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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 22 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 22 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Miscellaneous, Geography, Polity, Economics, Current Affairs.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 22 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Computer (4) · Miscellaneous (1) · Geography (5) · Polity (5) · Economics (3) · Current Affairs (8) · Static GK (4) · Physics (2) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (2) · Chemistry (2)

Computer (4)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q1. A student finishes typing a paragraph and wants to make a copy of a sentence to use later in the document. She first selects the sentence. Which shortcut should she press next?

  1. (a) Ctrl + S
  2. (b) Ctrl + V
  3. (c) Ctrl + F
  4. (d) Ctrl + C
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ctrl + C

Topic:Copy-Paste Operations in Word Processing
Task: Make a copy of selected sentence for later use
Ctrl + C→ Copy (copies selected text to clipboard)
Ctrl + V→ Paste (pastes from clipboard)
Ctrl + S→ Save document
Ctrl + F→ Find text
Correct sequence: Select text →Ctrl + C(copy) → Move cursor → Ctrl + V (paste)
Answer: Option 4 → Ctrl + C
MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q2. In MS-Excel, if cells A1, A2 and A3 contain the values 2, 3 and 2 respectively, what is the result of the formula =A1*A2 + A2/A3?

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 9
  4. (d) 7.5
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 7.5

Given: A1 = 2, A2 = 3, A3 = 2
Formula:=A1*A2 +(A2)/(A3)
A1*A2 = 2×3 = 6
(A2)/(A3)=(3)/(2)= 1.5
Result: 6 + 1.5 =7.5
Answer: Option 4 → 7.5
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q3. Which of the following is an example of Application Software?

  1. (a) BIOS
  2. (b) Windows
  3. (c) MS Excel
  4. (d) Linux
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) MS Excel

Application Software vs System Software
System Software:Manages hardware and provides platform for applications
Examples: Operating Systems (Windows, Linux), BIOS
Application Software:Performs specific tasks for users
Examples: MS Excel, MS Word, Browsers, Media Players
BIOS → System Software (firmware)
Windows → Operating System (system software)
MS Excel→ Spreadsheet application (application software)
Linux → Operating System (system software)
Answer: Option 3 → MS Excel
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q4. Which of the following best describes an operating system?

  1. (a) A program used to access the internet
  2. (b) A program used for data entry
  3. (c) A program that manages memory, processes, and devices
  4. (d) A program used to watch videos
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A program that manages memory, processes, and devices

Operating System (OS)
An OS issystem softwarethat acts as an interface between hardware and user applications.
Key Functions:
• Memory Management – Allocates RAM to processes
• Process Management – Schedules CPU tasks
• Device Management – Controls I/O devices
Examples: Windows, Linux, macOS, Android
Options 1, 2, 4 describeapplication software, not OS.
Answer: Option 3 → A program that manages memory, processes, and devices

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Non-GK items (reasoning or maths) - keep out of GK mocks

Q5. Refer to the given letter, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) K Y C K & A A C P N P Y M R B # + J $ & ^ (Right)
How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a letter?

  1. (a) Three
  2. (b) Four
  3. (c) One
  4. (d) Two
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One

Given series: K Y C K & A A C P N P Y M R B # + J $ & ^
Condition:Symbol preceded by Symbol AND followed by Letter
Check each symbol:
& (pos 5): preceded by K (letter) ✗
# (pos 16): preceded by B (letter) ✗
+ (pos 17): preceded by # (symbol), followed by J (letter) ✓
$ (pos 19): preceded by J (letter) ✗
& (pos 20): preceded by $ (symbol), followed by ^ (symbol) ✗
^ (pos 21): preceded by & (symbol), no next element ✗
Only + satisfies both conditions
Answer: Option 3 → One

Geography (5)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q6. Which of the following separates the Andaman from Nicobar Islands?

  1. (a) Ten Degree Channel
  2. (b) Palk Strait
  3. (c) Nine Degree Channel
  4. (d) Six Degree Channel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ten Degree Channel

Topic:Indian Geography - Island Groups
Ten Degree Channelseparates Andaman Islands (north) from Nicobar Islands (south).
It is located at approximately 10°N latitude.
Other channels: Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from Lakshadweep.
Palk Strait separates India from Sri Lanka.
Answer: Option 1 → Ten Degree Channel
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q7. Which of the following best explains the difference between weather and climate?

  1. (a) Weather is permanent in nature; climate is temporary in nature
  2. (b) Weather refers to long-term trends; climate refers to short-term changes
  3. (c) Weather and climate mean exactly the same phenomenon
  4. (d) Weather refers to short-term changes; climate refers to long-term patterns
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Weather refers to short-term changes; climate refers to long-term patterns

Topic: Weather vs Climate
Weather:Short-term atmospheric conditions (hours to days)
Examples: Today's rain, temperature, wind
Climate:Long-term average weather patterns (30+ years)
Examples: Tropical climate, monsoon pattern
Key difference: Time scale - weather is temporary, climate is permanent pattern
Answer: Option 4 → Weather refers to short-term changes; climate refers to long-term patterns
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Non-metallic minerals

Q8. Which of the following is a non-metallic natural resource?

  1. (a) Copper
  2. (b) Iron ore
  3. (c) Gold
  4. (d) Limestone
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Limestone

Topic: Natural Resources Classification
Metallic Resources:Contain metals that can be extracted
Examples: Copper, Iron ore, Gold, Silver, Aluminum
Non-metallic Resources:Do not contain metals
Examples: Limestone, Marble, Gypsum, Coal, Petroleum
Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)
Used in cement production, construction, and agriculture
Answer: Option 4 → Limestone
India - Population and Census · Literacy rate

Q9. Which of the following states/UT in India had the literacy rate above 80% as per Census 2011?

  1. (a) Sikkim and Odisha
  2. (b) Goa and Tripura
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu and Assam
  4. (d) Himachal Pradesh and Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa and Tripura

Topic:Census 2011 - Literacy Rate
States/UTs with literacy rate above 80%:
Kerala (93.91%), Lakshadweep (92.28%), Mizoram (91.58%)
Tripura (87.75%), Goa (87.40%), Daman & Diu (87.07%)
Puducherry (86.55%), Chandigarh (86.43%)
Delhi (86.34%), Andaman & Nicobar (86.27%)
Checking options:
Sikkim (82.20%) ✓ , Odisha (73.45%) ✗
Goa (87.40%) ✓ , Tripura (87.75%) ✓
Tamil Nadu (80.33%) ✓ , Assam (73.18%) ✗
Himachal Pradesh (83.78%) ✓ , Haryana (76.64%) ✗
Answer: Option 2 → Goa and Tripura
Geography Miscellaneous · Geographical terms and instruments

Q10. Which of the following is a correct definition of the word 'tributary'?

  1. (a) A body of salty water mixing with river water
  2. (b) A river flowing into a larger river
  3. (c) A river branching away from another
  4. (d) A lake at the rivers mouth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A river flowing into a larger river

Tributary Definition
Atributaryis a stream or river that flows into a larger river or lake.
Key characteristics:
• Smaller water body joining a larger one
• Adds water volume to the main river
• Example: Yamuna is a tributary of Ganga
Other terms:
• Distributary: River branching away from main river
• Estuary: River mouth where freshwater meets seawater
Answer: Option 2 → A river flowing into a larger river

Polity (5)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q11. A person born in India between 26 January 1950 and 1 July 1987 is automatically considered a citizen of India by:

  1. (a) naturalisation
  2. (b) descent
  3. (c) registration
  4. (d) birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) birth

Topic: Indian Citizenship
Constitutional provision under Article 5:
Any person born in India between26 Jan 1950(commencement of Constitution) and1 July 1987automatically acquired citizenshipby birth.
This was unconditional citizenship based solely on place of birth (jus soli principle).
After 1987, Citizenship Act was amended to add conditions regarding parents' citizenship status.
Answer: Option 4 → birth
Parliament · Membership, qualifications and disqualifications

Q12. In accordance with Article 84 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is the minimum age a person must meet to qualify for membership of the House of the People?

  1. (a) Twenty-one years
  2. (b) Twenty-five years
  3. (c) Eighteen years
  4. (d) Thirty years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Twenty-five years

Article 84: Qualifications for Membership of Parliament
Article 84 of the Constitution specifies qualifications for membership of Parliament (both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
Minimum Age Requirements:
• Lok Sabha (House of the People):25 years
• Rajya Sabha (Council of States):30 years
Other qualifications include being a citizen of India and not holding any office of profit.
Answer: Option 2 → Twenty-five years
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q13. What is the maximum total duration for which President’s Rule can continue in a State under Article 356, subject to parliamentary approvals and constitutional conditions?

  1. (a) Up to two years
  2. (b) Up to four years
  3. (c) Up to one year
  4. (d) Up to three years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Up to three years

President's Rule under Article 356
Initial proclamation:6 months
First extension:6 months(requires parliamentary approval)
Further extensions:6 months each(requires two conditions):
1. Parliamentary approval by both Houses
2. Election Commission certifies elections cannot be held
Maximum duration: 3 years
Beyond 1 year requires special justification that elections
in the state are not possible to conduct.
Answer: Option 4 → Up to three years
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · UPSC and State PSCs

Q14. The appointing authority for the Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission under Article 316 of the Constitution of India is:

  1. (a) The President of India
  2. (b) The Governor of the State
  3. (c) The Chief Minister of the State
  4. (d) The Speaker of the State Assembly
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Governor of the State

Topic: State Public Service Commission (SPSC)
Article 316 of the Constitutiondeals with appointment and term of office of members of SPSC.
Key Provisions:
• Chairman and members are appointed by theGovernor of the State.
• Governor also determines their conditions of service.
• Members hold office for6 yearsor until age 62, whichever is earlier.
Note: President appoints UPSC members, Governor appoints SPSC members.
Answer: Option 2 → The Governor of the State
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q15. How do subordinate courts support the overall judicial system in India?

  1. (a) By enacting new legislation
  2. (b) By centralizing legal power in the higher judiciary
  3. (c) By exclusively handling appeals
  4. (d) By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice

Topic: Subordinate Courts in Indian Judicial System
Role of Subordinate Courts:
Subordinate courts form the foundation of India's judicial hierarchy.
They handle majority of civil and criminal cases at district and local levels.
Key Functions:
• Provide justice at grassroots level, closer to citizens
• Ensure quick disposal of cases without traveling to High Courts
• Handle first instance trials in most civil and criminal matters
• Reduce burden on higher judiciary by resolving cases locally
Why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: Courts interpret laws, legislature enacts them
Answer: Option 4 → By providing accessible, prompt, and localized justice

Economics (3)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q16. What does the Food for Work Programme aim to provide to the rural poor of backward districts?

  1. (a) Free electricity and water supply
  2. (b) Free education and training abroad
  3. (c) Access to private healthcare schemes
  4. (d) Supplementary wage employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Supplementary wage employment

Food for Work Programme
Launched to provide employment opportunities in rural backward areas.
Key Features:
• Wage employment during lean agricultural seasons
• Payment partly in cash and partly in food grains
• Focus on creating rural infrastructure assets
• Targets rural poor in backward districts
The programme aims to providesupplementary wage employmentto rural poor, especially during periods of low agricultural activity.
Answer: Option 4 → Supplementary wage employment
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q17. When was the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna launched?

  1. (a) 2008
  2. (b) 2000
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 1991
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2000

Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
Launched on25 December 2000by Atal Bihari Vajpayee government.
Objective: Provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations.
Implemented by Ministry of Rural Development.
Answer: Option 2 → 2000
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q18. The liberalization of the Indian economy in 1991 led to which of the following fiscal outcomes?

  1. (a) Lowering of direct and indirect tax rates
  2. (b) Elimination of all public debt
  3. (c) Sharp increase in Government control over pricing
  4. (d) Higher import duties
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lowering of direct and indirect tax rates

Topic: Economic Liberalization 1991
Key Reforms:
1. Tax reforms reduced direct tax rates (income tax, corporate tax)
2. Indirect tax rates (customs, excise) were lowered
3. Import duties were reduced to promote trade
Other Options:
Option 2: Public debt continued to exist
Option 3: Government reduced price controls, not increased
Option 4: Import duties were reduced, not increased
Answer: Option 1 → Lowering of direct and indirect tax rates

Current Affairs (8)

State News · State schemes and events

Q19. In December 2025, enforcement of a statewide prohibition on physical and emotional punishment in schools, in accordance with the provisions of the Right to Education Act, 2009, was carried out by which of the following states?

  1. (a) Manipur
  2. (b) Punja b
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

Topic: Right to Education Act, 2009 - Corporal Punishment Ban
Key Facts:
1. RTE Act 2009 prohibits physical and mental harassment of children in schools.
2. InDecember 2025,Maharashtraenforced statewide ban on corporal punishment.
3. This includes both physical and emotional punishment in all schools.
Answer: Option 4 → Maharashtra
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q20. Which wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh was announced in October 2025 to be developed as the third cheetah habitat in the state?

  1. (a) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. (b) Kuno National Park
  3. (c) Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. (d) Madhav National Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary

Topic:Cheetah Habitat in Madhya Pradesh
In October 2025,Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuarywas announced
as the third cheetah habitat in Madhya Pradesh.
First two habitats: Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar.
Nauradehi is located in Sagar district and is the largest
wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
Answer: Option 3 → Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q21. In 2025, India was re-elected to the Council of which organization for the 2026–27 term under Category B?

  1. (a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
  2. (b) International Seabed Authority
  3. (c) International Civil Aviation Organization
  4. (d) World Trade Organization
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)

Topic:International Maritime Organization (IMO)
Key Facts:
India re-elected to IMO Council for 2026-27 term
Election held in 2025 underCategory B
Category B: States with largest interest in international seaborne trade
IMO is UN specialized agency for maritime safety and shipping
Answer: Option 1 → International Maritime Organization (IMO)
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q22. Which Bill, assented to by the President of India in 2025, consolidates civil nuclear laws and allows private sector participation?

  1. (a) Civil Nuclear Governance and Private Sector Participation Framework Bill
  2. (b) National Policy for Nuclear Energy Expansion with Private Participation Bill
  3. (c) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill
  4. (d) Atomic Energy Reform and Private Participation in Nuclear Power Bill
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill

Topic:Recent Legislative Development in Nuclear Energy Sector
SHANTI Bill, 2025- Key Features:
1. Full form: Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India
2. Purpose: Consolidates existing civil nuclear laws in India
3. Major reform: Opens nuclear power sector to private participation for first time
4. Presidential assent received in 2025
Answer: Option 3 → Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q23. Which international agreement did India reaffirm its commitment to during the 2025 climate summit?

  1. (a) Kyoto Protocol
  2. (b) Montreal Protocol
  3. (c) Basel Convention
  4. (d) Paris Agreement
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Paris Agreement

Topic: International Climate Agreements
TheParis Agreement(2015) is the current global framework for climate action.
India has consistently reaffirmed its commitment to the Paris Agreement at climate summits, including COP meetings.
Key commitments: Net-zero emissions by 2070, renewable energy targets, and climate finance.
Answer: Option 4 → Paris Agreement
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q24. Which of the following is a legislative reform aimed at modernizing India’s aviation sector by re-enacting the Aircraft Act, 1934, in alignment with contemporary needs and global standards?

  1. (a) Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Act, 2023
  2. (b) The Carriage by Air (Amendment) Act, 2022
  3. (c) Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
  4. (d) Aircraft (Security) Rules, 2020 & Amendments (2022)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024

Topic:Aviation Sector Legislative Reforms in India
Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024is the new aviation law that replaces the outdated Aircraft Act, 1934.
Key Features:
• Modernizes aviation regulations to align with global standards
• Addresses contemporary aviation needs and safety requirements
• Comprehensive re-enactment rather than amendment
Other Options:
Option 1: Deals with aircraft financing and security interests
Option 2: Amends international air carriage liability provisions
Option 4: Focuses on security rules, not comprehensive reform
Answer: Option 3 → Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q25. Which facility, inaugurated in 2025 by the ISRO Chairman, became India’s first private-sector navigation innovation hub aimed at strengthening self-reliance in advanced navigation systems?

  1. (a) Centre for Indigenous Navigation Technologies
  2. (b) National Hub for Advanced Satellite Navigation
  3. (c) Ananth Centre of Excellence for Navigation
  4. (d) Indian Navigation Research and Innovation Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ananth Centre of Excellence for Navigation

Topic: ISRO & Navigation Innovation (2025)
In 2025, ISRO Chairman inaugurated India's first private-sector navigation innovation hub.
The facility is namedAnanth Centre of Excellence for Navigation.
Purpose: Strengthen self-reliance in advanced navigation systems through private sector collaboration.
Answer: Option 3 → Ananth Centre of Excellence for Navigation
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q26. In 2025, which city hosted the 3rd Council Meeting of the International Organization for Marine Aids to Navigation (IALA), organised by the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships?

  1. (a) Visakhapatnam
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

Topic: International Organization for Marine Aids to Navigation (IALA)
Key Facts:
• IALA 3rd Council Meeting held in 2025
• Organized by Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL)
• Host city: Mumbai, Maharashtra
• IALA promotes safe and efficient maritime navigation worldwide
Answer: Option 3 → Mumbai

Static GK (4)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q27. In which Indian state is the percussion instrument Davandi primarily found?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Topic: Indian Musical Instruments
Davandiis a traditional percussion instrument.
It is primarily found and used inTamil Nadu.
The instrument is part of Tamil folk music traditions.
Answer: Option 4 → Tamil Nadu
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q28. Who was the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal?

  1. (a) Sania Mirza
  2. (b) PV Sindhu
  3. (c) Saina Nehwal
  4. (d) PT Usha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Saina Nehwal

Topic:Indian Badminton - Olympic History
Saina Nehwalwon bronze medal at2012 London Olympics.
She became the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal.
PV Sindhu later won silver (2016) and bronze (2020).
Answer: Option 3 → Saina Nehwal
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q29. Kalamkari painting involves the use of which instrument for drawing outlines?

  1. (a) Paintbrush
  2. (b) Needle
  3. (c) Stylus
  4. (d) Bamboo pen
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bamboo pen

Topic: Kalamkari Art
Kalamkariis a traditional Indian art form from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
The word 'Kalam' means pen and 'kari' means craftsmanship.
Abamboo pen (kalam)is used to draw intricate outlines and patterns.
Natural dyes are applied using this bamboo pen on cotton fabric.
Answer: Option 4 → Bamboo pen
Sports · Cricket

Q30. In which year was the Ranji Trophy first held?

  1. (a) 1934–35
  2. (b) 1947–48
  3. (c) 1926–27
  4. (d) 1950–51
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1934–35

Topic: Ranji Trophy - Indian Domestic Cricket
The Ranji Trophy is India's premier domestic first-class cricket championship.
Named after Ranjitsinhji, the Maharaja Jam Sahib of Nawanagar.
First tournament held in1934–35season.
Bombay won the inaugural edition.
Answer: Option 1 → 1934–35

Physics (2)

Work, Energy and Power · Potential energy

Q31. Which of the following is a clear example of potential energy?

  1. (a) A falling rock
  2. (b) A burning candle
  3. (c) A stretched rubber band
  4. (d) A moving car
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A stretched rubber band

Topic: Potential Energy
Potential energy isstored energydue to position or state.
Analysis of options:
1. Falling rock → Kinetic energy (motion)
2. Burning candle → Chemical/Heat energy
3. Stretched rubber band →Elastic potential energy(stored)
4. Moving car → Kinetic energy (motion)
Stretched rubber band has stored energy ready to be released.
Answer: Option 3 → A stretched rubber band
Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q32. The interference of two identical waves moving in opposite directions produces:

  1. (a) Longitudinal Waves
  2. (b) Standing Waves
  3. (c) Incident Waves
  4. (d) Transversal waves
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Standing Waves

Topic: Wave Interference
When two identical waves travel in opposite directions,
they superpose and create a pattern where certain points
remain stationary (nodes) and others oscillate with maximum
amplitude (antinodes).
This phenomenon is calledStanding Wavesor
Stationary Waves.
Examples: Vibrating string, organ pipes, resonance tubes.
Answer: Option 2 → Standing Waves

Modern History (3)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Lucknow Pact

Q33. Which of the following pairs of leaders were closely associated with the signing of the Lucknow Pact of 1916?

  1. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji and Surendranath Banerjee
  2. (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah
  3. (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Annie Besant
  4. (d) Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Topic: Lucknow Pact of 1916
The Lucknow Pact was a historic agreement between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League signed in December 1916.
Key Leaders:
•Bal Gangadhar Tilakrepresented the Congress (Extremist faction)
•Muhammad Ali Jinnahrepresented the Muslim League
The pact aimed at Hindu-Muslim unity and joint demand for self-government from the British.
Answer: Option 2 → Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q34. Who was the leader of the Paika Rebellion of 1817, a significant early armed resistance against British East India Company rule in Odisha?

  1. (a) Chittu Singh
  2. (b) Bakshi Jagabandhu
  3. (c) Sidhu Murmu
  4. (d) Alluri Sitarama Raju
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bakshi Jagabandhu

Paika Rebellion (1817)
Location: Odisha (Khurda region)
Leader:Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar
- Military chief of King of Khurda
- Led armed peasant militia (Paikas) against British
Other leaders mentioned:
- Chittu Singh: Kol Rebellion (1831-32)
- Sidhu Murmu: Santhal Rebellion (1855-56)
- Alluri Sitarama Raju: Rampa Rebellion (1922-24)
Answer: Option 2 → Bakshi Jagabandhu
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Extremists - leaders and methods

Q35. In which year was Bal Gangadhar Tilak arrested by the British authorities for writing a seditious article in the newspaper ‘Kesari’?

  1. (a) 1910
  2. (b) 1907
  3. (c) 1908
  4. (d) 1909
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1908

Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Sedition Case
Tilak was arrested in1908for writing seditious articles in his newspaper'Kesari'.
The articles supported revolutionary activities after the Muzaffarpur bomb case.
He was sentenced to6 years imprisonmentin Mandalay, Burma.
This was his second sedition trial (first was in 1897).
Answer: Option 3 → 1908

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Economy, trade and seals

Q36. What was the dominant type of economy in the Harappan heartland?

  1. (a) Trade-based economy
  2. (b) Agro-pastoral
  3. (c) Hunting-gathering
  4. (d) Spiritual-centric
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agro-pastoral

Harappan Civilization Economy
The Harappan heartland (Indus Valley) had amixed economywith agriculture as the foundation.
Key Economic Features:
• Agriculture: Wheat, barley, cotton, dates cultivation
• Pastoralism: Cattle, sheep, goats rearing
• Trade existed but was supplementary to agro-pastoral base
The fertile Indus plains supported extensive farming and animal husbandry as primary economic activities.
Answer: Option 2 → Agro-pastoral
Mauryan Empire · Arthashastra and Indica

Q37. The administration of the Mauryan Empire is described in which ancient text?

  1. (a) Manusmriti
  2. (b) Mahabharata
  3. (c) Arthashastra
  4. (d) Rigveda
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arthashastra

Topic:Mauryan Empire Administration
Arthashastraby Kautilya (Chanakya) is the primary text.
Written during Chandragupta Maurya's reign (~300 BCE).
Describes statecraft, economics, military strategy, and governance.
Answer: Option 3 → Arthashastra

Chemistry (2)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Element families (alkali, alkaline earth, halogens, noble gases)

Q38. Which of the following elements is a gas at room temperature and belongs to Group 17 of the periodic table?

  1. (a) Iodine
  2. (b) Fluorine
  3. (c) Astatine
  4. (d) Bromine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fluorine

Topic: Halogens (Group 17)
Group 17 elements:F, Cl, Br, I, At
Physical states at room temperature:
Fluorine (F₂) → Gas
Chlorine (Cl₂) → Gas
Bromine (Br₂) → Liquid
Iodine (I₂) → Solid
Astatine (At) → Solid (radioactive)
Among options, onlyFluorine is gas.
Answer: Option 2 → Fluorine
Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Combustion and flame

Q39. While cooking, if the exterior of the cooking vessel becomes blackened, what does it indicate?

  1. (a) The fuel is fully burned.
  2. (b) The combustion of the fuel is incomplete.
  3. (c) The fuel contains moisture.
  4. (d) The food inside is undercooked.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The combustion of the fuel is incomplete.

Topic:Combustion and Soot Formation
Blackening of vessel exterior = Carbon deposits (soot)
Complete combustion: Fuel + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O (clean, no residue)
Incomplete combustion: Insufficient oxygen → Unburned carbon particles
These carbon particles deposit as black soot on vessel surface
Common causes: Poor air supply, low flame temperature, improper fuel-air ratio
Answer: Option 2 → The combustion of the fuel is incomplete.
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