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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 18 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 18 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Geography, Polity, Static GK, Biology, Ancient History.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 18 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Economics (12) · Geography (2) · Polity (10) · Static GK (14) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Chemistry (2) · Current Affairs (4)

Economics (12)

Industry and Infrastructure · Competition Commission of India

Q1. In 2022, Sangeeta Verma was appointed as the 'Competition Commission of India's (CCI) Chairperson.
Which of the following is correct regarding her role and responsibilities?

  1. (a) Regulating foreign trade and setting import-export duties
  2. (b) Promoting and sustaining fair competition in Indian markets
  3. (c) Drafting national education policies and curricula
  4. (d) Supervising the functioning of public sector banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Promoting and sustaining fair competition in Indian markets

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under the Competition Act, 2002. Its primary mandate is to promote and sustain fair competition in Indian markets, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
Option (a) is incorrect: Regulating foreign trade and setting import-export duties is the role of the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce.
Option (c) is incorrect: Drafting national education policies and curricula falls under the Ministry of Education, not CCI.
Option (d) is incorrect: Supervising public sector banks is the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Ministry of Finance.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q2. Which of the following combinations of indicators is used by the UNDP to compare countries in its Human Development Report?

  1. (a) Total income, military strength, literacy rate
  2. (b) GDP, per capita income, export performance
  3. (c) Life expectancy, education level, per capita income
  4. (d) Employment rate, industrial growth, natural resources
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Life expectancy, education level, per capita income

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) uses the Human Development Index (HDI) to compare countries. The HDI is composed of three key indicators: (1) Life expectancy at birth (health dimension), (2) Education level (mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and (3) Per capita income (GNI per capita) for standard of living.
Option (a) is incorrect: Military strength is not a component of HDI.
Option (b) is incorrect: Export performance is not a component of HDI.
Option (d) is incorrect: Employment rate, industrial growth, and natural resources are not HDI components.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q3. What does a low Human Development Index (HDI) score indicate?

  1. (a) High quality of life
  2. (b) Low life expectancy
  3. (c) High literacy rate
  4. (d) High income
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Low life expectancy

A low HDI score indicates poor human development. The three dimensions of HDI are: health (life expectancy), education (literacy and schooling), and income (per capita income). A low HDI score means the country has low life expectancy, low education levels, and low income.
Option (a) is incorrect: High quality of life would result in a HIGH HDI score, not a low one.
Option (c) is incorrect: A high literacy rate would increase HDI, not decrease it.
Option (d) is incorrect: High income is associated with a high HDI score, not a low one.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q4. Which government initiative focuses on promoting self-reliance and entrepreneurship among women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?

  1. (a) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
  2. (b) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
  4. (d) Digital India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)

The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), also known as Aajeevika, was launched in 2011 by the Ministry of Rural Development. It specifically focuses on organizing rural poor women into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and federations, providing them financial services, livelihood support, and entrepreneurship training to promote self-reliance.
Option (a) is incorrect: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao focuses on the welfare and education of the girl child, not specifically SHG-based entrepreneurship.
Option (c) is incorrect: PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana focuses on skill development and training for youth; it does not specifically work through SHGs.
Option (d) is incorrect: Digital India aims at improving digital infrastructure and services; it is unrelated to SHGs.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q5. How is the financial assistance under the PM-KISAN Scheme transferred to farmers?

  1. (a) Through cash payments
  2. (b) Through cheques
  3. (c) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to bank accounts
  4. (d) Through post office savings
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to bank accounts

Under PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi), financial assistance of Rs. 6,000 per year is transferred in three equal instalments of Rs. 2,000 directly to the bank accounts of eligible farmer families through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). This ensures transparency and eliminates intermediaries.
Option (a) is incorrect: PM-KISAN does not involve physical cash distribution. DBT is used instead.
Option (b) is incorrect: Cheques are not used under PM-KISAN. The scheme uses electronic bank transfers.
Option (d) is incorrect: Post office savings accounts are not the designated channel for PM-KISAN transfers; regular bank accounts are used.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q6. What occurs when the government spends more than it earns in revenue?

  1. (a) Budget surplus
  2. (b) Fiscal deficit
  3. (c) Trade deficit
  4. (d) Current account deficit
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fiscal deficit

A Fiscal Deficit occurs when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the amount the government needs to borrow to meet its expenses. Fiscal deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Revenue (excluding borrowings).
Option (a) is incorrect: Budget surplus is the opposite situation — when government revenue exceeds expenditure.
Option (c) is incorrect: Trade deficit occurs when a country's imports of goods exceed its exports; it relates to external trade, not government finances.
Option (d) is incorrect: Current account deficit relates to the balance of payments (trade in goods, services, and transfers); it is not specifically about government spending exceeding revenue.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q7. Which program was launched in 1983 to provide wage employment to rural landless labourers?

  1. (a) Food for Work Program
  2. (b) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Program (RLEGP)
  3. (c) Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP)
  4. (d) National Rural Employment Program (NREP)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Program (RLEGP)

The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was launched on 15 August 1983, during the Sixth Five-Year Plan, to provide guaranteed wage employment (up to 100 days per year) to rural landless labourers. It was specifically targeted at the poorest of the rural poor — those who had no agricultural land.
Option (a) is incorrect: The Food for Work Programme was launched in 1977-78 to provide food grains as wages; it was a different scheme launched earlier.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) focused on self-employment through subsidy-linked bank credit, not wage employment.
Option (d) is incorrect: The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched in 1980 to generate employment; it predates RLEGP and had a different focus.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q8. Name the committee formed to recommend financial sector reforms after 1991?

  1. (a) Narasimham Committee
  2. (b) Kelkar Committee
  3. (c) Rangarajan Committee
  4. (d) Gadgil Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Narasimham Committee

The Narasimham Committee (officially the Committee on the Financial System) was constituted in 1991 under M. Narasimham (former RBI Governor) to recommend reforms in the banking and financial sector as part of India's liberalization process. It recommended: reduction in SLR and CRR, deregulation of interest rates, greater autonomy for banks, and entry of private and foreign banks.
Option (b) is incorrect: The Kelkar Committee was related to tax reforms (direct and indirect taxes), not financial sector reforms.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Rangarajan Committee was set up for various economic issues including poverty estimation, not specifically the 1991 financial sector reforms.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Gadgil Committee is associated with environmental recommendations for the Western Ghats.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q9. Which of the following was a key feature of the New Industrial Policy of 1991?

  1. (a) Abolition of industrial licensing for most sectors
  2. (b) Increased government control over industries
  3. (c) Ban on foreign investment
  4. (d) Nationalization of private companies
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Abolition of industrial licensing for most sectors

The New Industrial Policy of 1991 abolished industrial licensing for most industries (except for a few sensitive areas like defence, atomic energy, hazardous chemicals). This effectively ended the 'License Raj' — the era of extensive government controls over private industries. It opened the economy to private and foreign investment, marking a shift toward liberalization.
Option (b) is incorrect: The 1991 policy actually REDUCED government control over industries, moving toward a market-oriented economy.
Option (c) is incorrect: The policy ENCOURAGED foreign direct investment (FDI), not banned it. FDI limits were relaxed significantly.
Option (d) is incorrect: The policy moved AWAY from nationalization. It was the opposite — encouraging privatization and competition.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q10. What does LPG stand for in the context of post-1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization
  2. (b) Local Production Growth
  3. (c) Limited Privatization Goals
  4. (d) Liberalization, Public Growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization

In the context of India's 1991 New Economic Policy (NEP), LPG stands for Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization. Liberalization involved removing government controls and regulations; Privatization involved transferring public sector enterprises to private ownership; Globalization involved integrating India's economy with the world economy through trade and investment.
Option (b) is incorrect: 'Local Production Growth' is not an economic policy term and was not part of the 1991 reforms.
Option (c) is incorrect: 'Limited Privatization Goals' is not the correct expansion of LPG in this context.
Option (d) is incorrect: 'Public Growth' is not the third component; it should be 'Globalization.'
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q11. What is the main objective of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)?

  1. (a) Skill development
  2. (b) Rural electrification
  3. (c) Financial inclusion
  4. (d) Urban housing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Financial inclusion

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched on August 28, 2014, by PM Narendra Modi. Its primary objective is Financial Inclusion — ensuring that every household in India has access to basic banking services, including a zero-balance bank account, debit card, insurance, and credit facilities. It is the world's largest financial inclusion initiative.
Option (a) is incorrect: Skill development is the objective of the PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), not PMJDY.
Option (b) is incorrect: Rural electrification is addressed by the Saubhagya (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana), not PMJDY.
Option (d) is incorrect: Urban housing is the objective of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), not PMJDY.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Inequality measures (Gini coefficient, Lorenz curve)

Q12. What is measured by the Lorenz Curve?

  1. (a) Price elasticity
  2. (b) Economic growth
  3. (c) Income inequality
  4. (d) Unemployment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Income inequality

The Lorenz Curve is a graphical representation of income or wealth distribution within an economy. It shows the proportion of total income earned by the bottom x% of the population. The further the Lorenz Curve deviates from the 45-degree line of perfect equality, the greater the income inequality. The Gini Coefficient is derived from the Lorenz Curve.
Option (a) is incorrect: Price elasticity is measured using the price elasticity of demand/supply formula, not the Lorenz Curve.
Option (b) is incorrect: Economic growth is measured by GDP growth rate, industrial output, and other macroeconomic indicators.
Option (d) is incorrect: Unemployment is measured by the unemployment rate calculated through labour force surveys.

Geography (2)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Thar Desert

Q13. What is the largest desert in India?

  1. (a) Thar Desert
  2. (b) Rann of Kutch
  3. (c) Ladakh Desert
  4. (d) Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thar Desert

The Thar Desert, also known as the 'Great Indian Desert,' is the largest desert in India. It covers an area of approximately 200,000 sq km and extends across Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana. It is the 9th largest subtropical desert in the world.
Option (b) is incorrect: The Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh and seasonal wetland region in Gujarat, not a desert.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Ladakh Desert is a cold desert in northern India but is smaller in area than the Thar Desert.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau region in peninsular India, not a desert.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q14. Name the state having the longest coastline?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gujarat

Gujarat has the longest coastline among all Indian states, approximately 1,600 km (including the coastlines of Saurashtra and Kutch regions). Its unique peninsular and bay geography gives it this extensive coastline along the Arabian Sea.
Option (b) is incorrect: Maharashtra has a coastline of approximately 720 km, which is less than half of Gujarat's.
Option (c) is incorrect: Tamil Nadu has a coastline of approximately 1,076 km, which is the second longest but still shorter than Gujarat's.
Option (d) is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh has a coastline of approximately 974 km, shorter than Gujarat's.

Polity (10)

Union Executive · President - election and qualifications

Q15. The President of India is elected by which method?

  1. (a) Direct election
  2. (b) Nomination
  3. (c) Electoral college
  4. (d) Lottery system
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electoral college

The President of India is elected through an Electoral College (Article 54 of the Constitution). The Electoral College consists of: (1) elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (2) elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States and Union Territories with legislatures. The election is held by proportional representation using the single transferable vote system.
Option (a) is incorrect: The President is NOT directly elected by the citizens.
Option (b) is incorrect: Nomination is not the method used; it is an indirect election.
Option (d) is incorrect: No such lottery system exists for electing the President.
Parliament · Speaker and Deputy Speaker

Q16. Who presides over the Lok Sabha sessions?

  1. (a) Chief Justice of India
  2. (b) Prime Minister of India
  3. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over all sessions of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Speaker maintains order during proceedings, puts matters to vote, certifies Money Bills, and decides on matters of parliamentary procedure (Article 93).
Option (a) is incorrect: The Chief Justice of India heads the judiciary and has no role in presiding over Parliament.
Option (b) is incorrect: The Prime Minister is the head of the executive (the Cabinet); the PM does not preside over Lok Sabha.
Option (d) is incorrect: The President of India addresses joint sittings but does not preside over Lok Sabha sessions.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q17. What is the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?

  1. (a) A set of criminal laws
  2. (b) A common set of personal laws for all citizens
  3. (c) A law for environmental protection
  4. (d) A code for taxation policies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A common set of personal laws for all citizens

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) refers to a single, common set of personal laws (governing matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption, and maintenance) that would apply to all citizens of India irrespective of their religion. It is mentioned in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution under Directive Principles of State Policy.
Option (a) is incorrect: UCC deals with civil/personal matters, not criminal law. Criminal law is already uniform under the IPC (now BNS).
Option (c) is incorrect: Environmental protection laws are entirely separate from the concept of UCC.
Option (d) is incorrect: Taxation policies are governed by separate tax laws; UCC has no relation to taxation.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q18. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), who can be held liable for abetment of an offense?

  1. (a) Only a person who helps physically
  2. (b) Anyone who aids, counsels, or instigates the offense
  3. (c) Only persons who are present at the scene
  4. (d) Only the person who directly commits the crime
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anyone who aids, counsels, or instigates the offense

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), abetment of an offense applies to anyone who: (1) instigates a person to commit the offense, (2) engages in a conspiracy to commit it, or (3) aids in its commission by any act or illegal omission. Physical presence at the scene is not required.
Option (a) is incorrect: Abetment is not limited to physical help. Counseling, instigating, or conspiring also constitute abetment.
Option (c) is incorrect: Physical presence at the scene is NOT required for liability under abetment provisions.
Option (d) is incorrect: The person who directly commits the crime is the principal offender, not an abettor. Abetment specifically refers to those who assist or instigate others.
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q19. The provision of suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency is taken from the constitution of:

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) Germany
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Germany

India borrowed the provision for suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency from the Weimar Constitution of Germany. Articles 358 and 359 of the Indian Constitution, which deal with the suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergencies, were inspired by this German constitutional provision.
Option (a) is incorrect: From Canada, India borrowed the concept of a strong Centre (Quasi-federal structure) and the idea of residuary powers with the Centre.
Option (c) is incorrect: From France, India borrowed the concept of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity (from the French Revolution) and the concept of Republic.
Option (d) is incorrect: From the USA, India borrowed the concepts of Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, and the Preamble's idea.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q20. The article, which deals with 'Failure of constitutional machinery in States':

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 356
  3. (c) Article 360
  4. (d) Article 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 356

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State,' commonly known as President's Rule or State Emergency. Under this article, if the President is satisfied (on Governor's report or otherwise) that a state's constitutional machinery has failed, the President can assume the functions of the state government.
Option (a) is incorrect: Article 352 deals with National Emergency (external aggression or armed rebellion), not state constitutional machinery failure.
Option (c) is incorrect: Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency when the financial stability of India or any part of it is threatened.
Option (d) is incorrect: Article 365 deals with situations where a state fails to comply with directions given by the Union government; this can be a ground for imposing Article 356.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Nature of the Constitution (federal, unitary, parliamentary)

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?

  1. (a) Dual citizenship
  2. (b) Division of powers
  3. (c) Independent judiciary
  4. (d) Written Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dual citizenship

Dual citizenship is NOT a feature of Indian federalism. India provides for a single citizenship — every Indian is a citizen of India only, regardless of the state they live in. In contrast, countries like the USA have dual citizenship (both state and national). India's Constitution (Article 5-11) provides for single citizenship.
Option (b) is incorrect — i.e., Division of powers IS a feature of Indian federalism. Powers are divided among the Union, States, and Concurrent Lists (Seventh Schedule).
Option (c) is incorrect — i.e., Independent judiciary IS a feature of Indian federalism. The Supreme Court and High Courts are independent from the executive.
Option (d) is incorrect — i.e., Written Constitution IS a feature of Indian federalism. India has a detailed written Constitution unlike countries like the UK.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q22. Which of the following is NOT a discretionary power of the President?

  1. (a) Appointment of PM
  2. (b) Dismissal of a government
  3. (c) Returning an ordinary bill
  4. (d) Sending message to Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sending message to Parliament

Sending a message to Parliament is a constitutional function of the President under Article 86(2), not a discretionary power. Discretionary powers are those the President exercises without (or against) the advice of the Council of Ministers. 'Sending messages to Parliament' is a standard constitutional provision, not classified as a discretionary exercise of presidential authority.
Option (a) is NOT the answer: Appointment of PM can be discretionary — when no single party has a clear Lok Sabha majority, the President exercises discretion in inviting the leader who can form a government.
Option (b) is NOT the answer: Dismissal of a government in a hung Parliament or a minority government that has lost majority is a discretionary power.
Option (c) is NOT the answer: Returning an ordinary bill (non-Money Bill) under Article 111 is considered a discretionary presidential action.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q23. Which of the following constitutional amendments lowered the age for voting from 21 to 18?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 43rd Amendment
  3. (c) 60th Amendment
  4. (d) 61st Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 61st Amendment

The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 (effective from March 28, 1989) reduced the minimum voting age from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326 of the Constitution. This enfranchised millions of young citizens between 18-21 years of age.
Option (a) is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment (1976), known as the 'Mini Constitution,' made several changes including extending the Emergency period; it did not change the voting age.
Option (b) is incorrect: The 43rd Amendment (1977) reversed some of the anti-democratic changes made by the 42nd Amendment; it was not related to voting age.
Option (c) is incorrect: The 60th Amendment (1988) raised the ceiling on professional tax; it had no connection to voting age.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Lokpal and Lokayukta

Q24. ________ is a 1987-batch IAS officer (retired) of the Madhya Pradesh cadre who served as the Secretary, Department of Land Resources, Government of India.

  1. (a) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
  2. (b) A. M. Khanwilkar
  3. (c) Ajay Tirkey
  4. (d) Justice R. Banumathi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ajay Tirkey

Ajay Tirkey is a 1987-batch IAS officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre who served as the Secretary, Department of Land Resources, Government of India. He has had a distinguished career in the civil services spanning various administrative roles.
Option (a) is incorrect: Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi is a judicial officer (former Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court); he is not a 1987-batch IAS officer of MP cadre.
Option (b) is incorrect: A. M. Khanwilkar (A.M. Khanwilkar) is a former Justice of the Supreme Court of India; he is not an IAS officer.
Option (d) is incorrect: Justice R. Banumathi is a former Supreme Court judge; she is not a 1987-batch IAS officer.

Static GK (14)

Sports · Football and hockey

Q25. Which body part is a soccer player NOT allowed to use to touch the ball (except for the goalkeeper)?

  1. (a) Head
  2. (b) Foot
  3. (c) Hand
  4. (d) Knee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hand

In soccer (football), outfield players are NOT allowed to intentionally touch or handle the ball with their hands or arms. This is called a 'handball' and results in a free kick or penalty for the opposing team. Only the goalkeeper is permitted to use their hands, and that too only within their own penalty area.
Option (a) is incorrect: Players are allowed to use their head to play the ball (headers are a regular part of the game).
Option (b) is incorrect: Players primarily use their feet, which is completely allowed.
Option (d) is incorrect: Using the knee to control or play the ball is permitted.
Awards and Honours · Padma awards

Q26. Who returned the Padma Vibhushan Award protesting against treatment of tribal during the Sardar Sarovar dam construction?

  1. (a) Medha Patkar
  2. (b) Baba Amte
  3. (c) Anna Hazare
  4. (d) Aruna Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Baba Amte

Baba Amte (Murlidhar Devidas Amte), the renowned social activist and humanitarian, returned his Padma Vibhushan Award in protest against the displacement of tribal communities and their poor treatment during the construction of the Sardar Sarovar Dam on the Narmada River. He was a strong supporter of the Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Option (a) is incorrect: Medha Patkar was the leader of the Narmada Bachao Andolan but she did not hold or return a Padma Vibhushan Award.
Option (c) is incorrect: Anna Hazare is known for his anti-corruption campaign (India Against Corruption); he was not associated with the Sardar Sarovar protest in this context.
Option (d) is incorrect: Aruna Roy is a social activist known for the RTI movement; she was not associated with this particular protest.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q27. Who was the first Indian scientist to launch India's space program?

  1. (a) Vikram Sarabhai
  2. (b) Homi Bhabha
  3. (c) Satyendra Nath Bose
  4. (d) Srinivasa Ramanujan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vikram Sarabhai

Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai is regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Programme. He established the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad in 1947 and was instrumental in setting up ISRO's predecessor, INCOSPAR. He convinced the Indian government of the importance of a space programme for a developing nation.
Option (b) is incorrect: Dr. Homi J. Bhabha is known as the Father of India's Nuclear Programme, not the space programme.
Option (c) is incorrect: Satyendra Nath Bose was a renowned theoretical physicist known for Bose-Einstein statistics; he had no direct role in the space programme.
Option (d) is incorrect: Srinivasa Ramanujan was a legendary mathematician known for his contributions to number theory; he had no connection to India's space programme.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q28. Which classical dance form is closely linked to the temples of Odisha?

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Odissi
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Sattriya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odissi

Odissi is the classical dance form that originated in and is closely associated with the temples of Odisha, particularly the Jagannath Temple in Puri and the Konark Sun Temple. It is one of the oldest surviving dance forms of India, tracing its origins to the 'Maharis' (devadasis) who performed in the temples.
Option (a) is incorrect: Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, not Odisha.
Option (c) is incorrect: Kathak is a classical dance form from North India (primarily Uttar Pradesh), linked to both temple and Mughal court traditions.
Option (d) is incorrect: Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam, developed by Vaishnava saint Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q29. Which dance style among the following represents a classical form from the North East region?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Mohiniyattam
  3. (c) Manipuri
  4. (d) Bharatnatyam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manipuri

Manipuri is the classical dance form from Manipur in Northeast India. It is one of the eight classical dance forms of India recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. Rooted in the Vaishnava tradition of Manipur, it is known for its graceful movements and is closely associated with the Ras Lila performances.
Option (a) is incorrect: Kathak is from North India (Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan), not Northeast India.
Option (b) is incorrect: Mohiniyattam is from Kerala in South India, not Northeast India.
Option (d) is incorrect: Bharatnatyam is from Tamil Nadu in South India, not Northeast India.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q30. Sattriya, one of the classical dances of India, originated from:

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Sattriya is the classical dance form that originated in Assam. It was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnava saint and reformer Srimanta Sankardeva as a medium of propagating the Vaishnava faith. The dance was originally performed in Sattras (Vaishnavite monasteries) of Assam, which is where it gets its name. It was recognized as a classical dance by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
Option (b) is incorrect: Kerala is associated with Mohiniyattam and Kathakali, not Sattriya.
Option (c) is incorrect: Tamil Nadu is associated with Bharatnatyam, not Sattriya.
Option (d) is incorrect: Maharashtra is associated with Lavani and other folk dance forms, not Sattriya.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q31. The festival of Eid-ul-Fitr marks the end of:

  1. (a) Muharram
  2. (b) Ramadan
  3. (c) Hajj
  4. (d) Bakrid
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ramadan

Eid-ul-Fitr (also spelled Eid al-Fitr) is an Islamic festival that marks the successful completion and end of the holy month of Ramadan — the Islamic month of fasting, prayer, and reflection. It is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal (the 10th month of the Islamic Hijri calendar), following the sighting of the new moon.
Option (a) is incorrect: Muharram is the first month of the Islamic calendar. It is associated with the Day of Ashura (mourning), not Eid-ul-Fitr.
Option (c) is incorrect: Hajj is the annual Islamic pilgrimage to Mecca. Eid-ul-Adha (Bakrid) follows Hajj, not Eid-ul-Fitr.
Option (d) is incorrect: Bakrid (Eid-ul-Adha) is a different festival celebrated approximately 70 days after Eid-ul-Fitr; it commemorates Prophet Ibrahim's willingness to sacrifice his son.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q32. Who holds the record for most gold medals in the Olympics?

  1. (a) Usain Bolt
  2. (b) Michael Phelps
  3. (c) Carl Lewis
  4. (d) Mark Spitz
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Michael Phelps

Michael Phelps (USA) holds the record for the most Olympic gold medals ever won — 23 gold medals (28 total medals) in swimming, across four Olympics (2000 Sydney, 2004 Athens, 2008 Beijing, 2012 London, 2016 Rio). He is widely regarded as the greatest Olympian of all time.
Option (a) is incorrect: Usain Bolt (Jamaica) won 8 Olympic gold medals in sprint events — far fewer than Phelps.
Option (c) is incorrect: Carl Lewis (USA) won 9 Olympic gold medals in athletics events — fewer than Phelps.
Option (d) is incorrect: Mark Spitz (USA) won 9 Olympic gold medals in swimming (7 in 1972 Munich) — fewer than Phelps.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q33. Which Indian-origin Pulitzer winner is associated with the book 'The Laws of Medicine'?

  1. (a) Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. (b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
  3. (c) Pico Iyer
  4. (d) Amitava Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Siddhartha Mukherjee

Siddhartha Mukherjee is an Indian-American oncologist, physician, and Pulitzer Prize-winning author associated with 'The Laws of Medicine' (2015). He is best known for 'The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer' (2010), which won the Pulitzer Prize for General Nonfiction in 2011.
Option (a) is incorrect: Jhumpa Lahiri is a Pulitzer Prize-winning author of fiction (won for 'Interpreter of Maladies' in 2000); she is a literary writer, not a medical author.
Option (c) is incorrect: Pico Iyer is a travel writer and essayist; he is not a Pulitzer winner and is not associated with medical writing.
Option (d) is incorrect: Amitava Kumar is a novelist, journalist, and professor; he is not associated with 'The Laws of Medicine.'
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q34. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award (Kannada) in 1990 for the novel 'Kusuma Bale'?

  1. (a) Devanur Mahadeva
  2. (b) P. Lankesh
  3. (c) S.L. Bhyrappa
  4. (d) T.R. Subba Rao
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Devanur Mahadeva

Devanur Mahadeva is the Kannada writer who won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1990 for the novel 'Kusuma Bale.' He is one of the most important voices in Dalit literature in Kannada and is known for his sharp, socially conscious writing that addresses caste discrimination and social inequality.
Option (b) is incorrect: P. Lankesh was a prominent Kannada writer and journalist; he is not the winner of the 1990 Sahitya Akademi Award for 'Kusuma Bale.'
Option (c) is incorrect: S.L. Bhyrappa is a prolific and celebrated Kannada novelist, but he is not associated with 'Kusuma Bale' or this specific award.
Option (d) is incorrect: T.R. Subba Rao is a Kannada writer but was not the recipient of this particular Sahitya Akademi Award.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q35. India registered its highest total medal haul at a single Summer Olympics with how many medals?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 7
  4. (d) 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7

India registered its highest-ever total medal haul at the Tokyo 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021) with 7 medals: 1 Gold (Neeraj Chopra — Javelin Throw), 2 Silver (Mirabai Chanu — Weightlifting, Ravi Dahiya — Wrestling), and 4 Bronze (PV Sindhu, Lovlina Borgohain, India men's hockey team, Bajrang Punia).
Option (a) is incorrect: India won 5 medals at the 2012 London Olympics — their previous best before Tokyo 2020.
Option (b) is incorrect: India has not won exactly 6 medals as a record total in any single Summer Olympics.
Option (d) is incorrect: India has not yet won 8 medals in a single Summer Olympics.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q36. What was India's ranking in the medal table of the First Asian Games?

  1. (a) 1st
  2. (b) 2nd
  3. (c) 3rd
  4. (d) 4th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2nd

India ranked 2nd in the medal tally at the First Asian Games (1951), which were hosted by India in New Delhi. Japan topped the medal table, while India came in second position. India won 51 medals (15 Gold, 16 Silver, 20 Bronze) at those games.
Option (a) is incorrect: Japan topped the medal tally at the First Asian Games, not India.
Option (c) is incorrect: India ranked second, not third, at the 1951 Asian Games.
Option (d) is incorrect: India's ranking was second; the candidate's selected answer of 4th was incorrect.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q37. The International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF) was founded in:

  1. (a) Stockholm
  2. (b) Paris
  3. (c) London
  4. (d) Brussels
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Stockholm

The International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF), now known as World Athletics, was founded in Stockholm, Sweden on July 17, 1912, during the 5th Summer Olympic Games held in Stockholm. It is the international governing body for the sport of athletics.
Option (b) is incorrect: Paris hosted the 1900 and 1924 Olympics; the IAAF was not founded in Paris.
Option (c) is incorrect: London hosted the 1908 and 1948 Olympics; the IAAF was not founded in London.
Option (d) is incorrect: Brussels has not hosted the Olympics and was not the founding city of the IAAF.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q38. The women's javelin throw was introduced in the Olympics in:

  1. (a) 1924
  2. (b) 1928
  3. (c) 1932
  4. (d) 1936
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1932

The women's javelin throw was first introduced as an Olympic event at the 1932 Los Angeles Summer Olympics. Mildred 'Babe' Didrikson of the USA won the gold medal in this inaugural women's javelin event. It has been a regular Olympic event ever since.
Option (a) is incorrect: At the 1924 Paris Olympics, women's athletics events were very limited; women's javelin was not included.
Option (b) is incorrect: While women's athletics were introduced at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics, the women's javelin was not yet included in those games.
Option (d) is incorrect: The women's javelin had already been introduced in 1932 at Los Angeles, four years before the 1936 Berlin Olympics.

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q39. Which scheme was launched to provide health insurance coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for economically weaker sections?

  1. (a) Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)
  2. (b) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
  4. (d) National Health Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)

Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) was launched on September 23, 2018. It is the world's largest publicly funded health insurance scheme, providing coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to approximately 50 crore beneficiaries from economically weaker sections.
Option (b) is incorrect: Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) had a much lower coverage of Rs. 30,000 per family and was subsumed under AB-PMJAY.
Option (c) is incorrect: PM Suraksha Bima Yojana is an accidental death and disability insurance scheme worth Rs. 2 lakh, not health insurance.
Option (d) is incorrect: National Health Mission (NHM) is a broader health systems strengthening program and not a health insurance scheme.

Ancient History (1)

Mauryan Empire · Arthashastra and Indica

Q40. Name the ancient text written by Chanakya, considered a treatise on statecraft and economics?

  1. (a) Arthashastra
  2. (b) Manusmriti
  3. (c) Mahabharata
  4. (d) Rigveda
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Arthashastra

Arthashastra is the ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy written by Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta), the chief minister of Emperor Chandragupta Maurya (around 4th century BCE). It is one of the most comprehensive works on governance, diplomacy, taxation, and administration in ancient literature.
Option (b) is incorrect: Manusmriti was written by Manu and deals with social codes, laws, and dharma — not specifically statecraft and economics.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Mahabharata is an ancient epic attributed to sage Vyasa; it is not a treatise on statecraft by Chanakya.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Rigveda is one of the four Vedas and is a collection of hymns; it is not a political or economic treatise.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q41. Who was the founder of the Pala Dynasty in Bengal?

  1. (a) Gopala
  2. (b) Dharmapala
  3. (c) Devapala
  4. (d) Mahipala
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gopala

Gopala was the founder of the Pala Dynasty in Bengal, around 750 CE. After a long period of political anarchy in Bengal, Gopala was elected as king by the leading noblemen of the region. He established the Pala Empire which lasted for several centuries and was a great patron of Buddhism.
Option (b) is incorrect: Dharmapala was the son of Gopala and the second ruler of the Pala Dynasty, not its founder.
Option (c) is incorrect: Devapala was the son of Dharmapala and the third major Pala ruler; he is known for expanding the empire, not founding it.
Option (d) is incorrect: Mahipala was a much later Pala ruler (around 10th-11th century) who revived the declining dynasty; he was not the founder.

Chemistry (2)

Matter and its States · States of matter and their properties

Q42. In which state of matter are the molecules closely packed together and maintain a fixed shape?

  1. (a) Gas
  2. (b) Liquid
  3. (c) Solid
  4. (d) Plasma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Solid

In the solid state of matter, molecules are closely packed together in a fixed, ordered arrangement. Solids have a definite shape and a definite volume. The intermolecular forces in solids are very strong, which is why solids maintain their shape without needing a container.
Option (a) is incorrect: In gases, molecules are far apart, move randomly, and have no fixed shape or volume.
Option (b) is incorrect: In liquids, molecules are close but can move past each other, so liquids have no fixed shape (they take the shape of the container) but do have a fixed volume.
Option (d) is incorrect: Plasma is a high-energy state consisting of ionized particles; it has no fixed shape or structure and is sometimes called the fourth state of matter.
Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q43. Which of the following is NOT included in India's Air Quality Index (AQI) calculation?

  1. (a) Ammonia (NH3)
  2. (b) Lead (Pb)
  3. (c) Ozone (O3)
  4. (d) Methane (CH4)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Methane (CH4)

India's National Air Quality Index (AQI) measures eight major pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2 (Nitrogen Dioxide), SO2 (Sulfur Dioxide), CO (Carbon Monoxide), O3 (Ozone), NH3 (Ammonia), and Pb (Lead). Methane (CH4) is NOT included in India's AQI calculation, even though it is a potent greenhouse gas.
Option (a) is incorrect: Ammonia (NH3) IS one of the 8 pollutants included in India's AQI calculation.
Option (b) is incorrect: Lead (Pb) IS one of the 8 pollutants included in India's AQI calculation.
Option (c) is incorrect: Ozone (O3) IS one of the 8 pollutants included in India's AQI calculation.
Option (d) is CORRECT: Methane (CH4) is NOT part of India's AQI. While it is a greenhouse gas, it is not monitored as part of the 8 standard AQI pollutants.

Current Affairs (4)

Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q44. Which Indian athlete became the youngest Indian to win an individual Olympic medal (male category)?

  1. (a) Sushil Kumar
  2. (b) Amit Panghal
  3. (c) Aman Sehrawat
  4. (d) Neeraj Chopra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aman Sehrawat

Aman Sehrawat won a Bronze Medal in wrestling (men's freestyle 57 kg category) at the 2024 Paris Olympics. Born on December 18, 2003, he was approximately 20 years old at the time, making him the youngest Indian male athlete to win an individual Olympic medal.
Option (a) is incorrect: Sushil Kumar won Olympic medals in 2008 and 2012, but was older at the time of his medals than Aman Sehrawat.
Option (b) is incorrect: Amit Panghal is a boxer who participated in the 2024 Paris Olympics but did not win a medal.
Option (d) is incorrect: Neeraj Chopra won Gold at Tokyo 2020 and Silver at Paris 2024, but was older (born 1997) than Sehrawat at the time of their respective medals.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q45. During the Uttar Pradesh Day celebrations held in January 2025, which Governor joined the Vice-President of India at the official programme?

  1. (a) Tamilisai Soundararajan
  2. (b) Anandiben Patel
  3. (c) Arif Mohammed Khan
  4. (d) Bandaru Dattatreya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anandiben Patel

During the Uttar Pradesh Day celebrations held in January 2025, Governor Anandiben Patel (Governor of Uttar Pradesh) joined the Vice-President of India at the official programme. Anandiben Patel has been serving as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh.
Option (a) is incorrect: Tamilisai Soundararajan was the Governor of Telangana; she is not associated with Uttar Pradesh.
Option (c) is incorrect: Arif Mohammed Khan served as the Governor of Kerala; he was not the UP Governor.
Option (d) is incorrect: Bandaru Dattatreya served as the Governor of Haryana; he was not the UP Governor.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q46. In February 2025, which Union Minister distributed Sanitation Kits and Ayushman Cards under the NAMASTE Scheme in Mumbai?

  1. (a) Jitendra Singh
  2. (b) Ramdas Athawale
  3. (c) Virendra Kumar
  4. (d) Bhupender Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Virendra Kumar

In February 2025, Union Minister Virendra Kumar (Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment) distributed Sanitation Kits and Ayushman Cards under the NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) Scheme in Mumbai. NAMASTE is a scheme aimed at ensuring the welfare and safety of sanitation workers.
Option (a) is incorrect: Jitendra Singh served as Union Minister of State for Science and Technology; he was not associated with this NAMASTE Scheme event.
Option (b) is incorrect: Ramdas Athawale served as Union Minister of State for Social Justice; he was not the minister who distributed these kits at this specific event.
Option (d) is incorrect: Bhupender Yadav served as Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change; he was not associated with the NAMASTE Scheme distribution.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q47. In February 2025, how many projects were sanctioned under the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) Scheme for FY 2024-25?

  1. (a) 25
  2. (b) 32
  3. (c) 40
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 40

In February 2025, the Government of India sanctioned 40 projects under the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) Scheme for FY 2024-25. The SASCI Scheme provides interest-free 50-year loans to state governments for capital investment projects to boost infrastructure development.
Option (a) is incorrect: 25 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.
Option (b) is incorrect: 32 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.
Option (d) is incorrect: 50 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.
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