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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 18 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 18 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Static GK, Geography, Medieval History, Polity, Economics.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 18 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Ancient History (1) · Static GK (13) · Geography (1) · Medieval History (1) · Polity (10) · Economics (15) · Current Affairs (7)

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Vakatakas, Maitrakas and Maukharis

Q1. Who is the founder of the Vakataka dynasty?

  1. (a) Gautamiputra Satkarni
  2. (b) Vindhyashakti
  3. (c) Harishena
  4. (d) Pravarasena I
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vindhyashakti

The Vakataka dynasty was founded by Vindhyashakti around 250 CE. The Vakatakas were a powerful dynasty that ruled over parts of central India (present-day Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh) and played an important role in patronising art, literature, and the Ajanta Caves.
Option 1 is incorrect: Gautamiputra Satkarni was a great ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, not the Vakataka dynasty.
Option 3 is incorrect: Harishena was a later Vakataka ruler (not the founder) known for his patronage of the Ajanta cave paintings.
Option 4 is incorrect: Pravarasena I was a subsequent Vakataka king who expanded the dynasty but did not found it.

Static GK (13)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q2. Where is the famous Jallikattu (bull-taming) event held every January?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu

Jallikattu is a traditional bull-taming sport celebrated mainly in Tamil Nadu, especially during the Pongal festival in January. It is most prominently held in Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, and Pudukkottai districts. The sport involves participants trying to tame or hold onto a bull.
Option 2 is incorrect: Maharashtra has its own traditional festivals but Jallikattu is not associated with it.
Option 3 is incorrect: Gujarat celebrates different traditional events such as Uttarayan (kite festival) in January.
Option 4 is incorrect: Karnataka does not have a tradition of Jallikattu ; it has its own distinct cultural events.
Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q3. Who is known as the "Agni Putri" for her contributions to the Agni missile program?

  1. (a) Dr. Tessy Thomas
  2. (b) Dr. Sudha Murthy
  3. (c) Dr. Ritu Karidhal
  4. (d) Dr. Anuradha TK
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr. Tessy Thomas

Dr. Tessy Thomas is known as the "Agni Putri" (Daughter of Agni/Missile Woman of India) for her outstanding contributions to India's Agni missile program. She served as the Project Director for Agni-IV and Agni-V missiles at DRDO ( Defence Research and Development Organisation ). She was also the first woman scientist to head a missile project in India.
Option 2 is incorrect: Dr. Sudha Murthy is a renowned philanthropist, author, and former Chairperson of Infosys Foundation; she is not connected to India's missile program.
Option 3 is incorrect: Dr. Ritu Karidhal, known as the 'Rocket Woman of India,' was the Mission Director of Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission), not the Agni missile program.
Option 4 is incorrect: Dr. Anuradha TK is a distinguished ISRO scientist known for geostationary satellites, not the Agni missile program.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q4. Which Indian-American physician and author won the Pulitzer Prize for General Non-Fiction in 2011 for "The Emperor of All Maladies"?

  1. (a) Nawab Pate
  2. (b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
  3. (c) Atul Gawande
  4. (d) Vikram Seth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Siddhartha Mukherjee

Siddhartha Mukherjee, an Indian-American oncologist and author, won the Pulitzer Prize for General Non-Fiction in 2011 for his book 'The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer.' The book traces the history of cancer and its treatment from ancient times to modern oncology. Mukherjee is a professor at Columbia University and a practicing cancer physician.
Option 1 is incorrect: Nawab Pate is not a well-known author associated with this award.
Option 3 is incorrect: Atul Gawande is a renowned Indian-American surgeon and author (known for 'Complications', 'Being Mortal'), but he did not win the 2011 Pulitzer for this book.
Option 4 is incorrect: Vikram Seth is an Indian author known for 'A Suitable Boy' and other works; he is not a physician and did not write 'The Emperor of All Maladies.'
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q5. In which language did the book "Jaler Upar Pani" by Swapnamay Chakrabarti win the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2023?

  1. (a) Bengali
  2. (b) Asameses
  3. (c) Dogri
  4. (d) Odia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bengali

The book 'Jaler Upar Pani' (Water Above Water) by Swapnamay Chakrabarti won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2023 in the Bengali language. Swapnamay Chakrabarti is a noted Bengali novelist and the book won for the category of novel. The Sahitya Akademi Award is India's second highest literary honour and is given for outstanding works in 24 languages.
Option 2 is incorrect: Asameses (Assamese) had a different winner for the 2023 Sahitya Akademi Award; 'Jaler Upar Pani' is a Bengali-language work.
Option 3 is incorrect: Dogri is a language spoken mainly in the Jammu region; this book was not written in Dogri.
Option 4 is incorrect: Odia had a different winner for the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2023; the book by Chakrabarti is in Bengali.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. The Kannada novel "Om Namo" received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2000. Who is its author?

  1. (a) Shantinath K. Desai
  2. (b) Chaduranga
  3. (c) Vyasaraya Ballal
  4. (d) G.S. Amur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shantinath K. Desai

The Kannada novel 'Om Namo' was written by Shantinath K. Desai and received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2000. Shantinath Kudalasangamadeva Desai (1929-2004) was a prominent Kannada writer known for his modernist approach to literature. 'Om Namo' is a significant philosophical and literary work in Kannada literature.
Option 2 is incorrect: Chaduranga (pen name of Venkatacharya ) is another noted Kannada writer but is not the author of 'Om Namo.'
Option 3 is incorrect: Vyasaraya Ballal is a Kannada writer known for works like ' Bangarada Manusya ' script, but not for 'Om Namo.'
Option 4 is incorrect: G.S. Amur is a Kannada literary critic and not the author of 'Om Namo.'
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q7. Which classical dance is associated with the 'Bhagavata Mela' tradition?

  1. (a) Bharatanatyam
  2. (b) Kathakali
  3. (c) Kuchipudi
  4. (d) Sattriya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kuchipudi

Kuchipudi classical dance form is associated with the 'Bhagavata Mela' tradition. Kuchipudi originated in the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh and evolved from the Bhagavata Mela Natakam (dance-drama performance based on the Bhagavata Purana). It was traditionally performed by male Brahmin dancers of the Kuchipudi village as a form of religious offering.
Option 1 is incorrect: Bharatanatyam, which originated in Tamil Nadu, is associated with the Devadasi tradition and Natyashastra, not specifically with Bhagavata Mela.
Option 2 is incorrect: Kathakali from Kerala is associated with Kathakali Attaprakaram and stories from epics; it is not associated with Bhagavata Mela.
Option 4 is incorrect: Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam originated in Satras (Vaishnavite monasteries) by Srimanta Sankaradeva; it is not connected to Bhagavata Mela.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q8. The classical dance form Manipuri is traditionally associated with which Indian deity?

  1. (a) Shiva
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Rama
  4. (d) Ganesha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Krishna

Manipuri classical dance is traditionally associated with Lord Krishna, specifically with the Vaishnavite tradition. It prominently features the Ras Lila performances - depicting the divine love between Krishna and Radha and the Gopis (cowherd maidens). The Ras Lila performances of Manipuri are celebrated during autumn, particularly during the full moon nights.
Option 1 is incorrect: While Shiva is an important deity in Manipur, Manipuri classical dance is primarily centred on Krishna bhakti (devotion) and Vaishnavism.
Option 3 is incorrect: Rama is associated with Ramleela performances and Kuchipudi's Bhama Kalapam , not specifically with Manipuri dance.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ganesha is worshipped at the beginning of most classical dance performances but is not the primary deity associated with Manipuri dance.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q9. The short-story collection " Krouncha Pakshigalu " (2009) was written by ________.

  1. (a) Vaidehi
  2. (b) Shrinivas B. Vaidya
  3. (c) Yashwant Chittal
  4. (d) P. Lankesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vaidehi

The short-story collection ' Krouncha Pakshigalu ' (2009) was written by Vaidehi, the pen name of Janaki Srinivasa Murthy, a distinguished Kannada writer from Karnataka. Vaidehi is known for her sensitive portrayal of women's lives and social issues. She has received the Sahitya Akademi Award and several other prestigious literary honours for her contributions to Kannada literature.
Option 2 is incorrect: Shrinivas B. Vaidya is another Kannada literary figure but is not the author of ' Krouncha Pakshigalu .'
Option 3 is incorrect: Yashwant Chittal is a noted Kannada novelist known for 'Shikari' and other works, but he did not write this short-story collection.
Option 4 is incorrect: P. Lankesh ( Purnachandra Tejaswi's contemporary) was a prominent Kannada writer and journalist, but ' Krouncha Pakshigalu ' was written by Vaidehi.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q10. The term "Triple Axel" is associated with which sport?

  1. (a) Gymnastics
  2. (b) Figure Skating
  3. (c) Diving
  4. (d) Ski Jumping
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Figure Skating

The Triple Axel is a jump performed in Figure Skating. It involves 3.5 rotations in the air and is considered one of the most difficult jumps in figure skating. Named after Norwegian skater Axel Paulsen who invented the Axel jump in 1882, the Triple Axel was first landed in competition by Canadian skater Vern Taylor in 1978. Japanese skater Midori Ito was the first woman to land it in competition in 1989.
Option 1 is incorrect: In Gymnastics, acrobatic moves are referred to as flips, twists, or somersaults, not axels. The term 'Axel' is specific to figure skating.
Option 3 is incorrect: In Diving, jumps are categorised by somersaults, twists, and pike/tuck positions; 'Axel' is not a diving term.
Option 4 is incorrect: In Ski Jumping, the movement involves a forward jump from a ramp; 'Axel' is not used to describe ski jumping techniques.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q11. The term "Puck Drop" is associated with __________.

  1. (a) ice hockey
  2. (b) baseball
  3. (c) softball
  4. (d) kabaddi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ice hockey

The 'Puck Drop' is the ceremonial start of an ice hockey game, where a ceremonial participant drops the puck (a hard rubber disc) at centre ice to begin the match. In competitive games, a face-off takes place where two opposing players contest for the puck after it is dropped by the referee. 'Puck Drop' is also used informally to mean the start time of a hockey game.
Option 2 is incorrect: Baseball starts with a 'First Pitch,' where a ceremonial participant throws the opening pitch; not a puck drop .
Option 3 is incorrect: Softball, like baseball, begins with a pitch, not a puck drop . There is no puck in softball.
Option 4 is incorrect: Kabaddi, a contact sport popular in South Asia, begins with a raid, not a puck drop . It uses no equipment.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q12. The term "Eagle" refers to scoring in __.

  1. (a) archery
  2. (b) golf
  3. (c) polo
  4. (d) rowing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) golf

In Golf, an 'Eagle' means completing a hole in 2 strokes under par. For example, completing a par-5 hole in 3 strokes, or a par-4 hole in 2 strokes, is called an Eagle. The scoring terms in golf use bird names: Birdie (1 under par), Eagle (2 under par), Albatross or Double Eagle (3 under par), Condor (4 under par). A Bogey means 1 over par.
Option 1 is incorrect: Archery scoring is based on rings (1-10 points) and the innermost ring is called a bullseye or gold; 'Eagle' is not an archery term.
Option 3 is incorrect: Polo is a team sport played on horseback where the scoring term is simply 'goal'; 'Eagle' is not used.
Option 4 is incorrect: In Rowing, racing results are measured in time; 'Eagle' is not a scoring term used in rowing.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q13. Which sport has the most Olympic medals for India historically?

  1. (a) Shooting
  2. (b) Wrestling
  3. (c) Field Hockey
  4. (d) Athletics
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Field Hockey

Field Hockey has historically given India the most Olympic medals. India's field hockey team has won a total of 12 Olympic medals including 8 gold medals (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1960, 1964), 1 silver, and 3 bronze medals. India dominated international field hockey for several decades, particularly from 1928-1964. This makes field hockey India's most successful Olympic sport by total medal count.
Option 1 is incorrect: Shooting has brought India several medals (including Abhinav Bindra's individual gold in 2008), but the total count is far less than field hockey.
Option 2 is incorrect: Wrestling has given India some medals at the Olympics (Sushil Kumar, Bajrang Punia, Sakshi Malik), but fewer than field hockey.
Option 4 is incorrect: Athletics has not been a major medal-winning sport for India at the Olympics, though Neeraj Chopra's gold in javelin at Tokyo 2020 was historic.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q14. Which writer's work, "The Private Life of an Indian Prince," is a semi-autobiographical critique of princely politics?

  1. (a) Mulk Raj Anand
  2. (b) Khushwant Singh
  3. (c) Manohar Malgonkar
  4. (d) Ruskin Bond
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mulk Raj Anand

'The Private Life of an Indian Prince' (1953) was written by Mulk Raj Anand, one of the pioneers of Indian writing in English. The novel is considered semi-autobiographical and depicts the life of a fictional Maharaja of Shampur whose extravagant lifestyle and psychological deterioration reflect the decline of the princely order after Indian Independence. Mulk Raj Anand was known for his socially conscious writing and is best known for 'Untouchable' (1935) and 'Coolie' (1936).
Option 2 is incorrect: Khushwant Singh was a prolific Indian author known for 'Train to Pakistan' and his two-volume history of the Sikhs; he did not write this novel.
Option 3 is incorrect: Manohar Malgonkar was an Indian English author known for 'A Bend in the Ganges' and 'The Princes'; he did not write 'The Private Life of an Indian Prince.'
Option 4 is incorrect: Ruskin Bond is a beloved Indian-British author known for his stories set in the Himalayan foothills; he did not write this political novel about princely India.

Geography (1)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q15. The Vindhya Mountain Range separates which two regions of the country?

  1. (a) North and South India
  2. (b) East and West India
  3. (c) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
  4. (d) Himalayas and Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) North and South India

The Vindhya Range acts as a traditional geographical divide between North India (the Indo-Gangetic Plain) and the Deccan Plateau (South India). It runs across central India through Madhya Pradesh and has long been considered a cultural and geographical boundary between northern and peninsular India.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Vindhyas run roughly east-west, so they do not divide East from West India.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Western and Eastern Ghats are located along the coasts of peninsular India and are separate from the Vindhya Range.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Himalayas and Deccan Plateau are not separated by the Vindhya Range; they are distinct landforms at different latitudes.

Medieval History (1)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q16. The Chola Dynasty is known for its naval expeditions to which region?

  1. (a) Arabian Peninsula
  2. (b) Southeast Asia
  3. (c) Central Asia
  4. (d) East Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Southeast Asia

The Chola Dynasty (particularly under Rajendra Chola I in the 11th century CE) was renowned for its powerful navy and its famous maritime expeditions to Southeast Asia. They launched military campaigns against kingdoms in present-day Malaysia, Indonesia (Srivijaya kingdom), and even reached Sri Lanka. Their naval dominance allowed them to control trade routes in the Indian Ocean and Bay of Bengal.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Cholas did not conduct major naval expeditions to the Arabian Peninsula.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Cholas had no significant military or naval presence in Central Asia.
Option 4 is incorrect: While there were trade contacts with East Africa, the Cholas were not known for naval expeditions to that region.

Polity (10)

Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q17. Which house of Parliament is called the Upper House?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha
  2. (b) Rajya Sabha
  3. (c) Vidhan Sabha
  4. (d) Gram Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha

The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament. It is a permanent house that cannot be dissolved; one-third of its members retire every two years. It represents the states and Union Territories of India. The Lok Sabha is the Lower House (House of the People), while Vidhan Sabha and Gram Sabha are state-level and village-level bodies respectively.
Option 1 is incorrect: Lok Sabha is the Lower House of the Indian Parliament, directly elected by the people.
Option 3 is incorrect: Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of a State Legislature, not of the Parliament.
Option 4 is incorrect: Gram Sabha is a village-level body consisting of all voters of a village, not a house of Parliament.
State Government · Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

Q18. Who has the authority to appoint the Chief Minister of an Indian state?

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Prime Minister
  3. (c) Governor
  4. (d) Chief Justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Governor

Under Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Minister of a state is appointed by the Governor. Conventionally, the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly as Chief Minister. The Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state.
Option 1 is incorrect: The President appoints the Prime Minister and other central government officials, not state Chief Ministers.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Prime Minister has no constitutional role in the appointment of state Chief Ministers.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Chief Justice has no role in appointing Chief Ministers; the judiciary is separate from executive appointments.
Union Executive · Attorney General and Solicitor General

Q19. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

  1. (a) President
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Law Minister
  4. (d) Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) President

Under Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. The Attorney General must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., has been a High Court Judge for 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for 10 years, or an eminent jurist). The Attorney General is the first law officer of India.
Option 2 is incorrect: Parliament does not have the authority to appoint the Attorney General; it is an executive appointment.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Law Minister may advise on the appointment but does not have the constitutional authority to make it.
Option 4 is incorrect: Although the Prime Minister advises the President on such appointments, the formal constitutional power of appointment rests with the President.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q20. The Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in:

  1. (a) Article 43
  2. (b) Article 44
  3. (c) Article 45
  4. (d) Article 47
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 44

Article 44 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for citizens throughout the territory of India. It is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which means it is not justiciable (not enforceable by courts) but is fundamental to governance.
Option 1 is incorrect: Article 43 deals with living wages, decent standard of life, and conditions of work for workers.
Option 3 is incorrect: Article 45 (after the 86th Amendment, 2002) deals with provision for early childhood care and education for children below six years of age.
Option 4 is incorrect: Article 47 directs the State to raise the level of nutrition, standard of living and to improve public health; it also contains provisions regarding prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs.
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q21. Which article empowers the president to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 83
  2. (b) Article 84
  3. (c) Article 85
  4. (d) None
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) None

No article empowers the President to dissolve the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house of the Indian Parliament and cannot be dissolved at all. Article 83(1) specifically states that the Rajya Sabha shall not be subject to dissolution. One-third of its members retire every two years, ensuring continuity. Only the Lok Sabha can be dissolved (under Article 85 by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister).
Option 1 is incorrect: Article 83 deals with the duration of both Houses of Parliament; it explicitly states Rajya Sabha is permanent.
Option 2 is incorrect: Article 84 lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament; it has nothing to do with dissolution.
Option 3 is incorrect: Article 85 empowers the President to prorogue or dissolve the Lok Sabha (not the Rajya Sabha) and to summon Parliament.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q22. What act did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replace?

  1. (a) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  2. (b) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  3. (c) Indian Penal Code, 1860
  4. (d) Crime for Repressive States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Penal Code, 1860

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 - India's primary criminal code. The three new criminal laws enacted in 2023 are: (1) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaced IPC 1860; (2) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973; (3) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872. All three came into effect on 1 July 2024.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Crime for Repressive States' is not a real law; it is not relevant to this question.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q23. Article 300A of the constitution of India protects:

  1. (a) Union property from State laws
  2. (b) Right to property as legal right
  3. (c) Right to carry on trade
  4. (d) State property from Union laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Right to property as legal right

Article 300A of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, states: 'No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.' This provision protects the right to property as a legal/constitutional right (though not a Fundamental Right after the 44th Amendment removed it from Part III). It means the government cannot arbitrarily take away a person's property without the sanction of law.
Option 1 is incorrect: The protection of Union property from State laws is dealt with under other provisions; Article 300A protects individual property rights.
Option 3 is incorrect: The right to carry on trade, business or profession is protected under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution.
Option 4 is incorrect: Protection of State property from Union laws is not the subject matter of Article 300A.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q24. Who was the Chief Election Commissioner of India during the 2024 Lok Sabha elections?

  1. (a) Rajiv Kumar
  2. (b) Anup Chandra Pandey
  3. (c) Gyanesh Kumar
  4. (d) Sushil Chandra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajiv Kumar

Rajiv Kumar was the Chief Election Commissioner of India during the 2024 Lok Sabha General Elections (April-June 2024). He served as CEC from May 2022 until February 2025. The 2024 Lok Sabha elections were held in seven phases from April 19 to June 1, 2024, with results declared on June 4, 2024.
Option 2 is incorrect: Anup Chandra Pandey served as an Election Commissioner but not as the Chief Election Commissioner during the 2024 elections.
Option 3 is incorrect: Gyanesh Kumar was appointed as Chief Election Commissioner after Rajiv Kumar's retirement in February 2025; he was not CEC during the 2024 elections.
Option 4 is incorrect: Sushil Chandra served as CEC from April 2021 to May 2022 - before the 2024 elections.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q25. Allowing police custody in instalments during the early portion of judicial custody under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023 may result in which practical implication for an accused?

  1. (a) Automatic issuance of anticipatory bail
  2. (b) Denial of bail for the full sixty or ninety days period
  3. (c) Mandatory discharge after fifteen days
  4. (d) Immediate release on surety
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Denial of bail for the full sixty or ninety days period

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, police custody can be sought in instalments during the first 40 days (for offences punishable by up to 10 years) or first 60 days (for more serious offences) of judicial custody. This provision means that police can repeatedly request custody over this period without the accused being granted bail. As a result, an accused may effectively be denied bail for the full sixty or ninety-day period of detention, since bail is typically not granted while police custody is being sought or maintained.
Option 1 is incorrect: Police custody in instalments does not lead to automatic issuance of anticipatory bail; anticipatory bail is sought before arrest under separate provisions.
Option 3 is incorrect: Mandatory discharge after fifteen days is not a consequence; the BNSS provides for extended periods of custody if authorised by the court.
Option 4 is incorrect: Immediate release on surety is not a consequence of police custody in instalments; surety is a bail-related concept that does not apply during the police custody phase.
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q26. In 2025, which body issued the calendar for organising National Lok Adalats ?

  1. (a) Law Commission of India
  2. (b) Bar Council of India
  3. (c) National Legal Services Authority
  4. (d) Department of Justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Legal Services Authority

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) issued the calendar for organising National Lok Adalats in 2025. NALSA, constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, is the apex body for providing free legal services to eligible persons and for organising Lok Adalats . National Lok Adalats are held on a single day across the country simultaneously, on dates notified by NALSA.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is an advisory body that recommends law reforms; it does not organise Lok Adalats .
Option 2 is incorrect: The Bar Council of India regulates the legal profession and conducts examinations for advocates; it does not organise Lok Adalats .
Option 4 is incorrect: The Department of Justice (under Ministry of Law and Justice) oversees judicial appointments and infrastructure; the Lok Adalat calendar is specifically issued by NALSA.

Economics (15)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q27. Which of these is a BRICS partner country from Africa?

  1. (a) Uganda
  2. (b) Bolivia
  3. (c) Malaysia
  4. (d) Kazakhstan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uganda

Uganda is a BRICS partner country from Africa. In 2024, BRICS expanded significantly. During the Kazan Summit in October 2024, thirteen countries were invited to become BRICS partner states, including Uganda from Africa. This partnership status represents a formal association below full membership.
Option 2 is incorrect: Bolivia is from South America; it was also invited as a BRICS partner country but is not from Africa.
Option 3 is incorrect: Malaysia is from Southeast Asia; it was invited as a BRICS partner but is not from Africa.
Option 4 is incorrect: Kazakhstan is from Central Asia; it was also invited as a BRICS partner but is not from Africa.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q28. The First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) focused mainly on:

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Heavy industries
  3. (c) Infrastructure
  4. (d) Defence
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Agriculture

India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956), drafted by K.N. Raj and based on the Harrod-Domar model, focused primarily on agriculture and irrigation. This was because India had just faced severe food shortages and the partition had disrupted agricultural areas. The plan gave highest priority to rehabilitation, agriculture, irrigation, and power projects (especially the Bhakra Nangal dam). About 44.6% of total plan outlay was allocated to agriculture and irrigation.
Option 2 is incorrect: Heavy industries were the focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) based on the Mahalanobis model.
Option 3 is incorrect: Infrastructure development was part of the plan but was not the primary focus.
Option 4 is incorrect: Defence was not a major focus of the First Five-Year Plan.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q29. The Planning Commission was set up in:

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1951
  4. (d) 1956
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1950

The Planning Commission of India was set up on 15 March 1950 by a Resolution of the Government of India, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as its first Chairman. The Planning Commission was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans. It was dissolved in 2014 and replaced by NITI Aayog in January 2015.
Option 1 is incorrect: 1947 was the year of India's Independence; the Planning Commission had not yet been established.
Option 3 is incorrect: 1951 was when the First Five-Year Plan was launched, not when the Planning Commission was set up.
Option 4 is incorrect: 1956 is associated with the launch of the Second Five-Year Plan, not the establishment of the Planning Commission.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q30. What was the aim of the reduction of customs duties in 1991?

  1. (a) Protecting domestic industries
  2. (b) Increasing revenue only
  3. (c) Promoting exports and integration with the global market
  4. (d) Encouraging import substitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promoting exports and integration with the global market

In 1991, India undertook major economic liberalisation reforms under Finance Minister Manmohan Singh. The reduction of customs duties (import tariffs) was aimed at promoting exports and integrating the Indian economy with the global market. By reducing tariffs, Indian industries were exposed to global competition, encouraging efficiency, quality improvement, and export orientation. This was part of the broader LPG ( Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) reforms.
Option 1 is incorrect: Reducing customs duties actually reduced protection for domestic industries; protecting domestic industries was the goal of high tariffs (the pre-1991 policy of import substitution).
Option 2 is incorrect: Reducing customs duties generally reduces government revenue from customs; the goal was not just revenue generation.
Option 4 is incorrect: Import substitution was the old pre-1991 policy that relied on high tariffs and quotas to protect domestic producers; reducing duties was a move away from import substitution.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q31. Which institution was not primarily affected by the financial sector reforms post-1991?

  1. (a) Public sector banks
  2. (b) State Electricity Boards
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) State Electricity Boards

State Electricity Boards (SEBs) were not primarily affected by the financial sector reforms post-1991 because they are utility/infrastructure entities belonging to the power sector, not the financial sector. The post-1991 financial sector reforms focused on: deregulating interest rates, reducing SLR/CRR, privatising banks, introducing capital adequacy norms, strengthening SEBI, deregulating capital markets, and reforming the insurance sector.
Option 1 is incorrect: Public sector banks were significantly affected - the Narasimham Committee Reports (1991 and 1998) recommended major reforms in banking, including recapitalisation , autonomy, and prudential norms.
Option 3 is incorrect: RBI's role was substantially reformed in 1991 - it became more autonomous, interest rate deregulation occurred, and its regulatory functions were strengthened.
Option 4 is incorrect: NABARD's operational framework and agricultural credit policies were also influenced by the broader financial sector reforms.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q32. In which year was the rupee made fully convertible on the current account?

  1. (a) 1991
  2. (b) 1992
  3. (c) 1994
  4. (d) 1996
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1994

India made the rupee fully convertible on the current account in 1994, when it accepted Article VIII of the IMF's Articles of Agreement. This meant that there were no restrictions on foreign exchange for trade in goods and services, remittances, and other current account transactions. Capital account convertibility (allowing free flow of investment funds) was not fully implemented and remains restricted to date.
Option 1 is incorrect: In 1991, India devalued the rupee and introduced the LPG reforms, but full current account convertibility was not achieved that year.
Option 2 is incorrect: In 1992, the Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) was introduced, allowing partial convertibility, but not full convertibility.
Option 4 is incorrect: 1996 is not the year of full current account convertibility; it was achieved in 1994.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q33. How did the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act, 1992, strengthen capital markets?

  1. (a) Providing statutory powers to regulate stock exchanges
  2. (b) Removing corporate tax on dividends
  3. (c) Allowing unrestricted foreign borrowing
  4. (d) Abolishing stamp duty
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Providing statutory powers to regulate stock exchanges

The SEBI Act, 1992 strengthened capital markets primarily by providing SEBI with statutory (legal) powers to regulate and oversee stock exchanges, brokers, and other securities market participants. Before the Act, SEBI (established in 1988) was an advisory body without statutory powers. The 1992 Act gave it full regulatory authority to register intermediaries, investigate market malpractices, prohibit insider trading, and protect investor interests.
Option 2 is incorrect: Removing corporate tax on dividends is a fiscal/tax policy matter handled by the Finance Ministry, not SEBI.
Option 3 is incorrect: Allowing unrestricted foreign borrowing is related to external commercial borrowing (ECB) policy under RBI and Ministry of Finance, not SEBI's mandate.
Option 4 is incorrect: Stamp duty on securities transactions is a state subject; SEBI has no authority to abolish stamp duty.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q34. Which of the following was the main objective of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956)?

  1. (a) Export-oriented industrialization
  2. (b) Development of defense industries
  3. (c) Agricultural development and irrigation projects
  4. (d) Rapid industrialization through heavy industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Agricultural development and irrigation projects

The main objective of India's First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) was agricultural development and irrigation projects. India faced severe food shortages after Partition and needed to become food self-sufficient. The plan allocated the highest priority to agriculture, land reforms, irrigation (including the Bhakra-Nangal dam), and rural development. The plan was largely successful - food grain production increased significantly.
Option 1 is incorrect: Export-oriented industrialisation became a focus of India's economic strategy only after the 1991 reforms.
Option 2 is incorrect: Development of defence industries was not a primary focus of the First Plan; India's defence sector expansion came later.
Option 4 is incorrect: Rapid industrialisation through heavy industries was the objective of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) based on the Mahalanobis model.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q35. The model used as a basis for industrialization strategy in India's Second Five-Year Plan is:

  1. (a) Mahalanobis model
  2. (b) Lewis model
  3. (c) Solow growth model
  4. (d) Harrod-Domar model
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahalanobis model

India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) was based on the Mahalanobis model, developed by the renowned statistician Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis . The model emphasised rapid industrialisation through heavy industries and the capital goods sector. It argued that investing in heavy industries (steel, machinery, power) would create capacity for future growth. This led to the establishment of major public sector steel plants at Bhilai , Durgapur, and Rourkela.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Lewis model (W. Arthur Lewis) is a development model about structural transformation from agriculture to industry; it was not the specific basis of India's Second Plan.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Solow growth model emphasises total factor productivity and technological change; it was not the basis of India's Second Plan.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Harrod-Domar model ( emphasising the savings-investment ratio) was used as a framework for India's First Five-Year Plan.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q36. What does the Laffer Curve in economics suggest?

  1. (a) Lower taxes always increase government revenue
  2. (b) Tax revenue is independent of tax rates
  3. (c) Higher taxes always raise government revenue
  4. (d) There exists an optimal tax rate that maximises revenue
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) There exists an optimal tax rate that maximises revenue

The Laffer Curve, developed by economist Arthur Laffer, suggests that there exists an optimal tax rate that maximises government tax revenue. The curve shows that both a 0% tax rate and a 100% tax rate generate zero revenue (at 0% no tax is collected; at 100% no one works because all earnings are taken). Therefore, there is some intermediate rate that maximises revenue. The concept was influential in supply-side economics and the Reagan tax cuts of the 1980s.
Option 1 is incorrect: Lower taxes do not always increase government revenue; if tax rates are already below the optimal point, cutting taxes would reduce revenue.
Option 2 is incorrect: Tax revenue is NOT independent of tax rates; the Laffer Curve specifically illustrates the relationship between tax rates and revenue.
Option 3 is incorrect: Higher taxes do not always raise revenue; if rates exceed the optimal point, higher taxes reduce economic activity and thus reduce total tax collection.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q37. What happens when there is a decrease in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?

  1. (a) Increase in interest rates
  2. (b) Increase in banks' lendable resources
  3. (c) Reduction in money supply
  4. (d) Contraction of credit
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Increase in banks' lendable resources

When the RBI decreases the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), commercial banks are required to maintain a lower proportion of their deposits as cash reserves with the RBI. This frees up more funds that banks can lend to customers, thereby increasing banks' lendable resources. This leads to credit expansion and an increase in money supply in the economy. A decrease in CRR is an expansionary monetary policy tool used to inject liquidity.
Option 1 is incorrect: A decrease in CRR generally leads to a decrease in interest rates (not an increase), because more funds are available for lending, reducing the cost of credit.
Option 3 is incorrect: A decrease in CRR leads to an increase in money supply (not a reduction), as more money becomes available for lending.
Option 4 is incorrect: A decrease in CRR leads to credit expansion (not contraction), since banks have more funds available to lend to borrowers.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q38. Which of the following is an example of a "public good"?

  1. (a) Public transport
  2. (b) Private parks
  3. (c) Police services
  4. (d) Electricity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Police services

Police services are a classic example of a public good in economics. A public good has two key characteristics: (1) Non-excludable - you cannot prevent people from benefiting from it (everyone in a society benefits from law and order/safety provided by police); (2) Non-rival - one person's benefit does not reduce another's benefit (police protection for one citizen does not reduce safety for others).
Option 1 is incorrect: Public transport is excludable (passengers can be charged a fare and non-payers excluded) and rival (a full bus cannot take more passengers), making it a private/club good, not a pure public good.
Option 2 is incorrect: Private parks are excludable (access can be restricted by fences and entry fees) and rival; they are private goods.
Option 4 is incorrect: Electricity is excludable (supply can be cut off to non-payers) and rival at capacity (high demand causes shortages); it is a private good though often provided publicly.
National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q39. If the investment-saving curve (IS curve) is vertical, monetary policy is:

  1. (a) Effective
  2. (b) Highly effective
  3. (c) Ineffective
  4. (d) Unpredictable
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ineffective

In the IS-LM model, if the IS curve is vertical, it means investment is completely interest-inelastic (investment does not respond to changes in interest rates). Monetary policy works by shifting the LM curve, which changes interest rates. However, if the IS curve is vertical, a change in interest rate caused by shifting LM does not affect investment or output/income. Therefore, monetary policy becomes completely ineffective when the IS curve is vertical.
Option 1 is incorrect: Monetary policy is NOT effective when the IS curve is vertical; output does not change regardless of how much the LM curve shifts.
Option 2 is incorrect: Monetary policy being 'highly effective' would require a flat IS curve (highly interest-elastic investment), not a vertical IS curve.
Option 4 is incorrect: The outcome is not unpredictable - economic theory clearly shows that with a vertical IS curve, monetary policy has zero effect on output, making it definitively ineffective.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q40. Under the National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS 2.0), students at the undergraduate and postgraduate levels are classified under which participation sub-category?

  1. (a) Tarun Sabha
  2. (b) Yuva Manch
  3. (c) Rashtriya Sabha
  4. (d) Jan Samvaad Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tarun Sabha

Under the National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS 2.0), undergraduate (UG) and postgraduate (PG) students are classified under the 'Tarun Sabha' sub-category. NYPS 2.0, managed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, aims to familiarise youth with parliamentary procedures and democratic values. The scheme has different sub-categories for different age groups and levels of education.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'Yuva Manch' is another sub-category under NYPS 2.0, designated for a different educational level (typically school-level students).
Option 3 is incorrect: ' Rashtriya Sabha' is not a recognised sub-category under the NYPS 2.0 framework.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Jan Samvaad Sabha' is not the correct sub-category for UG/PG students under NYPS 2.0; 'Tarun Sabha' is the correct one.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q41. Which ministry/department is responsible for implementing the INSPIRE scheme as of 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Education
  2. (b) Ministry of Skill Development
  3. (c) Department of Science and Technology
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Department of Science and Technology

The INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) scheme is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology. Launched in 2008, INSPIRE aims to attract talented young students towards studying science and pursuing careers in science research. It includes components like INSPIRE Awards (for school students), INSPIRE Scholarships (for B.Sc./B.S./Integrated M.Sc. students), and INSPIRE Fellowships (for Ph.D. research).
Option 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Education oversees school and higher education policy, but the INSPIRE scheme falls under the Department of Science and Technology.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship focuses on vocational training and skill development, not on science research inspiration schemes like INSPIRE.
Option 4 is incorrect: NITI Aayog is the government's policy think tank and does not implement the INSPIRE scheme; it is implemented by DST.

Current Affairs (7)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q42. Who was appointed as the Governor of Haryana in 2025?

  1. (a) Kavinder Gupta
  2. (b) Manoj Kumar Singh
  3. (c) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju
  4. (d) Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh

Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh was appointed as the Governor of Haryana in 2025. He is a distinguished economist and academic who previously served as the Vice-Chancellor of Presidency University, Kolkata.
Option 1 is incorrect: Kavinder Gupta served as the Governor of Mizoram, not Haryana.
Option 2 is incorrect: Manoj Kumar Singh is an IAS officer and served in administrative positions in Uttar Pradesh, not as Governor of Haryana.
Option 3 is incorrect: Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju served as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh at one point; he was not the Haryana Governor appointed in 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q43. Which Indian teenager became world champion (10 m air pistol) in 2025, becoming the third Indian to win an individual world shooting title?

  1. (a) Rudrankksh Patil
  2. (b) Samrat Rana
  3. (c) Anish Bhanwala
  4. (d) Esha Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Samrat Rana

Samrat Rana, a teenager from India, won the 10m Air Pistol World Championship in 2025, becoming the third Indian to win an individual world shooting title. This was a landmark achievement in Indian shooting sport, continuing India's tradition of excellence in shooting following the successes of shooters like Abhinav Bindra and others.
Option 1 is incorrect: Rudrankksh Patil won the 10m Air Rifle World Championship title - a different event and a different year; he was not the 2025 Air Pistol world champion.
Option 3 is incorrect: Anish Bhanwala is known for his achievements in the 25m Rapid Fire Pistol event; he did not win the 2025 10m Air Pistol World Championship.
Option 4 is incorrect: Esha Singh is a prominent Indian shooter known for her performances in the 10m Air Pistol women's category; she is not the correct answer here.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q44. Which IPS officer of the 1994 batch was appointed CEO of Digital India Corporation (under the Ministry of Electronics and IT) in August 2025?

  1. (a) Anil Agrawal
  2. (b) Akhil Kumar
  3. (c) Rajesh Verma
  4. (d) Pankaj Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Akhil Kumar

Akhil Kumar, a 1994-batch IPS officer, was appointed as the CEO of Digital India Corporation (DIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in August 2025. Digital India Corporation is a not-for-profit company under MeitY that drives several flagship digital India initiatives including MyGov, DigiLocker , and Aarogya Setu.
Option 1 is incorrect: Anil Agrawal is a different IPS/IAS officer; he was not the one appointed as DIC CEO in August 2025.
Option 3 is incorrect: Rajesh Verma served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs at various times; he was not appointed as CEO of Digital India Corporation in August 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Pankaj Sharma is a different officer; he was not the DIC CEO appointed in August 2025.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q45. Who is the Prime Minister of New Zealand whose March 2025 visit to India helped accelerate the FTA process?

  1. (a) Jacinda Ardern
  2. (b) Chris Hipkins
  3. (c) Christopher Luxon
  4. (d) Winston Peters
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Christopher Luxon

Christopher Luxon is the Prime Minister of New Zealand who visited India in March 2025, and his visit helped accelerate the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations between India and New Zealand. Luxon became New Zealand's PM in December 2023 after his National Party won the October 2023 elections. The India-New Zealand FTA has been under negotiation and the March 2025 visit gave significant momentum to the process.
Option 1 is incorrect: Jacinda Ardern resigned as New Zealand PM in January 2023 and was replaced by Chris Hipkins; she was not PM during the March 2025 India visit.
Option 2 is incorrect: Chris Hipkins succeeded Jacinda Ardern and was PM from January to October 2023 when National Party won the election; he was not PM during the March 2025 visit.
Option 4 is incorrect: Winston Peters serves as Deputy Prime Minister and Foreign Minister in Christopher Luxon's government but is not the Prime Minister of New Zealand.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q46. Who inaugurated the National Conference on 'Environment - 2025' held in New Delhi in March 2025?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Droupadi Murmu
  4. (d) Bhupender Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Droupadi Murmu

President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the National Conference on 'Environment - 2025' held in New Delhi in March 2025. As the constitutional head of state, the President of India traditionally inaugurates major national conferences of such significance. The conference focused on environmental governance, climate change, and sustainable development.
Option 1 is incorrect: Amit Shah serves as Union Home Minister; while he participates in various conferences, he did not inaugurate the Environment 2025 conference.
Option 2 is incorrect: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was not the inaugurator of this particular conference; it was President Droupadi Murmu.
Option 4 is incorrect: Bhupender Yadav serves as Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change; while he may have been present, the inauguration was done by President Droupadi Murmu.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q47. In February 2025, the 19th installment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released from which location?

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Bhagalpur
  3. (c) Varanasi
  4. (d) Ranchi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhagalpur

The 19th installment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released on 24 February 2025 from Bhagalpur, Bihar. Prime Minister Narendra Modi released this installment during a public event in Bhagalpur. Under the PM-KISAN scheme, eligible farmers receive Rs. 6,000 per year in three equal instalments of Rs. 2,000 each, directly transferred to their bank accounts.
Option 1 is incorrect: Patna is the capital of Bihar, but the 19th installment was released from Bhagalpur, not Patna.
Option 3 is incorrect: Varanasi is PM Modi's parliamentary constituency in Uttar Pradesh; the 19th PM-KISAN installment was not released from there.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ranchi is the capital of Jharkhand; the 19th PM-KISAN installment event was not held there.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q48. The first 'Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra' inaugurated in February 2025 is located in:

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Pune
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

The first 'Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra' (mobile income tax service centre ) was inaugurated in Mumbai in February 2025. This initiative by the Income Tax Department aims to provide mobile/on-the-spot income tax services to taxpayers at their location (offices, housing societies, etc.), improving ease of compliance and reducing the need to visit tax offices.
Option 1 is incorrect: Bengaluru was not the location of the first Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra; Mumbai holds this distinction.
Option 2 is incorrect: Hyderabad was not the location of the first such mobile income tax service centre .
Option 4 is incorrect: Pune is not the location where the first Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra was inaugurated; it was launched in Mumbai.
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