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SSC Stenographer 2025 7 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 7 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Ancient History, Economics, Geography, Biology, Modern History.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 7 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (2) · Ancient History (2) · Economics (10) · Geography (6) · Biology (2) · Modern History (3) · Polity (7) · Static GK (9) · Physics (2) · Medieval History (1)

Current Affairs (2)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q1. Where was the National Cadets Judo Championships 2024-25 held?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

The correct answer is option 2. The National Cadets Judo Championships 2024-25 was hosted in Maharashtra . This championship serves as an important platform for young cadets to showcase their talent in judo at the national level. Events like this not only promote physical fitness and sportsmanship among cadets but also prepare them for future international competitions. Maharashtra has frequently hosted several national-level sporting events because of its advanced infrastructure and strong sporting culture.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q2. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Karnataka has the highest elephant population among Southern States.
Statement 2: A high number of juvenile elephant deaths in Karnataka are due to Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus (EEHV).

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Only Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Both statements are correct. Karnataka has the largest elephant population among Southern states, particularly in areas like Bandipur, Nagarhole, and Bannerghatta. Additionally, juvenile elephant deaths have been reported in Karnataka due to Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus (EEHV) , a deadly disease affecting young elephants.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q3. The Vesara style of temple architecture is a combination of which two styles?

  1. (a) Mughal and Dravidian
  2. (b) Nagara and Gothic
  3. (c) Dravidian and Nagara
  4. (d) Gandhara and French
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dravidian and Nagara

The correct answer is option 3. The Vesara style of temple architecture is a unique blend of the Dravidian style of South India and the Nagara style of North India. This hybrid form developed mainly under the rule of the Chalukyas of Badami and later flourished under the Rashtrakutas and Hoysalas in the Deccan region. The Vesara style temples typically combine the curvilinear shikhara of the Nagara style with the intricate, elaborate designs and pyramidal vimanas of the Dravidian style. This made Vesara a distinctive architectural tradition in Indian temple history.
Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist sects and spread

Q4. Whom Hiuen Tsang called "one of the four lights of world", who’s also called Indian Einstein?

  1. (a) Ashvaghosha
  2. (b) Nagarjuna
  3. (c) Charak
  4. (d) Vasumitra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nagarjuna

The great Buddhist philosopher Nagarjuna was described by Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang as "one of the four lights of the world." Nagarjuna is regarded as the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. Due to his profound logical and philosophical contributions, he is also called the Indian Einstein .

Economics (10)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q5. How did India’s trade policy reforms post-1991 impact the import of capital goods?

  1. (a) Linked capital imports only to foreign companies
  2. (b) Imposed import quotas on machinery
  3. (c) Banned all capital imports
  4. (d) Reduced tariffs and removed licensing
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reduced tariffs and removed licensing

The correct answer is option 4. After the 1991 economic reforms, India liberalized its trade policy to promote globalization and industrial growth. The import of capital goods was made easier by reducing import tariffs and removing import licensing requirements . Earlier, capital goods imports were restricted by high tariffs, quotas, and licensing controls, which increased production costs. The reforms created an open environment where firms could access modern machinery and technology from abroad at lower costs. This policy shift helped enhance industrial productivity, competitiveness, and integration of the Indian economy with the global market.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q6. What is the purpose of the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' scheme?

  1. (a) Employment for women
  2. (b) Financial support for girl’s marriage
  3. (c) Women’s health insurance
  4. (d) Saving and educating the girl child
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Saving and educating the girl child

The correct answer is option 4. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme was launched in 2015 by the Government of India with the primary objective of addressing the declining child sex ratio and promoting the education and empowerment of the girl child. It is a tri-ministerial initiative involving the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) . The scheme focuses on preventing female foeticide, ensuring the survival and protection of the girl child, and promoting her education to achieve gender equality in society.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q7. Which of the following sectors contributes the most to India’s GDP?

  1. (a) Manufacturing
  2. (b) Agriculture
  3. (c) Services
  4. (d) Mining
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Services

The correct answer is option 3. The services sector contributes the most to India’s GDP. Over the past few decades, India has transitioned from being an agriculture-dominated economy to one where services such as information technology, telecommunications, finance, real estate, transport, trade, tourism, and healthcare play the dominant role. As of recent data, the services sector accounts for more than 50% of India’s GDP , while agriculture and industry (manufacturing, mining, etc.) contribute smaller shares. This reflects India’s strength in knowledge-based industries and its growing global presence in IT and outsourcing services.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q8. What is used to measure the health dimension in HDI?

  1. (a) Access to clean water
  2. (b) Life expectancy at birth
  3. (c) Infant mortality rate
  4. (d) Nutritional status
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Life expectancy at birth

The correct answer is option 2. In the Human Development Index (HDI) , the health dimension is measured by life expectancy at birth . This indicator reflects the overall health conditions, quality of medical facilities, nutrition, sanitation, and living standards of a population. The higher the life expectancy, the better the health dimension score in HDI. The other two components of HDI are education (measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling) and standard of living (measured by Gross National Income per capita) .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q9. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) PM-JANMAN – Urban housing for tribals
  2. (b) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 – Theme-based tourism circuits
  3. (c) PM-AAGY – Railway safety in backward areas
  4. (d) Mission Shakti – Startup grants for rural men
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 – Theme-based tourism circuits

The correct answer is option 2. Swadesh Darshan 2.0 is indeed a central sector scheme that focuses on developing theme-based tourism circuits across India to promote tourism infrastructure, cultural heritage, and sustainable practices. The other options are mismatched: PM-JANMAN is related to the welfare of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), but not specifically about "urban housing"; PM-AAGY (Aspirational Area Programme) is aimed at holistic development of backward districts, not "railway safety"; and Mission Shakti is a women empowerment scheme, not startup grants for men.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q10. What was the main occupation of the majority of the Indian population during the period immediately after independence (around 1947)?

  1. (a) Services
  2. (b) Agriculture
  3. (c) Information Technology
  4. (d) Manufacturing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agriculture

The correct answer is Agriculture . At the time of independence in 1947, the Indian economy was predominantly agrarian. More than 70% of the Indian population was dependent on agriculture and allied activities for their livelihood. Industrial and service sectors were underdeveloped, and agriculture remained the backbone of the economy, providing employment to the majority of people.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q11. Which of the following is a benefit of measuring happiness in a country?

  1. (a) Improving economic statistics only
  2. (b) Understanding citizens’ mental and emotional well-being
  3. (c) Tracking crime rates
  4. (d) Predicting election results
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Understanding citizens’ mental and emotional well-being

Measuring happiness in a country is not limited to economic growth; it provides a holistic view of citizens’ well-being , including mental health, emotional balance, and quality of life. For example, Bhutan uses the Gross National Happiness (GNH) index , which measures not just income but also psychological well-being, cultural values, and environmental balance. This helps governments design better policies for overall human development rather than focusing only on GDP.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q12. During the period of 1947–1990, India’s trade policy was largely characterized by:

  1. (a) A policy of free trade with minimal government intervention in international transactions.
  2. (b) An inward-looking strategy emphasizing import substitution and protection of domestic industries.
  3. (c) An aggressive export-oriented strategy focused on global competitiveness.
  4. (d) A liberal import policy aimed at providing consumers with a wide range of goods.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) An inward-looking strategy emphasizing import substitution and protection of domestic industries.

Between 1947 and 1990, India adopted an inward-looking trade strategy , focusing on import substitution industrialization (ISI) . The government encouraged domestic production by restricting imports through high tariffs, quotas, and licenses , to reduce dependence on foreign goods. The aim was to protect infant industries and achieve self-reliance. While this policy helped build India’s industrial base, it also led to inefficiency and lack of competitiveness in global markets.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q13. What does the ‘invisible hand’ concept, as proposed by Adam Smith, primarily signify?

  1. (a) Government control in markets
  2. (b) Market equilibrium achieved via self-interest
  3. (c) Control of monopolies
  4. (d) International trade regulation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Market equilibrium achieved via self-interest

The concept of the ‘Invisible Hand’ , introduced by Adam Smith in his work “The Wealth of Nations” (1776) , refers to the idea that when individuals pursue their own self-interest in economic activities (such as production, trade, or investment), they unintentionally contribute to the overall economic welfare of society. Without any central planning or direct government intervention, the forces of demand and supply guide the market towards a natural equilibrium —as if led by an “invisible hand.” This principle forms the foundation of classical economics and advocates for free markets where competition ensures efficiency. Why other options are wrong: (1) Government control in markets contradicts Adam Smith’s theory, which emphasized minimal intervention. (3) Control of monopolies is a later development in economic theory, not Smith’s focus. (4) International trade regulation is separate from the invisible hand concept, which deals with market functioning in general. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2: Market equilibrium via self-interest .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic indices and rankings

Q14. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding global indices as of July 2025?

  1. (a) A rise in GNI per capita alone can significantly improve HDI, even with falling life expectancy and education.
  2. (b) Despite being discontinued, the Ease of Doing Business report remains influential for investors assessing startup procedures.
  3. (c) The World Happiness Report 2024 highlights social support, life expectancy, and GDP per capita as key happiness factors.
  4. (d) AQI consistently above 200 signals general health risks and requires urgent policy action.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A rise in GNI per capita alone can significantly improve HDI, even with falling life expectancy and education.

The statement claiming that a rise in GNI per capita alone can significantly improve HDI even with declining life expectancy and education is incorrect. The Human Development Index (HDI) is based on three dimensions : (1) Life expectancy (health), (2) Education (mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and (3) GNI per capita (income). Improvement in only GNI without progress in health and education cannot raise HDI significantly. Thus, the first statement contradicts the methodology of HDI and is wrong. Other statements are factually correct: although the Ease of Doing Business index has been discontinued, its legacy still influences investment perception; the World Happiness Report 2024 indeed emphasises social support, life expectancy, and GDP per capita; and AQI above 200 indicates severe health concerns requiring urgent action.

Geography (6)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Fluvial landforms

Q15. Which of the following is an erosional landform created primarily by river action?

  1. (a) Moraine
  2. (b) Levee
  3. (c) Gorge
  4. (d) Delta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gorge

The correct answer is option 3. A gorge is a deep, narrow valley with steep sides, formed by the erosional activity of rivers over a long period of time. It develops mainly in the upper course of a river where vertical erosion is dominant due to the swift flow of water. Examples include the Grand Canyon (USA) and the Ganga Gorge near Rishikesh. In contrast, moraines are depositional features formed by glaciers, levees are depositional embankments built by rivers during floods, and deltas are depositional landforms formed at river mouths where the river meets a sea or ocean.
Universe and Solar System · Universe, galaxies and Big Bang

Q16. What evidence supports the Big Bang theory of universe origin?

  1. (a) Volcanic eruptions on Earth
  2. (b) Solar wind
  3. (c) Redshift of galaxies
  4. (d) Sunspot cycles
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Redshift of galaxies

The correct answer is option 3. The redshift of galaxies provides strong evidence for the Big Bang theory. According to Edwin Hubble’s observations, distant galaxies appear to be moving away from us, and their light shows a shift toward the red end of the spectrum. This redshift indicates that the universe is expanding, which directly supports the idea that it originated from a singular, extremely dense and hot state about 13.8 billion years ago. Other supporting evidence includes Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) and the abundance of light elements like hydrogen and helium in the universe.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q17. Which of the following correctly matches the population growth phase in India with its key characteristic?

  1. (a) Phase IV (Post-1981) – Sudden increase in fertility rate due to migration
  2. (b) Phase III (1951-1981) – Population explosion caused by falling death rate and high fertility
  3. (c) Phase II (1921-1951) – High mortality rate and declining birth rate
  4. (d) Phase I (1901-1921) – Rapid population explosion due to low mortality and high fertility
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Phase III (1951-1981) – Population explosion caused by falling death rate and high fertility

The correct answer is option 2. India’s demographic history can be divided into distinct phases. Between 1951 and 1981 (Phase III) , India experienced a population explosion . This was primarily due to a sharp decline in the death rate as a result of medical advancements, better healthcare, improved sanitation, and disease control, while the birth rate remained high . This mismatch between falling death rates and still high fertility led to rapid growth in population. In contrast, Phase I (1901-1921) was a period of stagnant growth, Phase II (1921-1951) marked the beginning of growth with mortality decline, and Phase IV (post-1981) saw declining fertility rates leading towards population stabilization.
Universe and Solar System · Stars and their life cycle

Q18. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the life cycle of a star like the Sun?

  1. (a) Nebula → Red Giant → Main Sequence → White Dwarf
  2. (b) Protostar → White Dwarf → Red Giant → Main Sequence
  3. (c) Main Sequence → Red Giant → White Dwarf
  4. (d) Red Giant → Protostar → White Dwarf
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Main Sequence → Red Giant → White Dwarf

The correct sequence in the life cycle of a star like the Sun is Main Sequence → Red Giant → White Dwarf . A star like the Sun spends most of its life in the main sequence stage , where it fuses hydrogen into helium in its core. Once the hydrogen fuel begins to exhaust, the star expands into a Red Giant , where helium fusion and outer layer expansion occur. Finally, after shedding its outer layers, the core left behind cools and contracts into a White Dwarf , which slowly radiates away its remaining energy. This sequence applies specifically to medium-sized stars like the Sun, which do not end as supernovae but as white dwarfs.
India - Population and Census · Sex ratio and child sex ratio

Q19. Which of the following factors contributes to the low child sex ratio in some economically developed Northern states of India?
Increased accessibility to prenatal sex-determination methods
High levels of female literacy and empowerment
Societal preference for male children in inheritance and family support
Strengthened enforcement of gender-equal policies

  1. (a) 2 and 4
  2. (b) 1 and 4
  3. (c) 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

The major factors responsible for the low child sex ratio in some economically developed Northern states of India are (1) increased accessibility to prenatal sex-determination methods and (3) societal preference for male children in inheritance and family support . Economic prosperity in these regions provided easier access to modern medical technology, which unfortunately was misused for sex-selective abortions. At the same time, deep-rooted cultural and social preferences for sons—linked to inheritance rights, continuation of family lineage, and old-age support—further reduced the survival chances of girl children. This combination of technology misuse and patriarchal mindset is the main cause behind the declining child sex ratio.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest cover and mangroves

Q20. Name the state in which the Bhitarkanika Mangroves are located?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are located in Odisha , in the Kendrapara district. This region forms part of the Bhitarkanika National Park , which is famous for its saltwater crocodiles, rich mangrove forests, migratory birds, and Olive Ridley turtles . Bhitarkanika is considered the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India after the Sundarbans of West Bengal. The unique estuarine ecosystem is formed by the confluence of rivers like the Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Mahanadi. It is recognised as a Ramsar site (wetland of international importance) due to its biodiversity. Hence, the correct answer is Odisha .

Biology (2)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q21. In the lac operon model, what is the primary role of the allolactose molecule?

  1. (a) It acts as a corepressor, binding with the repressor protein.
  2. (b) It binds to the promoter to initiate transcription.
  3. (c) It functions as an inducer, binding to the repressor protein and inactivating it.
  4. (d) It directly codes for the enzymes involved in lactose metabolism.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It functions as an inducer, binding to the repressor protein and inactivating it.

The correct answer is option 3. In the lac operon model of prokaryotic gene regulation (studied in E. coli ), allolactose acts as an inducer molecule . When lactose is available, a small portion of it is converted into allolactose, which binds to the repressor protein . Normally, the repressor binds to the operator region and blocks transcription of lactose-metabolizing genes. However, when allolactose binds to the repressor, it changes the repressor’s shape, preventing it from attaching to the operator. This inactivation allows RNA polymerase to transcribe the genes responsible for lactose metabolism.
Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q22. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of meristematic tissues in plants?

  1. (a) Dead cells that provide mechanical support
  2. (b) Absence of nucleus and presence of lignified walls
  3. (c) Large vacuoles and thick cell walls
  4. (d) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei

The correct answer is option 4. Meristematic tissues are composed of actively dividing cells that are responsible for plant growth. These cells have dense cytoplasm, thin cell walls, small or absent vacuoles, and prominent nuclei . Their constant division adds new cells, enabling plants to grow in length (apical meristem), thickness (lateral meristem), and secondary structures. In contrast, dead cells with lignified walls and large vacuoles are features of permanent tissues like xylem and sclerenchyma, not meristematic tissues.

Modern History (3)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Chittagong Armoury Raid and other revolutionaries

Q23. With whose participation did the Anushilan group join forces when the Bengal Congress broke up into two factions after the death of CR Das?

  1. (a) Ganesh Ghosh
  2. (b) JM Sengupta
  3. (c) Subhash Bose
  4. (d) Surya Sen
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) JM Sengupta

The correct answer is option 2. After the death of Chittaranjan Das (CR Das) in 1925, the Bengal Congress was divided into two factions – one led by Subhas Chandra Bose and another by Jatindra Mohan Sengupta (JM Sengupta) . During this split, the revolutionary Anushilan Samiti chose to align with JM Sengupta . This alignment was significant as the Anushilan group believed in a more radical and militant approach, and Sengupta’s faction was more receptive to their methods compared to Bose’s side, which was inclined towards constructive programmes and organizational work under the Indian National Congress framework.
Gandhian Era · Simon Commission and Nehru Report

Q24. Consider the following statements comparing the Simon Commission (1927) and the Nehru Report (1928):
1. The Simon Commission was boycotted by Indian political parties primarily due to its all-Indian composition.
2. The Nehru Report proposed complete independence for India as its immediate objective.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Simon Commission (1927) was boycotted by Indian leaders not because of an all-Indian composition , but because it had no Indian members at all . It consisted entirely of British members, which angered Indians. Hence, statement 1 is false. The Nehru Report (1928) , chaired by Motilal Nehru, demanded dominion status for India, not complete independence as an immediate objective. Complete independence was first demanded officially in the Lahore Session of Congress, 1929 . Hence, statement 2 is also false. Therefore, the correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2 .
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · INC sessions, venues and presidents

Q25. Who was the first woman to be the president of the Indian National Congress?

  1. (a) Annie Besant
  2. (b) Kasturba Gandhi
  3. (c) Sarojini Naidu
  4. (d) Kamala Nehru
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Annie Besant

The first woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant in 1917 at the Calcutta Session. She was a theosophist, social reformer, and supporter of Indian self-rule. Later, Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman President of the Congress in 1925 at the Kanpur Session.

Polity (7)

Constitutional Development and Making · Committees of the Constituent Assembly

Q26. Who was the Chairman of the "Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas" in the Constituent Assembly?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) K.M. Munshi
  3. (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is option 3. In the Constituent Assembly, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas . This committee was extremely important as it dealt with sensitive issues like fundamental rights for citizens, safeguards for minorities, and the administration of tribal and excluded areas. The committee’s recommendations laid the foundation for key constitutional provisions related to fundamental rights and minority protections. While Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee , and Jawaharlal Nehru led the Union Powers Committee , Patel’s role as the chairman of the Advisory Committee highlighted his statesmanship and balancing approach in handling diverse interests.
Judiciary · High Courts

Q27. Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over more than one state?

  1. (a) Kerala High Court
  2. (b) Guwahati High Court
  3. (c) Patna High Court
  4. (d) Delhi High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Guwahati High Court

The correct answer is option 2. The Guwahati High Court , also known as the High Court of Assam, initially had jurisdiction over all the seven northeastern states. Today, it still serves as the common High Court for several states. The principal seat is in Guwahati (Assam), while it has permanent benches in Nagaland (Kohima), Mizoram (Aizawl), and Arunachal Pradesh (Itanagar) . This makes it unique among Indian High Courts, as most others have jurisdiction over only one state or union territory.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q28. What is the maximum time limit for completing the trial of a case under the POCSO Act?

  1. (a) 2 years
  2. (b) 1 year
  3. (c) 3 years
  4. (d) 6 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 year

The correct answer is option 2. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 , the law mandates that the trial of cases involving sexual offences against children must be completed within one year from the date the offence is reported. This provision ensures speedy justice for child victims and aims to reduce prolonged trauma caused by lengthy trials. The Act emphasizes child-friendly procedures, confidentiality, and time-bound investigation and trial to safeguard the best interests of the child.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q29. The "emoluments, allowances, and privileges of constitutional officeholders" are governed under which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Eleventh Schedule
  2. (b) Seventh Schedule
  3. (c) Fifth Schedule
  4. (d) Second Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Second Schedule

The correct answer is the Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This schedule deals with the provisions relating to the salaries, emoluments, allowances, and privileges of high constitutional functionaries such as the President, Vice-President, Governors, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies . It ensures that these key functionaries are given adequate financial security and privileges so that they can perform their duties independently, without any financial pressure from the executive.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q30. According to Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements is correct regarding the trial of offences under Sections 64 to 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Such offences are exclusively triable by Executive Magistrates.
  2. (b) The trial must be conducted by any police officer of the rank of DSP and above.
  3. (c) These offences shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a court presided over by a woman.
  4. (d) These offences must be tried only in a High Court under a male judge.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) These offences shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a court presided over by a woman.

According to Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 , the trial of offences under Sections 64 to 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 —which deal mainly with crimes against women—should, as far as practicable, be conducted in a court presided over by a woman judge . This provision has been made to ensure sensitivity, empathy, and fairness in handling cases involving women victims. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q31. Which entities are eligible to register under the FCRA?

  1. (a) Political parties
  2. (b) Government departments
  3. (c) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies
  4. (d) Only private companies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies

Under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010 , only certain non-profit entities are eligible to register and receive foreign contributions. These include Section 8 companies (non-profit companies under Companies Act, 2013) , registered trusts , and registered societies . The purpose of allowing these organizations is to ensure that foreign funds are used for charitable, social, educational, cultural, or religious activities . Political parties (Option 1) are prohibited from receiving foreign contributions to prevent political influence. Government departments (Option 2) are ineligible as they are funded by the state. Private companies (Option 4) are also ineligible unless they are incorporated as Section 8 non-profit companies . Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 .
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q32. Which discretionary power allows a Governor to reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President?

  1. (a) To grant pardon in certain cases.
  2. (b) To summon, prorogue, and dissolve the state legislative assembly.
  3. (c) To send a report to the President for the imposition of President’s Rule.
  4. (d) To reserve a bill for the President’s consideration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To reserve a bill for the President’s consideration.

Under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution , the Governor enjoys the discretionary power to reserve certain bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President . This is a unique power because in this matter, the Governor is not bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President can then approve, withhold, or return the bill. This provision ensures that laws passed by states do not conflict with national interest or constitutional provisions. Other powers mentioned in the options (granting pardons, summoning and dissolving the legislature, sending reports for President’s Rule) are constitutional duties but not discretionary in the same sense as reserving a bill for the President. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 .

Static GK (9)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q33. Bihu is a folk music and dance form associated with which Indian state?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assam

The correct answer is option 3. Bihu is the most popular folk music and dance form of Assam . It is closely linked with the Bihu festival , which is celebrated three times a year – Rongali or Bohag Bihu (April, marking Assamese New Year and spring season), Kongali or Kati Bihu (October, linked to crops and fields), and Bhogali or Magh Bihu (January, harvest festival) . The Bihu dance is performed with traditional instruments like dhol, pepa, taal, and gogona . It represents Assamese culture, joy, and agricultural traditions.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q34. What is the name of the satellite launched by ISRO’s GSLV-F09 that was a gift to SAARC nations?

  1. (a) GSAT-19
  2. (b) GSAT-9
  3. (c) IRNSS-1G
  4. (d) INSAT-3DR
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) GSAT-9

The correct answer is option 2. GSAT-9 , also known as the South Asia Satellite , was launched by ISRO on 5 May 2017 using the GSLV-F09 rocket. It was a unique diplomatic initiative by India to strengthen regional cooperation by providing communication and disaster support services to SAARC nations. Except for Pakistan, all other SAARC member countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) benefited from this satellite. It showcased India’s space diplomacy and technological leadership in the region.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q35. Earth remote sensing satellites (EOS) are primarily designed to:

  1. (a) Study the internal structure of Earth using seismic waves
  2. (b) Monitor weather, land use, and environmental changes on Earth
  3. (c) Drill into Earth’s crust for mineral samples
  4. (d) Build underground transport systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Monitor weather, land use, and environmental changes on Earth

The correct answer is option 2. Earth Observation Satellites (EOS) , also known as remote sensing satellites , are designed to monitor and collect data about the Earth’s surface, weather patterns, land use, natural resources, and environmental changes . These satellites are widely used for applications like agriculture (crop monitoring), forestry, urban planning, disaster management, water resources, and climate studies . For example, India’s Cartosat and Resourcesat series are part of the EOS program. They do not study the Earth’s internal structure (done by seismology) or build underground systems, but rather focus on large-scale Earth surface monitoring from space.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q36. Which of the below statements is/are correct?
Statement 1: India supports connectivity through the North-South Transport Corridor.
Statement 2: The corridor strengthens India’s trade with the Pacific Islands.

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
  3. (c) Only Statement 1 is correct
  4. (d) Only Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only Statement 1 is correct

The correct answer is option 3. India indeed supports connectivity through the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) , a multi-modal network of ship, rail, and road routes connecting India with Russia, Central Asia, and Europe via Iran. This corridor helps reduce transportation time and cost for trade between India and Eurasia. However, it does not strengthen trade with the Pacific Islands (Statement 2 is incorrect). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct .
Sports · Olympic Games

Q37. Which Indian woman was the pioneer in winning a silver medal at the Olympic Games?

  1. (a) Karnam Malleswari
  2. (b) P.V. Sindhu
  3. (c) Mary Kom
  4. (d) Saina Nehwal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) P.V. Sindhu

P.V. Sindhu became the first Indian woman to win a silver medal at the Olympics . She achieved this feat in the 2016 Rio Olympics in badminton (women’s singles). Before her, Karnam Malleswari won a bronze medal in weightlifting (2000 Sydney Olympics), while Saina Nehwal also won bronze in badminton (2012 London Olympics). Mary Kom won a bronze in boxing (2012). Thus, Sindhu’s silver in 2016 marked a historic milestone for Indian women in the Olympics.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q38. Bihu, the festival of Assam, is celebrated to mark:

  1. (a) The new harvest
  2. (b) The victory of good over evil
  3. (c) The end of the monsoon
  4. (d) The winter solstice
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The new harvest

Bihu is the most important festival of Assam, celebrated three times a year— Rongali or Bohag Bihu (April) , Kongali or Kati Bihu (October) , and Bhogali or Magh Bihu (January) . Among these, Rongali Bihu is the most significant as it marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year and the spring harvest season . The festival is associated with agriculture, fertility, and prosperity, where people celebrate by dancing, singing, and feasting. It is essentially a harvest festival marking the new crop cycle.
Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Tribhuvandas Patel?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha has passed a bill to setup Tribhuvan Sahkari University in Gujarat.
  2. (b) He was awarded Padma Vibhushan for his social service.
  3. (c) He was the founder of the Kaira Milk Union (Amul).
  4. (d) He was awarded Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) He was awarded Padma Vibhushan for his social service.

Tribhuvandas Patel was a noted freedom fighter and the founding chairman of the Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers’ Union, popularly known as Amul. He played a key role in the cooperative movement in India and was honoured with the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1963 . The Government of India also conferred on him the Padma Bhushan in 1964 . However, he was not awarded the Padma Vibhushan , which makes statement 2 incorrect.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q40. In which year did Toni Morrison become the first African-American woman to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?

  1. (a) 1991
  2. (b) 1993
  3. (c) 1995
  4. (d) 1987
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1993

Toni Morrison won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1993 , becoming the first African-American woman to receive this honour. The Nobel Committee praised her for her visionary force and poetic language , highlighting her ability to bring to life an essential aspect of American reality. Her works like "Beloved," "Song of Solomon," and "The Bluest Eye" explore African-American culture, history, and identity. Morrison’s Nobel Prize was a landmark achievement in recognising African-American literature globally.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q41. Sattriya, one of the classical dances of India, was introduced by which saint?

  1. (a) Sankardev
  2. (b) Tulsidas
  3. (c) Kabir
  4. (d) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sankardev

The classical dance form Sattriya originated in Assam and was introduced by the 15th–16th century saint and cultural reformer Srimanta Sankardev . He founded the Neo-Vaishnavism movement in Assam and used Sattriya dance as a medium to spread Vaishnavite teachings, devotional themes, and stories from the Bhagavata Purana and Ramayana. The dance was originally performed in Sattras (Vaishnavite monasteries) by male monks as a part of religious rituals, which is why it is called Sattriya . Later, it evolved into a classical dance recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. Other options are incorrect: Tulsidas was a saint-poet known for writing Ramcharitmanas ; Kabir was a Bhakti poet-saint known for his dohas; and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a saint from Bengal who spread Gaudiya Vaishnavism, but none of them founded Sattriya.

Physics (2)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Latent heat and change of state

Q42. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: A pressure cooker operates by decreasing the pressure inside, which lowers the boiling point of water.
Statement II: Food cooks faster in a pressure cooker because the higher pressure allows water to boil at a temperature above 100°C.
Statement III: The superheated steam within the cooker increases the rate of heat transfer to the food, leading to faster cooking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only II and III are correct
  2. (b) All I, II, and III are correct
  3. (c) Only I and II are correct
  4. (d) Only I and III are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only II and III are correct

The correct answer is option 1. In a pressure cooker, the pressure inside increases, not decreases . This increased pressure allows water to boil at a temperature higher than 100°C, which in turn cooks food faster (Statement II is correct). Additionally, the superheated steam generated inside transfers heat more efficiently to the food, further speeding up the cooking process (Statement III is correct). Statement I is wrong because it incorrectly says the pressure decreases. Thus, only II and III are correct .
Electricity · Resistors in series and parallel

Q43. A conductor of length L and resistance R is cut into two equal halves. These two halves are then connected in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance of this parallel combination?

  1. (a) R/4
  2. (b) R/2
  3. (c) R/8
  4. (d) R
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) R/4

The resistance of a conductor is proportional to its length. When the conductor of resistance R is cut into two equal halves, each half will have resistance R/2 . Now, these two halves (each of resistance R/2) are connected in parallel. Equivalent resistance in parallel = (R/2 × R/2) / (R/2 + R/2) = (R²/4) / R = R/4 . Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q44. How did the administrative roles of rajas differ from those of zamindars under the Mughal system?

  1. (a) Rajas governed broader regions and held a higher status, while zamindars primarily managed land revenue collection.
  2. (b) Zamindars exercised complete political control, whereas rajas held only ceremonial titles.
  3. (c) Zamindars were subordinate tax officers under the rajas, appointed directly by the emperor.
  4. (d) Rajas and zamindars performed identical roles but differed in their religious affiliations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajas governed broader regions and held a higher status, while zamindars primarily managed land revenue collection.

Under the Mughal system, rajas were traditional rulers who governed larger territories, held political and social prestige, and often acted as intermediaries between the Mughal emperor and local regions. They had a broader role in administration, justice, and maintaining order. On the other hand, zamindars were primarily revenue officials responsible for collecting land taxes from peasants and forwarding a share to the Mughal treasury. While rajas had sovereign authority within their regions (though under Mughal suzerainty), zamindars functioned more as local tax-collectors and land managers without sovereign power.
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