSADA non-compliant in December 2019 and imposed a four-year ban on Russia's flag, anthem and name at major events.
• The Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS), Lausanne, halved the ban in December 2020 to two years, ending on 16 December 2022.
• Clean Russian athletes could still compete as neutral athletes — "OAR" (Olympic Athletes from Russia) at PyeongChang 2018, "ROC" at Tokyo 2020 and Beijing 2022.
• A piece by Tchaikovsky was played in place of the Russian anthem at ROC medal ceremonies.
• WADA was set up in 1999 after the IOC's first World Conference on Doping in Sport at Lausanne (February 1999); its headquarters are at Montreal, Canada.
• India's National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) was set up in 2005 under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports; the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) is in New Delhi.
• The National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 gave NADA statutory backing and created a National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports.
Do not mix these up
• ROC vs OAR — both are neutral labels for Russians: OAR at PyeongChang 2018 (after the Sochi scandal), ROC at Tokyo 2020 and Beijing 2022 (after the WADA ban).
• WADA vs CAS — WADA sets and enforces the anti-doping code; CAS is the court that hears appeals against its decisions.
Also asked from this topic: the body that oversees the global fight against doping (WADA); its headquarters (Montreal); the venue of the first World Conference on Doping in Sport, 1999 (Switzerland).

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q19. Which of the following statements about Melakarta Ragas in Carnatic music is/are correct?
Statement 1: There are 72 Melakarta ragas, which are parent scales.
Statement 2: All Melakarta ragas are derived from Janya ragas.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Answer: Option 1 — Only 1
Carnatic music has exactly 72 Melakarta (parent or janaka) ragas, so Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 reverses the relationship — janya ragas are derived from the Melakarta ragas, never the other way round.
Revision note — Melakarta and janya ragas
• The 72-Melakarta scheme was laid down by Venkatamakhi in his 17th-century treatise Chaturdandi Prakashika (about 1660); he is called the Grand Theorist of Carnatic music.
• A Melakarta raga is sampurna — it uses all seven swaras in both ascent (arohana) and descent (avarohana), in strict order.
• The 72 ragas are grouped into 12 chakras of 6 each; the first is Kanakangi and the last Rasikapriya. The first 36 use shuddha madhyama, the next 36 prati madhyama.
• A janya (derived) raga drops, adds or bends notes of its parent scale — for example Mohanam is a five-note (audava) janya of Harikambhoji.
• The Hindustani parallel is the 10 thaats of V. N. Bhatkhande, against 72 melas in the south.
• Purandara Dasa is the Pitamaha (grandfather) of Carnatic music; the Trinity are Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri, all born in Tiruvarur.
Do not mix these up
• Melakarta vs janya — Melakarta is the parent (all seven notes); janya is the child derived from it.
• Venkatamakhi vs Ramamatya — Venkatamakhi gave the 72-mela system; Ramamatya wrote the earlier Swaramela-kalanidhi (1550) on melas and ragas.
Also asked from this topic: the number of major parent ragas in Carnatic music (72); the theorist who devised the Melakarta system (Venkatamakhi, Chaturdandi Prakashika); the author of Swaramela-kalanidhi (Ramamatya).

Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q20. What is the significance of the Saraswati Samman, and who won it for a Marathi novel in 2020?

(a) Private award for Indian literature, Sharankumar Limbale
(b) Lifetime award for poetry, Damodar Mauzo
(c) Highest award for English fiction, Jhumpa Lahiri
(d) For translation only, Daisy Rockwell

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Private award for Indian literature, Sharankumar Limbale

Answer: Option 1 — Private award for Indian literature, Sharankumar Limbale
The Saraswati Samman is given by the K. K. Birla Foundation, a private trust, for an outstanding literary work in any Indian language.
The 30th Saraswati Samman (2020) went to Marathi Dalit writer Sharankumar Limbale for his novel Sanatan (2018).
Revision note — Saraswati Samman and the Birla awards
• Instituted in 1991 by the K. K. Birla Foundation; prize money Rs 15 lakh, a citation and a plaque; given for a work published in the previous ten years in any of the 22 Eighth Schedule languages.
• First recipient: Harivansh Rai Bachchan (1991) for his four-volume autobiography; it is regarded as one of India's richest literary prizes.
• Recent winners: 2020 – Sharankumar Limbale (Marathi, Sanatan); 2021 – Ramdarash Mishra (Hindi, Main To Yahan Hun).
• 2022 – Sivasankari (Tamil, Surya Vamsam); 2023 – Prabha Varma (Malayalam, Roudra Sathwikam).
• Limbale is best known for the Dalit autobiography Akkarmashi (The Outcaste, 1984) and the critical work Towards an Aesthetic of Dalit Literature.
• Sister awards of the Foundation: Vyas Samman (Hindi, Rs 4 lakh) and Bihari Puraskar (Hindi or Rajasthani writers of Rajasthan, Rs 2.5 lakh); it also gives the G. D. Birla Award for science.
• The distractors: Damodar Mauzo (Konkani) got the 57th Jnanpith (for 2021); Daisy Rockwell shared the International Booker 2022 (Tomb of Sand); Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer 2000.
Do not mix these up
• Saraswati Samman vs Jnanpith — Saraswati Samman is by the K. K. Birla Foundation (Rs 15 lakh, one work of the last ten years); Jnanpith is by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust (Rs 11 lakh, lifetime work).
• Saraswati Samman vs Vyas Samman — same foundation, but Vyas Samman is for Hindi works only.
Also asked from this topic: the first English-language Jnanpith laureate (Amitav Ghosh); the first woman Jnanpith laureate (Ashapoorna Devi); Sumitranandan Pant's Jnanpith-winning collection (Chidambara).

Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q21. What is the width of the take-off board in long jump?

(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 25 cm

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 20 cm

Answer: Option 3 — 20 cm
Under World Athletics rules the long jump take-off board is a rectangle 1.22 m long, 20 cm wide and 10 cm deep, painted white and sunk level with the runway.
The far edge of the board is the take-off line; a foot beyond it is a foul.
Revision note — Long jump: the field and the rules
• Take-off board: length 1.22 m, width 20 cm, depth 10 cm; the same board is used for the triple jump.
• Just beyond the board lies a plasticine indicator strip, 10 cm wide, that shows a mark if the athlete oversteps.
• Runway: at least 40 m long and 1.22 m wide; the board is placed 1 to 3 m from the near edge of the pit.
• Landing pit: 2.75 to 3 m wide, filled with soft damp sand; the far end is at least 10 m from the take-off line.
• The jump is measured from the nearest break in the sand to the take-off line, at right angles to it.
• Each athlete gets three trials; the best eight then get three more. A tail wind above 2.0 m/s voids a record.
Also asked from this topic: the number of strides in an elite long jumper's approach run (18 to 22); the foot the athlete plants on the board at take-off (the stronger, dominant foot).

Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q22. High jump requires athletes to take off from:

(a) Both feet
(b) One foot
(c) Knees
(d) Hands

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One foot

Answer: Option 2 — One foot
World Athletics rules say an athlete shall take off from one foot — a two-footed jump is a failure even if the bar stays up.
The rule is what separates the high jump from a standing jump and makes the run-up the heart of the event.
Revision note — High jump: rules and records
• Take-off: from one foot only, after a curved run-up.
• The usual style is the Fosbury Flop — the back-first clearance Dick Fosbury used to win gold at the 1968 Mexico City Olympics.
• Crossbar: about 4 m long, 29 to 31 mm thick, weighing not more than 2 kg, made of fibreglass so it is light and falls safely.
• Runway: at least 15 m long (20 m recommended); athletes may start at any height and may pass a height.
• Three consecutive failures at any height eliminate the jumper; ties are broken by a jump-off.
• World records: men 2.45 m — Javier Sotomayor (Cuba), 1993; women 2.10 m — Yaroslava Mahuchikh (Ukraine), 2024.
• Indian record: Tejaswin Shankar, 2.29 m (2018); he won India's first Commonwealth Games high jump medal, a bronze at Birmingham 2022.
Do not mix these up
• High jump vs pole vault — both clear a bar, but only the pole vault uses an implement; the high jump is unaided and from one foot.
• Fosbury Flop vs straddle — the Flop goes over back first; the older straddle went over face down.
Also asked from this topic: the minimum length of the high jump runway (15 m); why the crossbar is made of fibreglass (light, flexible, safe on impact); the para high jumper given the Padma Shri 2026 (Praveen Kumar).

Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q23. Which of the following personalities is primarily known as a social reformer?

(a) Baba Amte
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) Viswanathan Anand

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Baba Amte

Answer: Option 1 — Baba Amte
Baba Amte gave up a lawyer's practice to rehabilitate leprosy patients, founding Anandwan and later leading the Bharat Jodo marches — social reform was his life's work.
The other three are famous in other fields: Kapil Dev in cricket, C.V. Raman in physics and Viswanathan Anand in chess.
Revision note — Baba Amte
• Born Murlidhar Devidas Amte on 26 December 1914 at Hinganghat, Wardha district, Maharashtra; died 9 February 2008.
• Founded Anandwan (forest of joy) in 1949 near Warora, Chandrapur district, as a self-reliant community for people with leprosy; later Somnath and Ashokvan.
• Led the Bharat Jodo Andolan — a march from Kanyakumari to Kashmir (1985) and from Assam to Gujarat (1988) for national unity and the environment.
• Joined the Narmada Bachao Andolan and returned his Padma Vibhushan in protest at the displacement of tribals by the Sardar Sarovar dam.
• Awards: Padma Shri 1971, Ramon Magsaysay Award 1985, Padma Vibhushan 1986, Templeton Prize 1990, Right Livelihood Award 1991, Gandhi Peace Prize 1999.
• His son Dr Prakash Amte and daughter-in-law Mandakini Amte run the Lok Biradari Prakalp at Hemalkasa for the Madia Gond tribals; they shared the Magsaysay Award in 2008.
Do not mix these up
• Baba Amte vs Anna Hazare — both are Maharashtra activists, but Amte is linked with leprosy and Anandwan, Hazare with Ralegan Siddhi and the Lokpal movement.
• Anandwan vs Hemalkasa — Anandwan was set up by Baba Amte for leprosy patients; Hemalkasa is the tribal project run by Prakash Amte.
Also asked from this topic: the reformer born at Hinganghat in 1914, known for his work with leprosy patients (Baba Amte); who returned the Padma Vibhushan over the Sardar Sarovar dam (Baba Amte).

Geography (9)

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q24. Which of the following statements best describes the mandate and global relevance of the Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), particularly in the context of international conservation frameworks?

(a) ISSG is an autonomous UN agency under UNEP that coordinates global funding and eradication efforts for invasive species in tropical forests, especially under the REDD+ mechanism.
(b) ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) that provides expertise on invasive species, maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, and supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity’s Aichi Targets and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
(c) ISSG is a non-governmental body under the Ramsar Convention responsible for monitoring aquatic invasive species exclusively in wetlands of international importance.
(d) ISSG is a subsidiary body of the FAO that focuses on genetically modified invasive crops and their regulation under the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) that provides expertise on invasive species, maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, and supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity’s Aichi Targets and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Answer: Option 2 — ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) …
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts under the IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC), set up in 1994.
It runs the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) — the source of the well-known list of "100 of the World's Worst Invasive Alien Species".
It also advises governments on Aichi Target 9 and Target 6 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022), which aims to cut the introduction of invasive alien species by 50 per cent by 2030.
Revision note — IUCN, invasive species and the CBD
• IUCN — founded 1948 at Fontainebleau, headquarters Gland, Switzerland; it publishes the Red List of Threatened Species (since 1964) with categories from Least Concern to Extinct; India joined in 1969.
• The Species Survival Commission is the largest of IUCN's seven commissions; the ISSG is one of its specialist groups, hosted in Auckland, New Zealand.
• An invasive alien species is a non-native species whose spread harms native biodiversity — Indian examples: Lantana camara, Parthenium (congress grass), water hyacinth, Prosopis juliflora, African catfish.
• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) — opened at the Rio Earth Summit 1992, in force 1993, secretariat Montreal; its Article 8(h) asks parties to control invasive alien species.
• Aichi Targets (2011–2020) were adopted at COP-10, Nagoya (2010); the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework was adopted at COP-15 (Montreal, December 2022) with the 30 by 30 target.
• COP-16 met at Cali, Colombia (2024) under the slogan "Peace with Nature".
• The other options belong to different bodies: REDD+ is a UNFCCC forest-carbon mechanism; Ramsar (1971) covers wetlands; the Cartagena Protocol (2000) on living modified organisms is under the CBD, not the FAO.
Do not mix these up
• IUCN vs UNEP — IUCN is a membership union of governments and NGOs (not a UN body); UNEP is the UN's environment programme (Nairobi, 1972).
• Cartagena Protocol vs Nagoya Protocol — both are under the CBD, but Cartagena (2000) deals with biosafety of living modified organisms; Nagoya (2010) with access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources.
Also asked from this topic: the conference from which the Convention on Biological Diversity resulted (Earth Summit, 1992); the venue of the CBD COP16 (Cali, Colombia); the IUCN Red List status of the dugong (Vulnerable).

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Geomorphic processes and mass movements

Q25. Which of the following statements best explains the process of soilfluction, its geographic occurrence, and its geomorphic implications, particularly in periglacial and high-latitude environments?

(a) Soilfluction is a type of chemical weathering in tropical regions where downward movement of clay minerals occurs due to intense leaching under high rainfall.
(b) Soilfluction refers to the slow, gravity-driven movement of water-saturated regolith over impermeable permafrost layers in periglacial regions, forming lobate structures and contributing to solifluction terraces on gentle slopes.
(c) Soilfluction is the rapid downslope movement of rock and debris caused by seismic shaking in arid mountainous regions, typically resulting in talus cones and debris aprons.
(d) Soilfluction occurs exclusively in volcanic terrains where lava alters soil cohesion, triggering landslides with high speed and deep incision.

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Soilfluction refers to the slow, gravity-driven movement of water-saturated regolith over impermeable permafrost layers in periglacial regions, forming lobate structures and contributing to solifluction terraces on gentle slopes.

Answer: Option 2 — Soilfluction refers to the slow, gravity-driven movement of water-saturated regolith over impermeable permafrost layers in periglacial regions …
Solifluction (Latin solum = soil, fluere = to flow; the paper prints it as "soilfluction") is the slow flow of water-logged soil down a slope under gravity.
In periglacial regions the summer thaw wets only the top active layer while the permafrost beneath stays frozen and impermeable, so the saturated layer creeps downhill even on gentle slopes of 2 to 5 degrees, leaving lobes, terraces and sheets.
Revision note — Mass movements
• Mass movement (mass wasting) is the downslope transfer of rock and soil under gravity alone, without a transporting agent such as a river or glacier; water reduces friction and is the usual trigger.
• Slow movements: soil creep (imperceptible, tilted fences and bent tree trunks), solifluction (saturated soil over permafrost, periglacial zones), rock creep and talus creep.
• Rapid movements: earthflow, mudflow (volcanic mudflows are called lahars), debris avalanche.
• Landslides: slump (backward rotation of the sliding block), debris slide, rockslide (affects material to considerable depth), rockfall (free fall from a cliff, builds talus or scree cones).
• Periglacial means the zone bordering glaciers, with ground that freezes and thaws — Siberia, Alaska, northern Canada, Tibet; its Koppen climate type is ET (tundra), with permafrost and mosses and lichens.
• Related periglacial features: patterned ground (stone polygons), pingos, thermokarst from thawing permafrost.
Do not mix these up
• Solifluction vs soil creep — both are slow, but solifluction needs saturation and a frozen impermeable layer; creep needs neither.
• Solifluction vs mudflow — solifluction moves a few centimetres a year; a mudflow is a rapid, channelled flow after heavy rain or an eruption.
Also asked from this topic: the landslide type with backward rotation of the slipping material (slump); the landslide type that affects material to considerable depth (rockslide); the Koppen climate with permafrost soil and mosses and lichens (ET, tundra).

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q26. The Eastern and Western Ghats influence India's topography and rainfall patterns. Which of the following is a key difference between the two ranges?

(a) Eastern Ghats are continuous, Western Ghats are discontinuous
(b) Eastern Ghats lie parallel to the Arabian Sea coast
(c) Western Ghats are higher in elevation and more continuous than Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Ghats have more mineral wealth

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Western Ghats are higher in elevation and more continuous than Eastern Ghats

Answer: Option 3 — Western Ghats are higher in elevation and more continuous than Eastern Ghats
The Western Ghats run as an almost unbroken wall along the Arabian Sea coast with an average height of 900–1,600 m, crossed only through passes.
The Eastern Ghats are low (about 600 m average) and discontinuous, cut into pieces by the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri as they flow to the Bay of Bengal.
Revision note — Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
• Western Ghats (Sahyadri): about 1,600 km from the Tapi valley to Kanyakumari; a block mountain formed by faulting; steep western face, gentle eastern slope.
• Highest peak Anaimudi (2,695 m) in Kerala, the highest in South India; Doddabetta (2,637 m) in the Nilgiris is the second.
• Passes through the Western Ghats: Thal Ghat (Mumbai–Nashik), Bhor Ghat (Mumbai–Pune) and Pal Ghat (Palakkad Gap) between Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• Eastern Ghats: run from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris; local names Nallamala, Javadi, Palkonda, Shevaroy and Mahendragiri hills.
• Mahendragiri (1,501 m) in Odisha is the best-known Eastern Ghats peak; Arma Konda (Jindhagada, about 1,680 m) in Andhra Pradesh is the highest.
• The two ranges meet at the Nilgiri Hills; the Deccan plateau lies between them and tilts eastward, which is why most peninsular rivers flow into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Western Ghats force the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon to rise, giving the west coast heavy orographic rain and leaving a rain-shadow over the interior Deccan.
• Local names of the Western Ghats: Sahyadri (Maharashtra), Nilgiri (Karnataka–Tamil Nadu), Anaimalai and Cardamom Hills (Kerala).
• The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage Site (2012) and one of the world's biodiversity hotspots.
Do not mix these up
• Mineral wealth — the option is the reverse of the fact: the Eastern Ghats and the Chotanagpur belt hold most of India's iron, manganese and bauxite; the Western Ghats are known for biodiversity and rainfall, not minerals.
Also asked from this topic: the other name of the Western Ghats (Sahyadri); a local name of the Eastern Ghats (Nallamala Hills); the state where the Western Ghats are highest (Kerala — Anaimudi).

India - Drainage System · Himalayan river systems (Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra)

Q27. Which of the following rivers forms the largest delta in the world before entering the Bay of Bengal?

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Ganga-Brahmaputra

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ganga-Brahmaputra

Answer: Option 4 — Ganga-Brahmaputra
The Ganga and the Brahmaputra (joined by the Meghna) build the Sundarbans or Bengal delta, the largest delta in the world, spread over Bangladesh and West Bengal before the rivers enter the Bay of Bengal.
The Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna also form deltas on the east coast, but far smaller ones.
Revision note — The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta
• Area about 1,05,000 sq km; roughly two-thirds lies in Bangladesh and one-third in West Bengal. It is also called the Sundarbans delta or the Green delta.
• In Bangladesh the Ganga is the Padma, the Brahmaputra is the Jamuna; their joint stream meets the Meghna before reaching the sea.
• The Sundarbans here form the largest mangrove forest in the world, named after the sundari tree; home of the Royal Bengal tiger; UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987) and a Ramsar site (2019).
• Ganga: length 2,525 km, rises at Gangotri glacier (as the Bhagirathi) and enters the plains at Haridwar; the Hooghly is its distributary in West Bengal.
• Brahmaputra: rises near Mansarovar as the Tsangpo, enters India through Arunachal Pradesh (as the Siang/Dihang) and is called Brahmaputra in Assam.
• Peninsular deltas of the east coast: Mahanadi (Odisha — Paradip port), Godavari ("Dakshin Ganga", the largest peninsular river), Krishna and Kaveri.
• The west-flowing Narmada and Tapi form estuaries, not deltas.
Do not mix these up
• Largest delta vs largest peninsular delta — the world's largest is the Ganga-Brahmaputra; among peninsular rivers the Godavari builds the largest delta.
• Delta vs estuary — east-flowing rivers with a gentle slope and heavy silt make deltas; the fast west-flowing Narmada and Tapi make estuaries.
Also asked from this topic: the river system that forms the world's largest delta (Ganga-Brahmaputra); the Indian state in which it lies (West Bengal); the vegetation the Sundarbans are famous for (mangrove forest).

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q28. Which Indian state is the leading producer of iron ore in India, particularly known for its rich deposits of high-grade hematite?

(a) Karnataka
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Odisha
(d) Jharkhand

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

Answer: Option 3 — Odisha
Odisha produces more than half of India's iron ore, almost all of it high-grade hematite from the Sundargarh, Keonjhar and Mayurbhanj districts.
Chhattisgarh (Bailadila) is second and Karnataka third; Jharkhand (Singhbhum) was the historic leader but now ranks fourth.
Revision note — Iron ore in India
• Two ores matter: hematite (Fe2O3) — reddish, 60–70 per cent iron, the bulk of India's reserves; magnetite (Fe3O4) — black, up to 72 per cent iron, the best quality, found mainly in Karnataka (Kudremukh).
• Odisha: Sundargarh, Keonjhar, Mayurbhanj (the Barbil–Joda belt); ore moves through Paradip port and feeds the Rourkela steel plant (set up 1959 with German help).
• Chhattisgarh: Bailadila range in Dantewada — hematite exported to Japan through Visakhapatnam; Dalli-Rajhara supplies Bhilai.
• Karnataka: Bellary–Hospet–Sandur belt, and Kudremukh magnetite once run by KIOCL as a 100 per cent export unit.
• Jharkhand: Singhbhum district — Noamundi and Gua mines feed Jamshedpur (TISCO, 1907), India's first modern steel plant.
• India is among the world's top four iron-ore producers (after Australia, Brazil and China) and the second largest crude-steel producer after China.
Do not mix these up
• Largest reserves vs largest production — Odisha leads in both today; older books name Jharkhand or Karnataka, which held the top spot before the 2010s.
• Hematite vs magnetite — hematite is the common, reddish ore of Odisha–Jharkhand–Chhattisgarh; magnetite is the richer, black, magnetic ore of Karnataka.
Also asked from this topic: the district–state pair for iron ore, Singhbhum (Jharkhand); the mineral mined at Kudremukh (iron ore); the ore mined at Bailadila (hematite); the iron content of magnetite (about 70 per cent).

Geography Miscellaneous · Branches of geography and earth sciences

Q29. What is the main focus of economic geography?

(a) Study of weather
(b) Distribution of economic activities and resources
(c) Mapping only physical features
(d) Tourism development

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Distribution of economic activities and resources

Answer: Option 2 — Distribution of economic activities and resources
Economic geography is a branch of human geography that studies where economic activities — production, exchange and consumption — and resources are located and why.
Weather is climatology, physical features are physical geography and tourism is only one small sub-field.
Revision note — Branches of geography
• The word geography (Greek geo + graphein, "earth-writing") was coined by Eratosthenes, called the father of geography.
• Physical geography covers geomorphology (landforms), climatology, oceanography, biogeography and pedology (soils).
• Human geography covers social, cultural, political, population, settlement and economic geography; Friedrich Ratzel is called the father of human geography.
• Economic geography itself splits into agricultural, industrial, resource, transport and marketing geography.
• Alexander von Humboldt and Carl Ritter are regarded as the founders of modern geography.
• Cartography is map-making; demography is the statistical study of population.
Do not mix these up
• Economic geography vs economics — economics studies how resources are allocated; economic geography studies their spatial distribution.
• Geomorphology vs geology — geomorphology studies surface landforms; geology studies the rocks and structure beneath.
Also asked from this topic: the sub-fields of social geography (gender and cultural geography, both); the branch of geology that studies fossils (palaeontology).

India - Drainage System · Himalayan river systems (Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra)

Q30. Which is the most important river basin for agriculture in northern India?

(a) Narmada
(b) Ganga
(c) Krishna
(d) Tapi

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ganga

Answer: Option 2 — Ganga
The Ganga basin is India's largest river basin and the heart of the Indo-Gangetic plain — deep alluvial soil, perennial Himalayan water and the country's main rice-wheat belt.
Narmada and Tapi are west-flowing rivers of central India and the Krishna is a peninsular river of the Deccan; none of them serves northern India.
Revision note — The Ganga basin
• The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq km in India — roughly 26 per cent of the country's area — and spreads over 11 states, from Uttarakhand and Himachal to West Bengal.
• The Ganga rises as the Bhagirathi from the Gangotri glacier; the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet at Devprayag, and the river is called Ganga from there. Length 2,525 km.
• It enters the plains at Haridwar; main tributaries are the Yamuna (largest), Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi from the north and the Son from the south.
• The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, the Sundarbans, is the largest delta in the world; the river ends in the Bay of Bengal.
• Declared the National River in 2008; Namami Gange launched in 2014; the National Ganga Council is headed by the Prime Minister.
• The Narmada and Tapi flow west through rift valleys into the Arabian Sea; the Krishna rises at Mahabaleshwar and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Do not mix these up
• Largest basin vs longest river — the Ganga is both in India, but the Brahmaputra carries more water and the Godavari is the largest peninsular basin.
• Bhagirathi vs Alaknanda — Bhagirathi is the source stream from Gangotri; Alaknanda (from Satopanth) is the larger of the two at Devprayag.
Also asked from this topic: the river with the largest catchment area in India (Ganga); the basin with the densest population (Ganga basin); the rice-wheat cropping region (Indo-Gangetic Plains).

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q31. As per 2025 demographics, what is India's population density (people per sq. km)?

(a) 144
(b) 292
(c) 492
(d) 1275

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 492

Answer: Option 3 — 492
The UN-based estimate for 2025 puts India at about 146 crore (1.46 billion) people on a land area of about 29.7 lakh sq km, which works out to roughly 492 persons per sq km.
Census 2011 gave 382, but the two figures are not on the same base: 121.09 crore ÷ 382 means the Census divided by about 31.7 lakh sq km, while 492 uses land area only.
On the Census base, 146 crore people would give about 460 per sq km — the density has risen, but by less than the jump from 382 to 492 suggests.
Revision note — Population density of India
• Population density = population ÷ area, expressed as persons per sq km.
• Census figures: 1951 – 117, 1991 – 267, 2001 – 325, 2011 – 382 per sq km (India's total area is 32.87 lakh sq km; the Census works density out on about 31.7 lakh sq km).
• Census 2011 state extremes: highest Bihar (1,106), then West Bengal (1,028) and Kerala (860); lowest Arunachal Pradesh (17). Among UTs, Delhi (11,320) is the highest.
• India holds about 17.8 per cent of the world's people on 2.4 per cent of its land; it became the most populous country in 2023, overtaking China.
• Bangladesh (about 1,300 per sq km) is the densest large country; the world average is only about 60 per sq km.
• The next Census (Census 2027) has its reference date 1 March 2027, with house-listing from April 2026; it will be India's first digital census and the first with caste enumeration since 1931.
Do not mix these up
• Density vs growth rate — density is people per unit area; the decadal growth rate (17.7 per cent in 2001–11) is the change in numbers over ten years.
• Highest-density state vs UT — Bihar among states, Delhi among UTs.
Also asked from this topic: the meaning of population density (people per sq km; India in 2011, 382); the state at 1,106 per sq km in 2011 (Bihar; the provisional figure was 1,102); the least dense state (Arunachal Pradesh, 17).

India - Population and Census · Current population estimates and projections

Q32. As per projections, which region's share of overall Indian population is set to decrease in 2025 and beyond?

(a) Northern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Eastern

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Southern

Answer: Option 3 — Southern
The five southern states — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana — reached below-replacement fertility (TFR under 2.1) years ago, so their populations are growing slowly and ageing.
The northern and central states (Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan) still have higher fertility, so the South's share of the national total keeps falling even as its numbers inch up.
Revision note — India's demographic divide
• NFHS-5 (2019–21) put India's TFR at 2.0, below the replacement level of 2.1 for the first time; Bihar (3.0) was the highest state, Sikkim (1.1) the lowest.
• Southern-state TFRs: Kerala 1.8, Tamil Nadu 1.8, Karnataka 1.7, Andhra Pradesh 1.7, Telangana 1.8 — all below replacement; Uttar Pradesh 2.4.
• The Technical Group on Population Projections (2020) projects India at 152 crore by 2036, with the South's share of population continuing to shrink and its median age the highest in the country.
• Kerala already has the highest share of people aged 60+ (12.6 per cent in Census 2011, projected to cross 20 per cent by 2031); Bihar and UP have the youngest populations.
• Why it matters politically: Lok Sabha seats were frozen on the 1971 Census by the 42nd Amendment (1976); the 84th Amendment (2001) extended the freeze to the first Census after 2026.
• A fresh delimitation on current numbers would shift seats away from the South — the reason the southern states watch these projections closely.
• Census 2011 decadal growth: India 17.7 per cent; Kerala only 4.9 per cent, Tamil Nadu 15.6, against Bihar 25.4 and UP 20.2; Nagaland was the only state with negative growth.
Do not mix these up
• Falling share vs falling population — the South's population is still rising slightly; only its percentage share of India is falling.
• Replacement level (2.1) vs zero growth — a country keeps growing for decades after TFR falls to 2.1 because of population momentum (a large young cohort).
Also asked from this topic: India's TFR in NFHS-5 (2.0); India's projected population by 2036 (1.52 billion, National Commission on Population); the state with negative growth in 2011 (Nagaland).

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q33. India's consistent rise in the Global Climate Risk Index signifies what major challenge in its environmental and disaster management system?

(a) Absence of green zones in cities
(b) Low carbon emission from agriculture
(c) Frequent climate-related disasters like floods and heatwaves, and vulnerability due to population density
(d) Overuse of electric vehicles

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Frequent climate-related disasters like floods and heatwaves, and vulnerability due to population density

Answer: Option 3 — Frequent climate-related disasters like floods and heatwaves, and vulnerability due to population density
The Climate Risk Index ranks countries by the human and economic losses they suffer from extreme weather — floods, heatwaves, cyclones and storms.
A high position for India therefore signals repeated climate disasters hitting a densely populated country, a strain on its disaster-management system — not anything to do with green zones, farm emissions or electric vehicles.
Revision note — The Global Climate Risk Index
• Published by Germanwatch, a Bonn-based NGO, since 2006; it counts deaths and economic losses from weather events, so it measures exposure and vulnerability, not emissions.
• CRI 2025 placed India 6th among the countries most affected over the long term (1993–2022); CRI 2021 had ranked India 7th for the year 2019.
• India's main hazards are floods (about 12 per cent of the land is flood-prone), cyclones on the east coast, heatwaves in the north and west, and droughts in the peninsula.
• The Disaster Management Act, 2005 created the NDMA (chaired by the Prime Minister), SDMAs under Chief Ministers and the NDRF.
• India's climate policy rests on the National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008) with its eight missions, and the Paris Agreement target of net zero by 2070.
Do not mix these up
• Climate Risk Index vs Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) — both come from Germanwatch, but the CRI measures losses suffered, while the CCPI ranks climate action (emissions, renewables, energy use, policy); India was 10th in CCPI 2025.
• Vulnerability vs emissions — a high CRI rank does not mean India emits more; it means India loses more when the weather turns extreme.
Also asked from this topic: India's long-term rank in the Climate Risk Index 2025 (6th, for 1993–2022); India's rank in the Climate Change Performance Index 2025 (10th); the criteria of the CCPI (GHG emissions, renewable energy, energy use, climate policy).

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q34. In the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2024, India ranked near the bottom globally. What is the primary reason for such a low rating despite ongoing environmental programs like National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?

(a) Under-reporting of pollution levels
(b) Lack of carbon pricing
(c) Delayed implementation of emission control laws and poor waste management systems
(d) High solar energy subsidies

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Delayed implementation of emission control laws and poor waste management systems

Answer: Option 3 — Delayed implementation of emission control laws and poor waste management systems
India stood 176th of 180 countries in EPI 2024, dragged down by very poor scores on air quality (PM2.5 exposure), waste management and greenhouse-gas emissions.
Programmes such as NCAP exist on paper, but slow enforcement of emission norms and weak solid-waste and sewage handling keep the measured environmental health low.
Revision note — Environmental Performance Index
• Prepared every two years by Yale University and Columbia University with the World Economic Forum; first published in 2006 (it grew out of the Environmental Sustainability Index).
• EPI 2024 used 58 indicators in 11 issue categories under three policy objectives — environmental health, ecosystem vitality and climate change.
• Estonia topped EPI 2024, followed by Luxembourg and Germany; Vietnam was last at 180, with India at 176.
• In EPI 2022 India was placed last (180th), which the government rejected as based on unscientific assumptions.
• NCAP was launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for 131 non-attainment cities; its target was a 20–30 per cent cut in particulate matter by 2024 against the 2017 base, later revised to 40 per cent by 2026.
• Air quality in India is monitored by the CPCB (set up in 1974 under the Water Act); the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) operates in Delhi-NCR under the CAQM (2021).
Do not mix these up
• EPI vs CCPI — the EPI (Yale–Columbia) rates overall environmental performance; the Climate Change Performance Index (Germanwatch) rates climate action only, where India ranks near the top ten.
• NCAP vs National AQI — NCAP is the programme to cut pollution; the AQI is the daily index that reports it.
Also asked from this topic: the universities that produce the EPI (Yale and Columbia); the number of indicators in EPI 2024 (58); the country that topped EPI 2024 (Estonia); NCAP's original target (20–30 per cent cut in particulates by 2024–25).

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Energy and power sector schemes

Q35. Which scheme provides free LPG connections to women from poor households in India?

(a) Saubhagya Yojana
(b) PM Garib Kalyan
(c) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
(d) Aayushman Bharat

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

Answer: Option 3 — Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
PMUY gives a free LPG connection in the name of an adult woman of a poor household, replacing firewood, dung and coal as cooking fuel.
Saubhagya gives electricity connections, PM Garib Kalyan gives free food grain, and Ayushman Bharat gives health cover.
Revision note — Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
• Launched on 1 May 2016 at Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, by PM Narendra Modi; run by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas; slogan "Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan".
• Original target 5 crore connections by 2019, raised to 8 crore, which was achieved in September 2019, ahead of schedule.
• Ujjwala 2.0 was launched on 10 August 2021 from Mahoba, Uttar Pradesh, with a free first refill and stove and easier paperwork for migrant families.
• Beneficiaries get a targeted subsidy of Rs 300 per 14.2-kg cylinder for up to 9 refills a year; PMUY connections crossed 10.33 crore by March 2025.
• Saubhagya (2017): free electricity connections to all households. PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (2020): free food grain, extended for five years from January 2024. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY (2018): health cover of Rs 5 lakh per family per year.
Do not mix these up
• Ujjwala vs Saubhagya — both target poor households, but Ujjwala (launched at Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, 2016) gives LPG, while Saubhagya (launched in New Delhi, 25 September 2017) gives electricity connections.
• Ujjwala vs PAHAL — PAHAL (2013–15) is the direct transfer of LPG subsidy to bank accounts for all consumers; Ujjwala is a new-connection scheme for the poor.
Also asked from this topic: who is eligible under PMUY (women from BPL households); the number of PMUY beneficiaries as of March 2025 (10.33 crore); the 2017 scheme for universal household electrification (Saubhagya).

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q36. The AQI of Delhi during winter often exceeds 400. What is the primary scientific and policy-based reason for such critical levels?

(a) Lack of monsoon showers
(b) Concentrated rural energy use
(c) Thermal inversion and transboundary stubble burning from Punjab and Haryana
(d) Industrial shutdowns during festivals

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Thermal inversion and transboundary stubble burning from Punjab and Haryana

Answer: Option 3 — Thermal inversion and transboundary stubble burning from Punjab and Haryana
In winter a layer of warm air sits above the cold air near the ground (a temperature inversion), so smoke cannot rise and disperse; winds are also weak.
On top of this comes smoke from paddy-stubble (parali) burning in Punjab and Haryana in October–November and Delhi's own vehicle, dust and firecracker emissions — pushing the AQI into the "Severe" band (401–500).
Revision note — Air Quality Index and Delhi's winter smog
• The National AQI was developed by the CPCB with IIT Kanpur and launched in 2015 as part of the Swachh Bharat mission.
• It covers 8 pollutants — PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and lead; the overall AQI is the worst sub-index among them.
• Six bands: Good 0–50, Satisfactory 51–100, Moderate 101–200, Poor 201–300, Very Poor 301–400, Severe 401–500.
• PM2.5 (particles below 2.5 micrometres) is the dominant pollutant in Delhi; it enters deep into the lungs and bloodstream.
• Normally temperature falls about 6.5 degree C per km of height; in an inversion it rises with height, trapping pollutants under a lid — the same reason smog forms in valleys.
• GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan), notified in 2017, is enforced in Delhi-NCR in four stages by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), a statutory body since 2021.
Do not mix these up
• Temperature inversion vs urban heat island — the inversion is a cold ground layer under warm air that traps smoke; the heat island is a warmer city than its surroundings caused by concrete and traffic.
• AQI "Severe" vs "Very Poor" — Severe is above 400; Very Poor is 301–400.
Also asked from this topic: the AQI value classified as "Severe" (above 400); the number of pollutants measured under India's AQI (8); the agency that monitors real-time AQI in cities (CPCB); the dominant pollutant in Delhi's AQI (PM2.5).

Ancient History (2)

Gupta Empire · Gupta literature and scholars

Q37. Evaluate the following statements related to the Gupta period:
Statement 1: The Gupta period witnessed a revival of Brahmanical traditions and Sanskrit literature.
Statement 2: The Guptas issued only copper coins with Prakrit inscriptions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only Statement 1 is correct
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Answer: Option 1 — Only Statement 1 is correct
Statement 1 is correct: the Guptas were devotees of Vishnu (Parama-Bhagavata), revived Vedic sacrifices such as the Ashvamedha, and made Sanskrit the language of court, inscriptions and classical literature — the age of Kalidasa.
Statement 2 is wrong: the Guptas issued the largest number of gold coins (dinaras) in ancient India, plus silver coins after Chandragupta II's conquest of the Shakas; their coin legends were in Sanskrit, not Prakrit. Copper coins were few.
Revision note — Gupta coinage, religion and literature
• Gupta gold coins are called dinaras (after the Roman denarius); Samudragupta's coins show him playing the veena and performing the Ashvamedha; a coin of Chandragupta II shows him as a lion-slayer.
• Silver coins (rupaka) began under Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) after he defeated the Western Kshatrapa (Shaka) rulers of Gujarat and Malwa, about AD 409.
• Purity of Gupta gold fell after Skandagupta, a sign of economic strain; Prakrit legends belong to earlier Satavahana and Kushana coins, not Gupta ones.
• Brahmanical revival: the Puranas took their present form, Bhagavatism and image worship spread, and the first free-standing stone temples were built — the Dashavatara temple at Deogarh and the Bhitargaon brick temple.
• Sanskrit literature: Kalidasa (Abhijnanashakuntalam, Meghadutam, Raghuvamsha) in the court of Chandragupta II; Harisena composed the Prayaga (Allahabad) Prashasti of Samudragupta; Vishakhadatta's Mudrarakshasa.
• Science: Aryabhata (Aryabhatiya, AD 499), Varahamihira (Brihat Samhita); the Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien visited in the reign of Chandragupta II.
Do not mix these up
• Gupta gold vs Kushana gold — the Kushanas (Vima Kadphises) issued the first large gold coinage in India; the Guptas issued the largest number and the purest early issues.
• Sanskrit vs Prakrit — Ashokan and Satavahana inscriptions are in Prakrit; Gupta inscriptions and coins are in Sanskrit.
Also asked from this topic: the name of Gupta gold coins (dinaras); the Gupta ruler in whose court Kalidasa flourished (Chandragupta II); the composer of the Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Harisena); the Vedic sacrifice Samudragupta performed (Ashvamedha).

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q38. The Ajanta caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were primarily excavated during the reign of which dynasty?

(a) Mauryan
(b) Gupta and Vakataka
(c) Kushan
(d) Nanda

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gupta and Vakataka

Answer: Option 2 — Gupta and Vakataka
The finest Ajanta caves and almost all of its murals belong to the second phase (5th century CE), cut under the Vakataka king Harishena, contemporaries and marriage allies of the Guptas — hence the label "Gupta-Vakataka period".
The earliest caves are older still, from the Satavahana period (2nd–1st century BCE).
Revision note — The Ajanta caves
• Located in Aurangabad (Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar) district, Maharashtra, in a horseshoe-shaped gorge of the Waghora river; 30 rock-cut Buddhist caves (chaityas and viharas).
• Phase 1 (Hinayana, 2nd–1st century BCE) under the Satavahanas — caves 9, 10, 12, 13 and 15A.
• Phase 2 (Mahayana, about 460–480 CE) under the Vakataka ruler Harishena — caves 1, 2, 16, 17, 19 and 26, with the famous murals.
• Prabhavati Gupta, daughter of Chandragupta II, married the Vakataka king Rudrasena II — the link that makes the period "Gupta-Vakataka".
• Rediscovered in 1819 by John Smith, a British officer on a tiger hunt; inscribed by UNESCO in 1983 (same year as Ellora).
• Best-known paintings: Padmapani and Vajrapani (Cave 1), the Dying Princess (Cave 16), Flying Apsara (Cave 17) and the Jataka tales, done in the tempera technique.
• The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang (7th century) described Ajanta in his account.
Do not mix these up
• Ajanta vs Ellora — Ajanta is only Buddhist and famous for paintings; Ellora (34 caves) has Buddhist, Hindu and Jain caves and the monolithic Kailasa temple of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
• Vakataka vs Satavahana — both worked at Ajanta, but the murals are Vakataka; the Satavahana caves are the plain early ones.
Also asked from this topic: the traveller who described the Ajanta caves (Hiuen Tsang); the cave site of The Flying Apsara (Ajanta); the founder of the Vakataka dynasty (Vindhyashakti).

Current Affairs (6)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q39. Who has been appointed as the new Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026?

(a) Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi
(b) Admiral Sunil Lanba
(c) Vice Admiral Karambir Singh
(d) Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan

Answer: Option 4 — Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan
The Government announced on 9 May 2026 that Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan would be the next Chief of the Naval Staff.
He took over as the 27th CNS on 31 May 2026, on the superannuation of Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi.
Sunil Lanba and Karambir Singh are earlier chiefs who retired in 2019 and 2021, and Tripathi is the outgoing chief.
Revision note — Chiefs of the Indian Navy
• Admiral Krishna Swaminathan — commissioned 1 July 1987, a communication and electronic-warfare specialist; commanded the carrier INS Vikramaditya; PVSM, AVSM, VSM.
• Before taking over he was Vice Chief of the Naval Staff (from May 2024) and then Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Naval Command.
• Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi was the 26th CNS (30 April 2024 – 31 May 2026); before him R. Hari Kumar (25th, 2021–24), Karambir Singh (24th, 2019–21) and Sunil Lanba (23rd, 2016–19).
• A service chief serves three years or till the age of 62, whichever is earlier.
• The same day, 31 May 2026, General N. S. Raja Subramani took over as the third Chief of Defence Staff, succeeding General Anil Chauhan.
• Naval commands: Western (Mumbai), Eastern (Visakhapatnam), Southern (Kochi, training); Andaman and Nicobar Command is the only tri-service theatre command.
• Navy Day is 4 December (Operation Trident, 1971); the first Indian CNS was Vice Admiral R. D. Katari (1958); the Navy's motto is Sham No Varunah.
• Other 2026 service heads: Army – General Dhiraj Seth (31st COAS, from 30 June 2026, succeeding General Upendra Dwivedi); Air Force – Air Chief Marshal A. P. Singh (since 30 September 2024).
Do not mix these up
• Chief of the Naval Staff vs Vice Chief — the CNS is the four-star head of the Navy; the VCNS is his three-star deputy at Naval Headquarters. Swaminathan rose from VCNS to CNS.
• Chief of Defence Staff vs service chiefs — the CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs and is permanent chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee; he does not command any of the three services.
Also asked from this topic: India's second Chief of Defence Staff, appointed in 2022 (General Anil Chauhan); the first woman DG of the Armed Forces Medical Services, October 2024 (Arti Sarin).

Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q40. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification in May 2026?

(a) Anurag Singh Thakur
(b) Prasoon Joshi
(c) Rajesh Kumar Singh
(d) Shashi Shekhar Vempati

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shashi Shekhar Vempati

Answer: Option 4 — Shashi Shekhar Vempati
By a notification of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting dated 6 May 2026, Shashi Shekhar Vempati, former CEO of Prasar Bharati, was appointed Chairperson of the CBFC for three years.
He replaces Prasoon Joshi, who had chaired the Board since 2017 and moved up as Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
Revision note — Central Board of Film Certification
• A statutory body under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, working under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting; headquarters Mumbai, with nine regional offices.
• Certificates: U (unrestricted), U/A (parental guidance), A (adults) and S (special class).
• The Cinematograph (Amendment) Act, 2023 split U/A into U/A 7+, U/A 13+ and U/A 16+ and made film piracy punishable with up to 3 years' jail.
• Chairpersons: Sharmila Tagore (2004–11), Leela Samson (2011–15), Pahlaj Nihalani (2015–17), Prasoon Joshi (2017–26), Shashi Shekhar Vempati (May 2026 –).
• Vempati was CEO of Prasar Bharati (2017–22), which runs Doordarshan and All India Radio; it was created by the Prasar Bharati Act, 1990 and became autonomous on 23 November 1997.
• Prasoon Joshi is the lyricist-adman (McCann Worldgroup) who wrote Taare Zameen Par and Bhaag Milkha Bhaag; Padma Shri 2015.
• The Board began in 1951 as the Central Board of Film Censors and was renamed CBFC in 1983; it certifies films but does not itself produce or fund them.
Do not mix these up
• CBFC vs Prasar Bharati — CBFC certifies films for public exhibition; Prasar Bharati is the public broadcaster (DD and AIR). Vempati has now headed both bodies.
• CBFC vs FTII / NFDC — FTII (Pune) trains film-makers and NFDC finances and distributes films; only the CBFC issues certificates.
Also asked from this topic: the organisation that certifies films before public release in India (Central Board of Film Certification).

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q41. How many days of wage employment are guaranteed under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

(a) 100 days
(b) 110 days
(c) 125 days
(d) 150 days

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 125 days

Answer: Option 3 — 125 days
The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 (VB-G RAM G) guarantees every rural household 125 days of unskilled wage employment in a financial year.
It replaced the MGNREGA, 2005, which guaranteed 100 days — so the guarantee went up by 25 days.
Revision note — VB-G RAM G Act, 2025
• The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 15 December 2025 by Rural Development Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
• Both Houses passed it in the winter session and it received the President's assent on 21 December 2025.
• It repeals the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 — the law in force since February 2006 — and the scheme drops Gandhi's name.
• Guarantee: 125 days a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work; the household still applies for work and must be given it within 15 days.
• Funding changes from the Centre paying the whole unskilled wage bill to a 60 : 40 Centre–State share (about 90 : 10 for the North-Eastern and Himalayan states).
• States may notify a pause of up to 60 days in the peak agricultural season, when work under the Act need not be provided so that farm labour is not drawn away.
• Works are grouped under themes such as water security, rural infrastructure, livelihood assets and Viksit Gaon planning, with the Gram Panchayat at the centre of planning.
Do not mix these up
• VB-G RAM G vs PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana — the first is a rural wage-employment law (125 days); the second, announced on 15 August 2025, pays ₹15,000 to youth in their first private-sector job.
• 125 days vs 100 days — 100 days was the MGNREGA guarantee; the new Act raises it to 125.
Also asked from this topic: the Act that VB-G RAM G replaced (MGNREGA, 2005); the number of days now guaranteed (125); the kind of work guaranteed under the rural employment law (unskilled manual work).

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q42. Who notifies wage rates under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

(a) State Government
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Central Government
(d) District Officer

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Government

Answer: Option 3 — Central Government
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 the wage rate for unskilled manual work is notified by the Central Government, as it was under MGNREGA.
The rate differs from state to state, but the power to fix it stays with the Centre.
Only the wage is the Centre's call — the State runs the scheme on the ground and the Gram Panchayat plans and executes the works.
Revision note — Who does what under the rural employment guarantee
• Central Government: notifies the wage rate, frames the scheme, funds 60 per cent of the cost (about 90 per cent in North-Eastern and Himalayan states) and runs the national monitoring system.
• State Government: bears the remaining share, notifies the agricultural-season pause of up to 60 days, and pays the unemployment allowance if work is not given within 15 days of demand.
• Gram Panchayat: registers households, issues job cards, prepares the shelf of works and executes a large share of them; the Gram Sabha conducts the social audit.
• District level: the District Programme Coordinator (usually the Collector) supervises implementation; the Programme Officer at the block level allots work.
• Wages must be paid within 15 days of the work being done; delay attracts compensation to the worker.
• The guarantee is 125 days a household a year, up from 100 days under MGNREGA, 2005, which the Act repealed in December 2025.
Do not mix these up
• Wage rate vs unemployment allowance — the Centre notifies the wage; the State pays the allowance when it fails to provide work.
• Gram Panchayat vs Gram Sabha — the Panchayat plans and executes the works; the Sabha audits them.
Also asked from this topic: the Act replaced by VB-G RAM G (MGNREGA, 2005); the days of employment guaranteed (125); the type of work guaranteed to registered rural households (unskilled manual work).

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q43. Which Malayalam film actor was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2026?

(a) Mohanlal
(b) Mammootty
(c) Sreenivasan
(d) Dulquer Salmaan

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mammootty

Answer: Option 2 — Mammootty
Mammootty was named for the Padma Bhushan 2026 in the Art category, in the list announced on the eve of Republic Day, for his contribution to Malayalam and Indian cinema.
Mohanlal already holds the Padma Bhushan — he received it in 2019 — so he cannot be the 2026 awardee.
Revision note — Mammootty and the Padma Awards 2026
• Mammootty (Muhammad Kutty Paniparambil Ismail) was born on 7 September 1951 at Chandiroor (Alappuzha district) and grew up at Chempu near Vaikom (Kottayam district), Kerala; Dulquer Salmaan is his son.
• He received the Padma Shri in 1998 and has three National Film Awards for Best Actor — 1989, 1993 and 1998 (Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar).
• Mohanlal: Padma Shri 2001, Padma Bhushan 2019, and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2023, presented in September 2025; he is an honorary Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army.
• Padma Awards 2026 are announced on the eve of Republic Day and conferred by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan; the 2026 investitures were held in May 2026.
• Other Padma Bhushan 2026 names: Uday Kotak (Trade and Industry), Vijay Amritraj (Sports, tennis) and Shibu Soren (Public Affairs, posthumous).
• Padma Vibhushan 2026 went to actor Dharmendra (posthumous), violinist N. Rajam and former Supreme Court judge K. T. Thomas, among others.
Do not mix these up
• Mammootty vs Mohanlal — both are Malayalam superstars, but Mammootty's Padma Bhushan is 2026; Mohanlal's is 2019 and he holds the Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
• Padma Bhushan vs Padma Vibhushan — Vibhushan is the higher of the two; only the Bharat Ratna ranks above it.
Also asked from this topic: the actor given the Padma Bhushan 2026 for art (Mammootty); the honour Mohanlal received in September 2025 (Dadasaheb Phalke Award).

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q44. Which woman cricketer was honored with the Padma Shri 2026 award?

(a) Harmanpreet Kaur
(b) Smriti Mandhana
(c) Mithali Raj
(d) Jhulan Goswami

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Harmanpreet Kaur

Answer: Option 1 — Harmanpreet Kaur
Harmanpreet Kaur, who captained India to its first Women's ODI World Cup title in November 2025, was awarded the Padma Shri 2026 in the Sports category.
Mithali Raj and Jhulan Goswami are earlier Padma Shri winners (2015 and 2012); Smriti Mandhana has not received a Padma award.
Revision note — Harmanpreet Kaur and the 2025 World Cup
• Born 8 March 1989 at Moga, Punjab; captain of India in all formats and of Mumbai Indians, whom she led to the WPL titles of 2023 and 2025.
• India beat South Africa by 52 runs in the ICC Women's ODI World Cup final on 2 November 2025 at the DY Patil Stadium, Navi Mumbai — the country's first women's World Cup.
• Her 171 not out against Australia in the 2017 World Cup semi-final at Derby is a landmark innings; she was the first Indian woman to score a T20I century (2018, v New Zealand).
• Arjuna Award 2017; Padma Shri 2026; by 2026 she was India's most-capped woman cricketer and in June 2026 became the first player, man or woman, to play 200 T20 Internationals.
• Other sports Padma Shri 2026 winners: Rohit Sharma (cricket), Praveen Kumar (para high jump) and Baldev Singh; Vijay Amritraj got the Padma Bhushan.
• Earlier women cricketers with the Padma Shri: Diana Edulji (2002), Jhulan Goswami (2012) and Mithali Raj (2015); Mithali also holds the Khel Ratna (2021).
Do not mix these up
• Harmanpreet Kaur vs Smriti Mandhana — Harmanpreet is the captain and the 2026 Padma Shri winner; Mandhana is the vice-captain and opener, twice ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year (2018, 2021) and the ICC Women's ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2024.
• Padma Shri vs Arjuna Award — the Padma Shri is a civilian honour from the President; the Arjuna Award is the sports ministry's award for a sportsperson.
Also asked from this topic: the woman cricketer awarded the Padma Shri 2026 (Harmanpreet Kaur); the achievement behind it (India's maiden ODI World Cup title).

← 12 September 2026 Shift 2 All shifts 15 September 2026 Shift 2 →

📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): SSC Stenographer previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz

Medieval History (3)

Q1. Which Bahmani Sultan was honored with the title "Second Aristotle" due to his intellectual and administrative abilities?

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the historical and architectural significance of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque?

Q3. Mahmud of Ghazni's numerous raids into the Indian subcontinent were primarily driven by which objective?

Modern History (3)

Q4. The Act of Settlement, 1781, was enacted to correct what major flaw of the Regulating Act?

Q5. Which key principle was institutionalized by Pitt’s India Act, 1784?

Q6. What was the most politically sensitive implication of the Charter Act of 1813?

Polity (6)

Q7. Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective and constitutional impact of the 45th Amendment Act, 1980?

Q8. Which of the following practices is specifically prohibited by Article 23 of the Indian Constitution as a violation of fundamental rights?

Q9. Which of the following powers of the Supreme Court best exemplifies its role as the "Guardian of the Constitution"?

Q10. Who, as of July 2025, is India's Minister of External Affairs?

Q11. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Q12. Under the Constitution of India, which Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) serves as the foundational basis for the advocacy of a Uniform Civil Code?

Static GK (11)

Q13. Which of the following authors won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Hindi and later the Jnanpith Award, and is known for novels like Rag Darbari?

Q14. Rukmini Devi Arundale is remembered for reviving which traditional Indian art form and integrating it into modern education?

Q15. The 2023 National Games, held in Goa, introduced water sports as a competitive category. What was the rationale behind this inclusion in context to Goa’s geography and economy?

Q16. In which year did the National Games officially replace the All India Olympic Games, and why was this transition important?

Q17. In Commonwealth Games, which rare occurrence led to medal redistribution in women’s relay team in 2010 Delhi Games?

Q18. Why was Russia banned from the 2020 and 2022 Olympics under the neutral flag status?

Q19. Which of the following statements about Melakarta Ragas in Carnatic music is/are correct?Statement 1: There are 72 Melakarta ragas, which are parent scales.Statement 2: All Melakarta ragas are derived from Janya ragas.

Q20. What is the significance of the Saraswati Samman, and who won it for a Marathi novel in 2020?

Q21. What is the width of the take-off board in long jump?

Q22. High jump requires athletes to take off from:

Q23. Which of the following personalities is primarily known as a social reformer?

Geography (9)

Q24. Which of the following statements best describes the mandate and global relevance of the Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), particularly in the context of international conservation frameworks?

Q25. Which of the following statements best explains the process of soilfluction, its geographic occurrence, and its geomorphic implications, particularly in periglacial and high-latitude environments?

Q26. The Eastern and Western Ghats influence India's topography and rainfall patterns. Which of the following is a key difference between the two ranges?

Q27. Which of the following rivers forms the largest delta in the world before entering the Bay of Bengal?

Q28. Which Indian state is the leading producer of iron ore in India, particularly known for its rich deposits of high-grade hematite?

Q29. What is the main focus of economic geography?

Q30. Which is the most important river basin for agriculture in northern India?

Q31. As per 2025 demographics, what is India's population density (people per sq. km)?

Q32. As per projections, which region's share of overall Indian population is set to decrease in 2025 and beyond?

Economics (3)

Q33. India's consistent rise in the Global Climate Risk Index signifies what major challenge in its environmental and disaster management system?

Q34. In the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2024, India ranked near the bottom globally. What is the primary reason for such a low rating despite ongoing environmental programs like National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?

Q35. Which scheme provides free LPG connections to women from poor households in India?

Chemistry (1)

Q36. The AQI of Delhi during winter often exceeds 400. What is the primary scientific and policy-based reason for such critical levels?

Ancient History (2)

Q37. Evaluate the following statements related to the Gupta period:Statement 1: The Gupta period witnessed a revival of Brahmanical traditions and Sanskrit literature.Statement 2: The Guptas issued only copper coins with Prakrit inscriptions.Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q38. The Ajanta caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were primarily excavated during the reign of which dynasty?

Current Affairs (6)

Q39. Who has been appointed as the new Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026?

Q40. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification in May 2026?

Q41. How many days of wage employment are guaranteed under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

Q42. Who notifies wage rates under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

Q43. Which Malayalam film actor was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2026?

Q44. Which woman cricketer was honored with the Padma Shri 2026 award?

Q19. Which of the following statements about Melakarta Ragas in Carnatic music is/are correct?
Statement 1: There are 72 Melakarta ragas, which are parent scales.
Statement 2: All Melakarta ragas are derived from Janya ragas.

Q37. Evaluate the following statements related to the Gupta period:
Statement 1: The Gupta period witnessed a revival of Brahmanical traditions and Sanskrit literature.
Statement 2: The Guptas issued only copper coins with Prakrit inscriptions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?