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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 9 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 9 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Chemistry, Medieval History, Polity, Static GK, Economics, Modern History.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 9 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Chemistry (1) · Medieval History (3) · Polity (4) · Static GK (9) · Economics (12) · Modern History (4) · Current Affairs (5) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (5) · Biology (2)

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q1. Which of these is a secondary pollutant that is included in Air Quality Index (AQI) calculations?

  1. (a) SO₂ (Sulphur Dioxide)
  2. (b) NO₂ (Nitrogen Dioxide)
  3. (c) O₃ (Ozone)
  4. (d) PM₁₀(Fine Particulate Matter)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) O₃ (Ozone)

O₃ (Ground-level Ozone) is a secondary pollutant — it is not directly emitted but is formed in the atmosphere.
It forms when Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight (photochemical reaction).
India's National AQI monitors 8 pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb.
Among these, O3 is the classic secondary pollutant.
SO2 and NO2 are primarily primary pollutants (directly emitted from vehicles and industries).
PM2.5 can be both primary and secondary.
Therefore, the correct answer is O₃ (Option 3).

Medieval History (3)

Mughal Empire · Aurangzeb

Q2. The Fatawa -e- Alamgiri , a major compilation of Islamic law, was commissioned by:

  1. (a) Shah Jahan
  2. (b) Akbar
  3. (c) Aurangzeb
  4. (d) Jahangir
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aurangzeb

Fatawa -e- Alamgiri is a comprehensive compilation of Hanafi Islamic jurisprudence (law).
It was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb (also titled 'Alamgir', hence ' Alamgiri ') in the 17th century.
It took about 30 years (approx. 1667–1672) to compile, with hundreds of Islamic scholars contributing.
Shah Jahan: Known for building the Taj Mahal; not related to Fatawa -e- Alamgiri .
Akbar: Known for Din- i -Ilahi and religious tolerance; he promoted syncretism, not orthodox Islamic law compilations.
Jahangir: Known for his memoirs ( Tuzk -e-Jahangiri); not associated with this compilation.
Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q3. The Rajput ruler who maintained cordial relations with Akbar was:

  1. (a) Rana Sanga
  2. (b) Udai Singh
  3. (c) Raja Man Singh
  4. (d) Rana Pratap
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Raja Man Singh

Raja Man Singh of Amber (Jaipur) had close and cordial relations with Emperor Akbar.
He was one of the Navratnas (nine gems) at Akbar's court and served as a trusted general.
He led Mughal campaigns in Bengal, Bihar, and the northeast.
Rana Sanga: Fought against Babur (Akbar's grandfather) at the Battle of Khanwa (1527).
Udai Singh II: Father of Maharana Pratap; fled when Akbar besieged Chittorgarh (1568).
Rana Pratap: Famous for his resistance to Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati (1576).
Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Other religious movements (Virashaiva, etc.)

Q4. In the context of Indian devotional music, which of the following correctly describes the contribution of Lal Ded ( Lalleshwari )?

  1. (a) She composed classical bhajans in Braj language dedicated to Lord Krishna.
  2. (b) She was a Kashmiri mystic who conveyed philosophy through vakhs (verses).
  3. (c) She pioneered the concert form using Sanskrit hymns.
  4. (d) She was a temple dancer known for composing compositions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) She was a Kashmiri mystic who conveyed philosophy through vakhs (verses).

Lal Ded (also known as Lalleshwari or Lal Arifa, 14th century CE) was a Kashmiri Shaivite mystic and poet.
She is renowned for her vakhs — short, pithy spiritual verses composed in the Kashmiri language — that express the core of Shaiva Advaita (non-dualistic) philosophy.
Her vakhs are among the earliest and most celebrated examples of Kashmiri literary poetry.
She emphasised direct personal experience of God (Shiva) over external rituals and caste distinctions.
Option A: She was a Shaivite, not associated with the Krishna Bhakti tradition.
Option C: She composed vakhs in Kashmiri, not Sanskrit hymns.
Option D: She was a mystic-poet and spiritual teacher, not known as a stage dancer or shringar composer.

Polity (4)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q5. Which Article assigns the responsibility of calling for elections a state to the Election Commission?

  1. (a) Article 324
  2. (b) Article 326
  3. (c) Article 327
  4. (d) Article 325
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 324

Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the President, and the Vice-President in the Election Commission of India.
This includes the responsibility for calling, conducting, and overseeing elections at both the national and state level.
Article 326: Deals with adult suffrage — the right to vote for all citizens aged 18 and above.
Article 327: Empowers Parliament to make provisions regarding elections to legislatures.
Article 325: Prohibits discrimination in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q6. A major focus of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 is to broaden the scope of 'documents' to include:

  1. (a) Only paper-based records
  2. (b) Electronic records, including emails, server logs, and digital signatures
  3. (c) Only certified public records
  4. (d) Documents submitted manually
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electronic records, including emails, server logs, and digital signatures

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A major reform in BSA is the explicit and wide inclusion of electronic records as admissible evidence.
Under BSA, 'documents' now explicitly include electronic records such as emails, electronic contracts, server logs, digital signatures, and metadata.
This modernizes evidence law for the digital age and aligns it with current technological realities.
Option A (only paper-based): BSA specifically moves away from a paper-only definition.
Option C (only certified records): BSA allows electronic records under appropriate conditions, not just certified ones.
Option D (manually submitted only): BSA broadens, not narrows, the scope of documents.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q7. Which offence, as per the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, is punishable with a minimum imprisonment of 3 years, extendable up to 10 years along with fine, and is triable by a Magistrate of the First Class?

  1. (a) Kidnapping a minor
  2. (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence
  3. (c) Abandoning a child below 12 years
  4. (d) Using a child for begging
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence

Answer: (b) Hiring or engaging a child to commit an offence
Solution:
UnderSection 95 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, hiring, employing or engaging a child to commit an offence is punishable.
The punishment isminimum 3 years, which may extend up to10 years, along withfine.
This offence istriable by a Magistrate of the First Class.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Police is a subject under the Union List.
2. Agriculture falls under the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Police is a subject under the STATE LIST (Entry 2 of the Seventh Schedule), not the Union List. Law and order is a state subject in India.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Agriculture is included under the STATE LIST (Entries 14, 18, 26, 27 etc. of the Seventh Schedule). Agricultural policy, land laws, and farming regulation are state subjects.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

Static GK (9)

Sports · Sports terminology

Q9. Which sport uses the terms "advantage in" and "advantage out"?

  1. (a) Tennis
  2. (b) Badminton
  3. (c) Table Tennis
  4. (d) Squash
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tennis

In Tennis, after a deuce (score is 40–40), the scoring uses "Advantage In" and "Advantage Out".
"Advantage In" (Van In): The server is one point ahead after deuce.
"Advantage Out" (Van Out): The receiver is one point ahead after deuce.
If the player with the advantage wins the next point, they win the game.
If they lose the next point, the score returns to deuce.
These terms are unique to tennis scoring and are not used in Badminton, Table Tennis, or Squash.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q10. In football (soccer), which of the following scenarios would result in an indirect free kick being awarded to the opposing team?

  1. (a) A player deliberately handles the ball within their own penalty area.
  2. (b) A player commits a foul from behind on an opponent, denying a clear goal-scoring opportunity.
  3. (c) The goalkeeper holds the ball for more than six seconds.
  4. (d) A defender trips an attacker inside the penalty area.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The goalkeeper holds the ball for more than six seconds.

An indirect free kick is awarded for technical/non-contact infringements (IFAB Laws of the Game, Law 12).
A goalkeeper holding the ball for more than 6 seconds (without releasing it) is a specific indirect free kick offence.
Option A — Deliberate handball in the penalty area by a defender: Results in a direct free kick or penalty kick.
Option B — Foul from behind denying a goal-scoring opportunity: Results in a direct free kick and possibly a red card.
Option D — Tripping inside the penalty area: Results in a penalty kick (direct free kick from the penalty spot), not an indirect free kick.
Only the goalkeeper's ball-holding offence results in an indirect free kick.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q11. In 2016, the Nobel Prize for Literature was controversially awarded to which American musician?

  1. (a) Leonard Cohen
  2. (b) Bruce Springsteen
  3. (c) Patti Smith
  4. (d) Bob Dylan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bob Dylan

Bob Dylan was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2016.
He was honoured 'for having created new poetic expressions within the great American song tradition.'
The award was controversial as Dylan is primarily known as a musician and singer-songwriter, not a traditional author.
He did not attend the award ceremony and took months to formally acknowledge the prize.
Leonard Cohen: Canadian singer-songwriter ('Hallelujah'); not the 2016 Nobel laureate.
Bruce Springsteen: American rock musician; not a Nobel Prize recipient.
Patti Smith: American singer, poet, and author; not the 2016 Nobel laureate (she performed at the ceremony in Dylan's place).
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q12. Which Indian boxer was penalized for refusing a medal ceremony in the 2014 Asian Games?

  1. (a) Vijender Singh
  2. (b) Mary Kom
  3. (c) Sarita Devi
  4. (d) Nikhat Zareen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarita Devi

L. Sarita Devi (Laishram Sarita Devi), a boxer from Manipur, refused to accept her silver medal at the 2014 Asian Games in Incheon, South Korea.
She was protesting a controversial judging decision in the women's 60 kg lightweight semifinal, in which she lost despite feeling she had won.
She placed the silver medal around the neck of her Korean opponent, Park Ji- na , as a protest gesture.
She was later given a suspended one-year ban by AIBA (now IBA) for this act of protest.
Vijender Singh: Indian boxer and later politician; not related to this incident.
Mary Kom: Six-time world champion from Manipur; not related to this incident.
Nikhat Zareen: Indian boxer who became world champion years later; not involved in this 2014 incident.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q13. Which of the following Indian states is famous for celebrating Bihu, a harvest festival?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Bihu is the most celebrated traditional festival of Assam.
It is observed three times a year:
1. Rongali ( Bohag ) Bihu — spring and Assamese New Year (April).
2. Kongali (Kati) Bihu — autumn, associated with scarcity (October).
3. Bhogali (Magh) Bihu — winter harvest festival (January).
Bihu is also famous for its traditional Bihu dance.
Odisha: Known for Rath Yatra, Nuakhai .
Rajasthan: Known for Gangaur , Teej , Pushkar Fair.
Goa: Known for Shigmo , Carnival.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q14. What is the predominant theme of Manipuri music?

  1. (a) War and victory
  2. (b) Devotion and love
  3. (c) Celebration of harvest
  4. (d) storytelling
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Devotion and love

Manipuri music is deeply rooted in the Vaishnavite (Bhakti) tradition of northeastern India.
The predominant theme is devotion and love — especially devotion to Lord Krishna and Radha.
Manipuri music is closely tied to Manipuri classical dance (Ras Lila) and features soft, melodic, devotional compositions.
Option A (Dance and war): More associated with martial traditions; not the core lyrical theme.
Option B (Puja and rituals): While present, the central lyrical theme is Bhakti — devotional love toward Krishna.
Option D (Nature and ecology): Not a primary theme of Manipuri classical music.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q15. What is the thematic focus of the Padam item in Bharatnatyam?

  1. (a) Devotional praise
  2. (b) Love and divine affection
  3. (c) Abstract dance
  4. (d) Rhythmic patterns
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Love and divine affection

In Bharatnatyam, the Padam is a slow, lyrical composition that explores love, longing, and divine affection.
Padam typically depicts the relationship between the Nayika (soul/devotee) and the Nayaka (God, often Krishna), expressing themes of yearning, separation, and devotional love.
Option A (Devotional praise): More characteristic of Varnam or Keertanam items.
Option C (Abstract dance): More characteristic of Tillana (pure rhythmic dance).
Option D (Rhythmic patterns): The focus of pure Nritta items like Alaripu .
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q16. Fill in the blank:
During the modern period, Pt. V.N. Bhatkhande and Pt. V.D. Paluskar contributed significantly to Hindustani classical music by introducing a systemized ___.

  1. (a) Medieval period — Raga-Ragini painting system
  2. (b) Colonial period — Notation system
  3. (c) Post-independence period — Stage performance culture
  4. (d) Ancient period — Tala system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Colonial period — Notation system

Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (V.D. Paluskar ) and Pt. K.N. Bhattacharje worked during the colonial (British) period in India.
V.D. Paluskar founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore (1901) and introduced a written music notation system (Swar Lipi) to make Hindustani classical music teachable and accessible.
Their efforts systematized music education and preserved the tradition during a period of cultural challenge.
Option A (Raga-Ragini paintings): These are visual art forms depicting ragas; not what Paluskar contributed.
Option C (Stage performance culture): Not the primary contribution of these musicians.
Option D (Tala system): The Tala system predates them; they contributed notation, not the tala framework.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q17. Who wrote the novel 'A Suitable Boy'?

  1. (a) Vikram Seth
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) Chetan Bhagat
  4. (d) Manu Joseph
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vikram Seth

'A Suitable Boy' (published 1993) is a celebrated novel by Vikram Seth.
It is one of the longest novels ever published in the English language (approximately 1,349 pages).
The novel is set in post-partition India (early 1950s) and follows a mother's quest to find a suitable husband for her daughter.
Salman Rushdie: Known for 'Midnight's Children' (Booker Prize, 1981) and 'The Satanic Verses'.
Chetan Bhagat: Known for 'Five Point Someone', '2 States', 'Revolution 2020'; writes popular fiction.
Manu Joseph: Indian journalist and author known for 'Serious Men' and 'The Illicit Happiness of Other People'.

Economics (12)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q18. The Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961) of India was primarily based on which economic model?

  1. (a) Harrod-Domar Model
  2. (b) Feldman Model
  3. (c) Keynesian Model
  4. (d) Mahalanobis Model
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mahalanobis Model

The Second Five Year Plan was primarily based on the Mahalanobis Model, developed by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (statistician, founder of ISI).
The model emphasized rapid industrialization, particularly in heavy capital goods industries (steel, mining, machinery).
It prioritized investment in the capital goods sector to build a self-sustaining industrial base for future growth.
Harrod-Domar Model: Used in the First Five Year Plan; focuses on the relationship between savings, investment, and growth.
Feldman Model: A Soviet model of industrialization; Mahalanobis drew inspiration from this in designing the Second Plan.
Keynesian Model: Focuses on aggregate demand management; not the basis of India's Five Year Plans.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q19. How would one characterize the trajectory of India's industrial sector during the Five Year Plans up to 1990?

  1. (a) Consistently surpassing projected growth rates across all sectors
  2. (b) Attaining swift technological progress and global competitiveness
  3. (c) Showing significant growth in fundamental and heavy industries, but often falling short of targets and facing inefficiencis .
  4. (d) Being predominantly propelled by private sector innovation and capital infusion, with minimal governmental intervention
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Showing significant growth in fundamental and heavy industries, but often falling short of targets and facing inefficiencis .

India's industrial sector under the Five Year Plans (1951–1990) showed mixed results.
There was significant expansion in heavy industries (steel, coal, power, railways) — mostly in the public sector.
However, many plans fell short of targets due to the License Raj, capital shortages, bureaucratic delays, and low productivity.
Option A is incorrect: Growth was inconsistent; several plans fell short of their targets.
Option B is incorrect: Technological progress was limited, and global competitiveness was very low.
Option D is incorrect: The private sector was heavily regulated; the government led most capital-intensive investment.
The correct characterization acknowledges both the achievements (infrastructure growth) and the serious inefficiencies of the planned industrial model.
Money and Banking · Types of banks (RRB, co-operative, payments, small finance)

Q20. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) uses which technology for cashless withdrawal?

  1. (a) QR card
  2. (b) NFC chip
  3. (c) OTP-based SMS
  4. (d) Virtual wallet
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) QR card

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) uses the QR card for cashless withdrawal.
The QR card contains a unique QR code that identifies the account holder.
Transactions are authenticated through biometrics (fingerprint), making the system more secure than a traditional ATM card.
It is particularly designed for rural customers who may lack smartphones; the postman or Gramin Dak Sevak (GDS) uses a micro-ATM to process the transaction at the customer's doorstep.
NFC chip: Not the primary technology for IPPB cashless withdrawal.
OTP-based SMS: While IPPB uses OTPs for certain services, the QR card is the designated cashless withdrawal technology.
Virtual wallet: A digital concept; IPPB uses a physical QR card for withdrawal.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q21. Who are the main beneficiaries of the PM-Kisan Maandhan Yojana?

  1. (a) Fishermen
  2. (b) Women SHGs
  3. (c) Marginal farmers
  4. (d) Retired civil servants
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Marginal farmers

PM Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a voluntary, contributory pension scheme for small and marginal farmers.
Eligibility: Farmers between 18–40 years of age with landholding up to 2 hectares.
Benefit: A monthly pension of ₹3,000 is guaranteed after the age of 60.
Both the farmer and the Government of India contribute equally to the Pension Fund (contribution ranges from ₹55 to ₹200 per month based on age).
Fishermen: Covered under PM Matsya Sampada Yojana and Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana.
Women SHGs: Covered under NRLM (National Rural Livelihood Mission).
Retired civil servants: Covered under NPS (National Pension System) or OPS (Old Pension Scheme).
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q22. What is a key factor considered in the World Happiness Report's ranking ?

  1. (a) Military Strength
  2. (b) GDP per capita
  3. (c) Internet Speed
  4. (d) Forest Cover
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) GDP per capita

The World Happiness Report (published annually by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network) ranks countries based on six key variables.
These are: GDP per capita, Social support (having someone to count on), Healthy life expectancy, Freedom to make life choices, Generosity, and Perceptions of corruption.
GDP per capita is one of the primary quantitative measures used in the happiness rankings.
Military Strength: Not a factor in the World Happiness Report.
Internet Speed: Not measured in the World Happiness Report.
Forest Cover: Not a component of the Happiness Report ranking.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - components and process

Q23. The Union Budget of India is presented for which period?

  1. (a) Calendar year
  2. (b) Financial year from Jan to Dec
  3. (c) Financial year from April to March
  4. (d) Financial year from July to June
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Financial year from April to March

Answer: (c) Financial year from April to March
Solution:
TheUnion Budget of Indiais presented for thefinancial year.
India’s financial year starts on1 Apriland ends on31 March.
So, the correct period isApril to March.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q24. Which of these is a pillar assessed by the Index of Economic Freedom?

  1. (a) Social welfare programs
  2. (b) Government Spending
  3. (c) Environmental Regulations
  4. (d) Military Expenditure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Government Spending

The Index of Economic Freedom (published by the Heritage Foundation) measures economic freedom across four broad pillars and 12 specific components.
The 12 components include: Property Rights, Government Integrity, Judicial Effectiveness, Tax Burden, Government Spending, Fiscal Health, Business Freedom, Labor Freedom, Monetary Freedom, Trade Freedom, Investment Freedom, and Financial Freedom.
Government Spending is one of the 12 pillars of the Index of Economic Freedom.
Social welfare programs: Not a separate pillar in the Index of Economic Freedom.
Environmental Regulations: Not a pillar of this index.
Military Expenditure: Not a component of the Index of Economic Freedom.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Market structures (perfect competition, monopoly, oligopoly)

Q25. Which of the following attributes is generally present in a perfectly competitive market?

  1. (a) Companies can enter or exit the market freely
  2. (b) Each company determines its own price based on the cost of production
  3. (c) A few companies monopolize the supply of products
  4. (d) Sellers provide slightly varying forms of the same thing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Companies can enter or exit the market freely

In a perfectly competitive market, one of the defining characteristics is free entry and exit of firms.
Other characteristics: Homogeneous (identical) products, price-taking behavior (firms accept market price), perfect information, and a large number of small buyers and sellers.
Option A (free entry and exit): CORRECT — this is a core feature of perfect competition.
Option B (firm sets own price based on cost): INCORRECT — in perfect competition, firms are price takers, not price setters. Individual firms have no market power to set prices.
Option C (one large seller): Describes a monopoly.
Option D (few companies monopolize): Describes an oligopoly.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q26. The GOBARdhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio- Agro Resources Dhan) scheme converts which of the following into valuable resources like compost and biogas?

  1. (a) Industrial effluents and hazardous waste
  2. (b) Agricultural waste and cattle dung
  3. (c) Plastic waste and e- waste
  4. (d) Marine wastes and fish residues
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agricultural waste and cattle dung

GOBARdhan stands for Galvanizing Organic Bio- Agro Resources Dhan.
The scheme converts cattle dung and agricultural/organic waste into:
1. Biogas / Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG): A clean cooking and vehicle fuel.
2. Organic compost/manure: Improves soil fertility and reduces chemical fertilizer use.
This improves rural sanitation, provides clean energy, and generates additional income for farmers.
Industrial effluents: Handled under separate environmental regulations; not the target of GOBARdhan .
Electronic waste: Governed by E-Waste Management Rules, not GOBARdhan .
Marine wastes: Not part of this scheme.
Industry and Infrastructure · MSME sector

Q27. Which of the following statements regarding the classification of small-scale industries in India is CORRECT?

  1. (a) They are classified based on the number of workers employed.
  2. (b) They are identified by annual turnover only.
  3. (c) They are classified based on capital investment in assets.
  4. (d) They are defined solely by export volume.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They are classified based on capital investment in assets.

Historically, and for the purpose of SSC/government exam classification, small-scale industries (SSIs) in India are identified based on capital investment in plant and machinery.
Under the revised MSME classification (2020), both investment in plant & machinery AND annual turnover are used as dual criteria.
However, the primary and traditional criterion for SSI classification remains capital investment in plant and machinery/assets.
Option A (number of workers): Not the classification criterion in India's MSME/SSI framework.
Option B (annual turnover only): Turnover alone is not the sole criterion.
Option D (export volume): Not used as a classification basis for SSIs in India.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q28. Which of the following was a defining feature of India's mixed economy model during the Five Year Plan period (1951–1991)?

  1. (a) No role for private enterprises
  2. (b) Only cooperative farming allowed
  3. (c) Coexistence of public sector with regulated private sector
  4. (d) Free market-driven liberal economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Coexistence of public sector with regulated private sector

India adopted a mixed economy model during the Five Year Plan era (1951–1991).
The defining feature was the coexistence of a dominant public sector (controlling strategic/heavy industries like steel, railways, energy) alongside a regulated private sector.
The private sector operated under the License Raj — a system of government-issued licences and controls.
Both sectors functioned concurrently, with the state directing overall development through central planning.
Option A: Incorrect — India had a large public sector, not a purely private-controlled economy.
Option B: Incorrect — cooperatives existed but the private sector also operated.
Option D: Incorrect — India was far from a free market; the License Raj involved heavy state regulation.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign exchange reserves and exchange rates

Q29. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Devaluation of the rupee in 1991 improved India's export competitiveness.
Reason (R): A weaker rupee made Indian goods cheaper in global markets.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion (A) is TRUE: The devaluation of the Indian rupee in 1991 (as part of the IMF-supported structural adjustment and balance of payments crisis response) did improve export competitiveness.
Reason (R) is TRUE: When the rupee is devalued (becomes weaker), Indian goods become relatively cheaper for foreign buyers (since they pay in stronger foreign currencies), making exports more competitive in global markets.
R correctly explains A: The improved export competitiveness (A) happened precisely BECAUSE a weaker rupee made Indian goods cheaper globally (R).
Therefore, Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Modern History (4)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q30. The introduction of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) in 1860 primarily aimed to:

  1. (a) Codify and standardize criminal laws across British India.
  2. (b) Promote traditional Indian legal systems.
  3. (c) Grant grater autonomy to village courts in resolving disputes.
  4. (d) Exclusively protect the interests of the British ruling class.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Codify and standardize criminal laws across British India.

The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was drafted by the First Law Commission, chaired by Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay.
It came into force on 1 January 1862 and its primary purpose was to codify and standardize criminal law uniformly applicable throughout British India.
Before the IPC, criminal law was administered under a patchwork of personal, local, and customary laws, creating inconsistency.
Option B: Incorrect — the IPC replaced many traditional Indian legal practices with a uniform Western-style code.
Option C: Incorrect — the IPC dealt with criminal law, not religious personal law (which remained separate).
Option D: Incorrect — the IPC centralized legal authority rather than decentralizing it.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q31. The Indian Councils Act of 1892 represented a limited expansion of Indian participation in legislative councils.
What was a notable feature of this Act regarding the selection of Indian members?

  1. (a) It introduced universal adult suffrage for the election of Indian members.
  2. (b) It allowed for the direct election of a majority of Indian members to the Central Legislative Council.
  3. (c) It restricted the nomination of some Indian members by the Governor-General and provided for indirect election through electoral colleges.
  4. (d) It mandated equal representation for all religious communities in the legislative councils.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It restricted the nomination of some Indian members by the Governor-General and provided for indirect election through electoral colleges.

The Indian Councils Act of 1892 was a step toward representative governance, though very limited.
It introduced a form of indirect election: bodies such as municipalities, district boards, trade associations, and universities could recommend names from which the Governor-General/Governors would nominate members.
This was not direct election but gave some representative character to the councils.
Option A is wrong: Universal adult suffrage came only with the Indian Constitution in 1950.
Option B is wrong: Direct election was not introduced under this Act.
Option D is wrong: Separate communal representation was first introduced under the Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act of 1909).
Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q32. Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): Peer Ali Khan was executed during the 1857 Revolt.
Reason (R): He was a British informant who switched sides during the uprising.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.
Solution:
Assertion (A) is truebecausePeer Ali Khanwas executed by the British during theRevolt of 1857.
Reason (R) is falsebecause he wasnot a British informantwho switched sides.
He was afreedom fighter/revolutionary, mainly associated with the 1857 uprising inPatna, Bihar.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q33. Which of the following statements best highlights the significance of Birsa Munda’s Ulgulan Movement in the context of tribal resistance during British colonial rule?

  1. (a) It was primarily a violent movement to reclaim forests and convert missionaries.
  2. (b) It led to the establishment of a separate Munda Raj under the British Crown.
  3. (c) It demanded the restoration of tribal land rights and challenged the dikus .
  4. (d) It was confined to religious reforms and had little impact on colonial administration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It demanded the restoration of tribal land rights and challenged the dikus .

Answer: (c) It demanded the restoration of tribal land rights and challenged the dikus .
Solution:
Birsa Munda’s Ulgulan Movementwas a major tribal resistance movement against British rule and exploitation.
Its main aim was to restoretribal land rightsand oppose the exploitation bydikusयानी बाहरी शोषक लोग .
The movement challenged landlords, moneylenders, missionaries and colonial interference in tribal society.

Current Affairs (5)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q34. Who was appointed as the Chief Justice of the Orissa High Court in March 2025?

  1. (a) Justic Joymalya Bagchi
  2. (b) Justice Arun Palli
  3. (c) Justice Hima Kohli
  4. (d) Justice Harish Tandon
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Justice Harish Tandon

Justice Harish Tandon was appointed as the Chief Justice of the Orissa (Odisha) High Court.
He was sworn in on 26 March 2025, with the oath administered by the Governor of Odisha, Hari Babu Kambhampati.
Prior to this appointment, Justice Tandon served as a judge of the Calcutta High Court.
He was appointed by President Droupadi Murmu on 21 March 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q35. What is the name of the official mascot for the Khelo India Para Games 2025?

  1. (a) Veera
  2. (b) Shakti
  3. (c) Ujjwala
  4. (d) Lakshya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ujjwala

Ujjwala is the official mascot of the 2nd Khelo India Para Games 2025, held in New Delhi (March 20–27, 2025).
Ujjwala is inspired by the House Sparrow — the official state bird of Delhi.
Just as the house sparrow nearly went extinct but survived, Ujjwala symbolises the resilience, determination, and fighting spirit of para-athletes who defy challenges.
The mascot was unveiled at a launch event in New Delhi in the presence of Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya.
Shakti, Veera, and Lakshya were not the mascots for this event.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q36. Which iconic Bharatanatyam dancer and actress, known for her work in over 230 films, was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2025?

  1. (a) Vhjayanthimala Bai
  2. (b) Shobana Chandrakumar Pilla
  3. (c) Malika Sarabhai
  4. (d) Alarmel valli
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shobana Chandrakumar Pilla

Answer: (b) Shobana Chandrakumar Pillai
Solution:
Shobana Chandrakumar Pillaiis a famousBharatanatyam dancer and actress.
She is known for acting inover 230 filmsacross different Indian languages.
She was honoured with thePadma Bhushan in 2025in the field ofArt.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q37. Fill in the blank:
The depth of the buried crater discovered by Chandrayaan-3 near its landing site is approximately ___.

  1. (a) 2.2 km
  2. (b) 4.4 km
  3. (c) 6.6 km
  4. (d) 1.1 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4.4 km

Answer: 4.4 km
Solution:
The buried crater near theChandrayaan-3 landing siteis approximately160 km wide.
Its depth is approximately4.4 km.
So, the correct option is4.4 km.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q38. What is the main goal of developing ISRO's MiniSAR (Miniaturised Synthetic Aperture Radar) at X-band?

  1. (a) To replace the PSLV upper stage with with a lighter radar system
  2. (b) To monitor atmospheric pressure changes over remote regions
  3. (c) To provide high-resolution X-Band radar imagery using compact airborne systems
  4. (d) To offer real-time video transmission during crewed missions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To provide high-resolution X-Band radar imagery using compact airborne systems

ISRO's MANAS (Miniaturised Airborne SAR) at X-band is designed to provide high-resolution Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) imagery from compact, lightweight airborne platforms.
X-band SAR operates at approximately 8–12 GHz, enabling high-resolution imaging.
Key advantages: All-weather capability, day-and-night imaging, can penetrate cloud cover.
Applications include terrain mapping, crop monitoring, disaster assessment, urban planning, and defence surveillance.
Option A (ionospheric changes): Not the purpose of X-band SAR.
Option D (video transmission): SAR captures radar images, not real-time video.

Ancient History (2)

Post-Mauryan Period · Kushanas and Kanishka

Q39. Which among the following statements is NOT true about Kanishka?

  1. (a) He patronized Buddhist scholars Vasumitra, Asvagosha , and Nagarjuna.
  2. (b) He convened the Fourth Buddhist Council.
  3. (c) Kanishka was succeeded by his son Vasudeva.
  4. (d) The famous physician Charaka was patronized by him.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kanishka was succeeded by his son Vasudeva.

This is a 'NOT TRUE' question — identify the incorrect statement.
Statement C is NOT TRUE: Kanishka was NOT immediately succeeded by his son Vasudeva. His immediate successors were Vasishka and Huvishka. Vasudeva I was a later Kushan king, not the direct successor.
Statement A is TRUE: Kanishka patronized prominent Buddhist scholars including Vasumitra, Asvagosha , and Nagarjuna.
Statement B is TRUE: Kanishka convened the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir), which led to the compilation of Mahavibhasha and helped establish Mahayana Buddhism.
Statement D is TRUE: Charaka, the renowned physician and author of the Charaka Samhita (ancient medical text), was reportedly associated with Kanishka's court.
Mahajanapadas and Rise of Magadha · Sixteen Mahajanapadas and their capitals

Q40. Match the following Janapadas with their capitals:
Column A Column B
1. Kashi a. Varanasi
2. Kosala b. Shravasti
3. Avanti c. Ujjayini
4. Magadha d. Rajagriha

  1. (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
  2. (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
  3. (c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
  4. (d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Kashi → Capital: Varanasi (present-day Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh).
Kosala → Capital: Shravasti (present-day Shravasti, Uttar Pradesh).
Avanti → Capital: Ujjayini (present-day Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh).
Magadha → Capital: Rajagriha (present-day Rajgir, Bihar); capital later shifted to Pataliputra.
All four are among the 16 Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) of ancient India (6th–4th century BCE).

Geography (5)

India - Drainage System · Lakes of India

Q41. Which of the following is the largest freshwater lake in India by surface area?

  1. (a) Dal Lake
  2. (b) Wular Lake
  3. (c) Loktak Lake
  4. (d) Nainital Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Wular Lake

Wular Lake, located in Bandipora district of Jammu & Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in India by surface area.
Its surface area varies seasonally between approximately 30 to 260 square kilometres depending on rainfall and water levels.
Dal Lake: Located in Srinagar, J&K; famous as a tourist destination and for houseboats, but much smaller than Wular.
Loktak Lake: The largest freshwater lake in northeastern India (Manipur); famous for phumdis (floating biomass islands), but smaller than Wular.
Nainital Lake: A small, picturesque hill-station lake in Uttarakhand; not among the largest in India.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Thar Desert

Q42. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
1. The Indian Desert extends east of the Aravalli range.
2. The region has low annual precipitation.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The Thar Desert lies to the WEST of the Aravalli range, not east.
The Aravalli range acts as a barrier, preventing the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds from reaching the desert region, leading to very low rainfall.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Thar Desert receives extremely low annual precipitation, typically less than 25–30 cm per year in most areas.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q43. Which of the following best defines population density in the context of India's demographic studies?

  1. (a) The number of people living in urban areas of a state
  2. (b) The ratio of employed individuals to the total population
  3. (c) The number of persons per unit area of land
  4. (d) The total population of a country divided by its total income
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The number of persons per unit area of land

Population density is defined as the number of persons (people) living per unit area of land, typically expressed as persons per square kilometre.
Formula: Population Density = Total Population ÷ Total Land Area
According to the Census of India 2011, India's population density was 382 persons per sq km.
Option A (urban population): This defines urbanisation or urban share, not density.
Option B (employment ratio): This is the employment rate or labour force participation rate.
Option D (population ÷ income): This is a meaningless demographic ratio.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q44. Which of the following district–state pairs is accurately associated with major iron ore reserves in India?

  1. (a) Sundargarh - jharkhand
  2. (b) Keonjhar – Odisha
  3. (c) Singhbhum - Bihar
  4. (d) Mayubhanj - Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Keonjhar – Odisha

Answer: (b) Keonjhar – Odisha
Solution:
Keonjhar districtinOdishais accurately associated with majoriron ore reservesin India.
Sundargarhis also in Odisha, not Jharkhand.
Singhbhumis mainly associated with Jharkhand, not Bihar, andMayurbhanjis in Odisha, not Assam.
Environment and Protected Areas · Biosphere reserves

Q45. Which of the following is NOT among the list of Indian biosphere reserves designated as a "UNESCO World Network Site" in 2024?

  1. (a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  2. (b) Panna Biosphere Reserve
  3. (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
  4. (d) Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (c) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
Solution:
Nilgiri,PannaandGreat Nicobarare part of UNESCO’sWorld Network of Biosphere Reserves.
Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserveis located inAssam, but it isnot includedin UNESCO’s World Network list.
Therefore, the correct option isDibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve.

Biology (2)

Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q46. Sequence the following stages of cellular respiration in the correct order:
1. Electron Transport Chain
2. Glycolysis
3. Krebs Cycle
4. Pyruvate Oxidation

  1. (a) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
  2. (b) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
  3. (c) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
  4. (d) 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1

The correct sequence of cellular respiration is:
Glycolysis (Stage 2): Occurs in the cytoplasm; glucose is split into two pyruvate molecules, yielding small amounts of ATP and NADH.
Pyruvate Oxidation (Stage 4): Pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix and is converted to Acetyl-CoA, releasing CO₂ and NADH.
Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid Cycle (Stage 3): Acetyl-CoA enters the cycle; produces NADH, FADH₂, GTP (ATP), and CO₂.
Electron Transport Chain (Stage 1): NADH and FADH₂ donate electrons; a large amount of ATP is produced via oxidative phosphorylation.
Correct sequence: 2 → 4 → 3 → 1.
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q47. Read the following statements about the human digestive system:
1. Bile emulsifies fats but does not contain enzymes.
2. Trypsinogen is activated by trypsin in the stomach.
3. Villi in the small intestine increase surface area for absorption.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Bile (produced by the liver, stored in the gallbladder) emulsifies fats — it breaks large fat globules into smaller droplets to increase surface area for enzyme action. Bile contains no digestive enzymes.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Trypsinogen (the inactive precursor) is activated by enterokinase ( enteropeptidase ), an enzyme secreted by the intestinal mucosa — NOT in the stomach and NOT initially by trypsin.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: Villi (and microvilli forming the brush border) in the small intestine dramatically increase the surface area for nutrient absorption.
Therefore, only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
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