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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 20 June 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 20 June 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Computer, Static GK, Economics, Modern History, Polity.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 20 June 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (7) · Computer (4) · Static GK (6) · Economics (4) · Modern History (3) · Polity (5) · Geography (4) · Chemistry (2) · Physics (1) · Biology (1) · Medieval History (2)

Current Affairs (7)

Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q1. During the 2025 event, SAMANVAY-2025, how many licensing agreements for technology transfer were handed over to industry partners by DRDO?

  1. (a) 8
  2. (b) 20
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 12
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 12

SAMANVAY-2025 Event
SAMANVAY is DRDO's annual industry outreach event.
During SAMANVAY-2025, DRDO handed over12 licensing agreementsfor technology transfer to industry partners.
This initiative promotes indigenization and self-reliance in defense manufacturing.
Answer: Option 4 → 12
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q2. In December 2025, which state government announced that the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve will be developed as a cheetah habitat before the onset of the next monsoon?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh

Topic: Current Affairs - December 2025
Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserveis located inMadhya Pradesh.
In December 2025, MP government announced development of this reserve as acheetah habitatbefore next monsoon.
This is part of India'sCheetah Reintroduction Project, with Kuno National Park (MP) being the primary site.
Answer: Option 2 → Madhya Pradesh
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q3. Who authored the book ‘Das Paise ka Postcard’, released in 2025?

  1. (a) Capt. S.N. Ahmed
  2. (b) V.S. Ravi
  3. (c) Bidyut Chakrabarty
  4. (d) Prakash Chand Kandpal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Capt. S.N. Ahmed

Topic: Recent Book Release (2025)
'Das Paise ka Postcard'is a book released in 2025.
Author:Capt. S.N. Ahmed
This is a recent publication in Indian literature.
Answer: Option 1 → Capt. S.N. Ahmed
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q4. Which leader in their keynote address at the World Sustainable Development Summit 2025 exemplified "Guyana’s growth without compromising environmental sustainability"?

  1. (a) Mark Phillips
  2. (b) Marina Silva
  3. (c) Bharrat Jagdeo
  4. (d) Vibha Dhawan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mark Phillips

World Sustainable Development Summit 2025
The keynote address highlightingGuyana's growth without compromising environmental sustainabilitywas delivered byMark Phillips.
Mark Phillips is thePrime Minister of Guyanaand emphasized Guyana's commitment to sustainable development while maintaining environmental protection.
The summit focused on balancing economic growth with ecological conservation.
Answer: Option 1 → Mark Phillips
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q5. What was the primary theme of ClimateNXT 2025, the Indian summit held on World Environment Day (June 5, 2025)?

  1. (a) Water conservation
  2. (b) Renewable energy transition
  3. (c) Beat Plastic Pollution
  4. (d) Clean air / urban pollution
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Beat Plastic Pollution

ClimateNXT 2025 Summit
Event: Indian summit held onWorld Environment Day(June 5, 2025)
Primary Theme:Beat Plastic Pollution
This aligns with global environmental campaigns focusing on reducing plastic waste and promoting sustainable alternatives.
Answer: Option 3 → Beat Plastic Pollution
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q6. Which among the following sector contributed 26.67% of India’s overall merchandise export in 2024-25?

  1. (a) Edible oil
  2. (b) Gold
  3. (c) Engineering goods
  4. (d) Crude petroleum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Engineering goods

India's Merchandise Export 2024-25
Engineering goods sector contributed26.67%of India's total merchandise exports in 2024-25.
This sector includes machinery, transport equipment, electronics, and manufactured metal products.
Engineering goods consistently remain India's largest export category, surpassing petroleum products, gems & jewelry, and agricultural products.
Answer: Option 3 → Engineering goods
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q7. By what percentage did the union government ask the states to cut down cooking oil use in mid-day meals in government and aided schools in March 2025?

  1. (a) 25%
  2. (b) 20%
  3. (c) 10%
  4. (d) 15%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 10%

Topic: Mid-Day Meal Scheme - March 2025
The Union Government issued guidelines to states in March 2025 regarding the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in government and aided schools.
States were asked to reduce cooking oil usage by10%to optimize costs while maintaining nutritional standards.
This directive was part of cost-rationalization measures for the scheme.
Answer: Option 3 → 10%

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q8. What is the primary purpose of Task Manager in Windows?

  1. (a) To edit text documents
  2. (b) To manage user passwords
  3. (c) To install new applications
  4. (d) To monitor and manage running applications, processes and system performance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To monitor and manage running applications, processes and system performance

Topic: Windows Task Manager
Task Manageris a system utility in Windows OS.
Primary Functions:
• Monitor running applications and processes
• View CPU, memory, disk, and network usage
• End unresponsive tasks/processes
• Check system performance in real-time
Accessed via: Ctrl+Shift+Esc or Ctrl+Alt+Del
Answer: Option 4 → To monitor and manage running applications, processes and system performance
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Programming languages and generations

Q9. The development of high‑level programming languages such as FORTRAN and COBOL changed computer use in which significant way?

  1. (a) It eliminated the need for compilers.
  2. (b) It forced all programmers to use binary numbers only.
  3. (c) It allowed programs to be written in more human‑readable forms, making complex software easier to develop.
  4. (d) It made computers work only for scientific calculations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It allowed programs to be written in more human‑readable forms, making complex software easier to develop.

Topic: High-Level Programming Languages
FORTRAN (1957)- First high-level language for scientific computing
COBOL (1959)- Designed for business data processing
Key Impact:
Before: Programs written in machine code/assembly (binary/hex)
After: English-like syntax made programming accessible
Enabled faster development of complex software
Reduced errors and improved code readability
Answer: Option 3 → It allowed programs to be written in more human‑readable forms, making complex software easier to develop.
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q10. Which power mode is required for systems using Instant-on / Always-Connected experiences in Windows 10 and 11?

  1. (a) Modern Standby
  2. (b) Hybrid Sleep
  3. (c) S3 Sleep
  4. (d) Legacy Hibernate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Modern Standby

Topic: Windows Power Management
Modern Standbyis the power mode required for Instant-on and Always-Connected experiences in Windows 10 and 11.
Key Features:
• Enables instant wake from sleep
• Maintains network connectivity in low-power state
• Allows background tasks and notifications
• Replaces traditional S3 sleep in modern devices
Other modes like S3 Sleep, Hybrid Sleep, and Legacy Hibernate do not support these features.
Answer: Option 1 → Modern Standby
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q11. In a Word document form, when you press the Tab key after filling a name field, to which element does the focus shift?

  1. (a) Deletes all entered form data instantly
  2. (b) Saves document and closes the form view
  3. (c) Prints the form with current entries
  4. (d) Moves cursor to subsequent input field or table cell
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Moves cursor to subsequent input field or table cell

Topic: MS Word - Form Navigation
Tab key in forms is used forfield navigation.
When Tab is pressed after filling a field:
• Focus automatically shifts to the next input field
• In tables, cursor moves to next cell
• Standard behavior across all form applications
Tab does NOT delete, save, or print data.
Answer: Option 4 → Moves cursor to subsequent input field or table cell

Static GK (6)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q12. The 'Saila' dance is associated with which of the following states?

  1. (a) Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Jharkhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chhattisgarh

Topic: Traditional Folk Dances of India
Saila Danceis a traditional folk dance ofChhattisgarh.
Performed by men during festivals and celebrations.
Dancers hold sticks (lathi) and perform rhythmic movements.
Popular during harvest season and Dussehra festival.
Answer: Option 1 → Chhattisgarh
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q13. The Pattachitra paintings, known for intricate detailing and mythological themes, originate from which Indian state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odisha

Topic: Traditional Indian Art Forms
Pattachitrais a traditional cloth-based scroll painting fromOdisha.
Key Features:
• Intricate detailing with mythological themes
• Depicts stories from Ramayana, Mahabharata, Jagannath culture
• Natural colors and fine brushwork on cloth
Major centers: Puri and Raghurajpur (Odisha)
Answer: Option 2 → Odisha
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q14. Which trophy is presented to the national football team that wins the UEFA European Championship?

  1. (a) Confederations Cup Trophy
  2. (b) Henri Delaunay Trophy
  3. (c) Copa America Trophy
  4. (d) FIFA World Cup Trophy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Henri Delaunay Trophy

Topic:UEFA European Championship Trophy
The UEFA European Championship winner receives theHenri Delaunay Trophy.
Named after Henri Delaunay, the first General Secretary of UEFA who proposed the tournament.
Other trophies: FIFA World Cup Trophy (World Cup), Copa America Trophy (South America), Confederations Cup Trophy (discontinued FIFA tournament).
Answer: Option 2 → Henri Delaunay Trophy
Monuments and Heritage · UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

Q15. In which year was the Taj Mahal of India inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. (a) 1983
  2. (b) 1981
  3. (c) 1980
  4. (d) 1984
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1983

Topic:UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India
TheTaj Mahalwas inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in1983.
It was among the first sites in India to receive this recognition.
Located in Agra, it is recognized for its outstanding universal value.
Answer: Option 1 → 1983
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q16. The 26ᵗʰ of January is celebrated every year in India as which of the following?

  1. (a) National Girl Child Day
  2. (b) Republic Day
  3. (c) Constitution Day
  4. (d) National Consumer Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Republic Day

26th January → Republic Day
India's Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.
This day marks India becoming a sovereign democratic republic.
Other Days:
National Girl Child Day → 24 January
Constitution Day → 26 November
National Consumer Day → 24 December
Answer: Option 2 → Republic Day
Organisations and Headquarters · United Nations and its agencies

Q17. India became a founding member of which global organization promoting peace and cooperation?

  1. (a) United Nations
  2. (b) ASEAN
  3. (c) OPEC
  4. (d) NATO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) United Nations

Topic:India's Founding Memberships
United Nations (UN)- Founded on 24 October 1945
India became a founding member on 30 October 1945
UN's primary goal: maintain international peace and security
Other options:
ASEAN (1967) - India not a member, only dialogue partner
OPEC (1960) - Oil-producing nations, India not a member
NATO (1949) - Military alliance, India not a member
Answer: Option 1 → United Nations

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q18. The balance of payments crisis that India faced in 1991 occurred mainly due to:

  1. (a) Excess industrial production
  2. (b) Large fiscal and current account deficits
  3. (c) Rapid growth in service exports
  4. (d) Sudden surge in foreign remittances
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Large fiscal and current account deficits

India's 1991 Balance of Payments Crisis
Main Causes:
• Largefiscal deficit(government overspending)
• Highcurrent account deficit(imports >> exports)
• Gulf War (1990-91) → oil prices rose sharply
• Foreign exchange reserves fell to$1 billion(barely 2 weeks of imports)
Result:India had to pledge gold to IMF and adoptLPG reforms(Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization)
Options 1, 3, 4 are incorrect — they would improve, not worsen, the crisis
Answer: Option 2 → Large fiscal and current account deficits
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q19. Which of the following organisations releases the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in India?

  1. (a) Union Public Service Commission
  2. (b) Reserve Bank of India
  3. (c) Bureau of Indian Standards
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) NITI Aayog

National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
Released by:NITI Aayogin collaboration with UNDP and OPHI (Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative).
First released: November 2021
Measures poverty across 12 indicators: health, education, and standard of living.
Answer: Option 4 → NITI Aayog
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q20. The Human Development Index (HDI) rankings are based on a score between _________.

  1. (a) 1 to 2
  2. (b) 0 to 1
  3. (c) 0 to 5
  4. (d) 1 to 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0 to 1

Human Development Index (HDI)
HDI is a composite index measuring average achievement
in three basic dimensions of human development:
• Health (Life expectancy)
• Education (Mean & expected years of schooling)
• Standard of living (GNI per capita)
HDI Score Range: 0 to 1
• 0 = Lowest human development
• 1 = Highest human development
Published annually by UNDP in Human Development Report
Answer: Option 2 → 0 to 1
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q21. When was the Rangarajan Committee constituted to review the Methodology for Measurement of Poverty in India?

  1. (a) 2012
  2. (b) 2010
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 2008
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2012

Rangarajan Committee on Poverty Measurement
The committee was constituted inJune 2012by the Planning Commission.
Chairman:Dr. C. Rangarajan(former RBI Governor)
Purpose: To review methodology for measuring poverty in India and suggest changes to the Tendulkar Committee approach.
The committee submitted its report inJune 2014.
Answer: Option 1 → 2012

Modern History (3)

Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q22. The Rowlatt Satyagraha of 1919 was launched by Gandhi to protest against:

  1. (a) Ban on vernacular press and public meetings
  2. (b) Partition of Bengal and separate electorates
  3. (c) New salt tax and increase in land revenue
  4. (d) Laws allowing detention and punishment without trial
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Laws allowing detention and punishment without trial

Topic: Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919)
Rowlatt Act (1919)- Known as 'Black Act'
Allowed British govt to arrest and detain any person without trial
Permitted imprisonment without judicial process for up to 2 years
Gandhi launched nationwide Satyagraha on 6 April 1919
Led to Jallianwala Bagh massacre (13 April 1919)
Answer: Option 4 → Laws allowing detention and punishment without trial
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Portuguese

Q23. Which of the following was a major reason for the arrival of Europeans in India?

  1. (a) To find a direct sea route for the spice trade
  2. (b) To establish democratic governance
  3. (c) To promote European art and culture
  4. (d) To spread industrialization
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To find a direct sea route for the spice trade

Topic: European Arrival in India
Key Facts:
1. Europeans sought direct sea route to India for lucrativespice trade(pepper, cinnamon, cloves).
2. Land routes were controlled by Arab traders and Ottoman Empire, making spices expensive.
3. Vasco da Gama discovered sea route to India in1498, landing at Calicut.
4. Primary motive waseconomic gainthrough trade, not governance or culture.
Answer: Option 1 → To find a direct sea route for the spice trade
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Moderates - leaders and methods

Q24. Which statement correctly describes the role of Gopal Krishna Gokhale in the early Indian National Movement?

  1. (a) He initiated armed revolutionary propaganda against British oppression.
  2. (b) He founded the Swaraj Party in 1923 to contest British-imposed elections.
  3. (c) He worked via constitutional reforms and moderate methods, respected as Gandhi’s political mentor.
  4. (d) He led the Salt March in 1930 as a protest against the salt tax.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) He worked via constitutional reforms and moderate methods, respected as Gandhi’s political mentor.

Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1866-1915)
Key Role:Leader of the Moderate faction in Indian National Congress.
Methods:Believed in constitutional reforms, petitions, and dialogue with British authorities.
Contributions:Founded Servants of India Society (1905) for social service and political education.
Gandhi's Mentor:Mahatma Gandhi called him his political guru and mentor.
Other Options:Armed revolution (Bhagat Singh), Swaraj Party (Motilal Nehru & C.R. Das), Salt March (Gandhi 1930).
Answer: Option 3 → He worked via constitutional reforms and moderate methods, respected as Gandhi's political mentor.

Polity (5)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q25. As per Indian Constitution the Election Commission of India is a _____________.

  1. (a) Non-Constitutional body
  2. (b) Statutory body
  3. (c) Constitutional body
  4. (d) Quasi-judicial body only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Constitutional body

Election Commission of India (ECI)
Established underArticle 324of the Indian Constitution.
It is aConstitutional body, not created by any Act of Parliament.
Functions: Conducts free and fair elections for Parliament, State Legislatures, and offices of President and Vice-President.
Also hasquasi-judicial powersfor election disputes.
Answer: Option 3 → Constitutional body
State Government · State Legislature - Legislative Assembly

Q26. The Vidhan Sabha is also known as the:

  1. (a) State Parliament
  2. (b) Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) Council of Ministers
  4. (d) Legislative Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Legislative Assembly

Topic: State Legislature
Vidhan Sabha is thelower houseof the state legislature.
It is officially called theLegislative Assembly.
Members are directly elected by the people of the state.
Vidhan Parishad (upper house) = Legislative Council.
Answer: Option 2 → Legislative Assembly
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q27. According to the Constitution of India, freedom of the press is implicitly protected as part of which specific Article guaranteeing freedom of speech and expression?

  1. (a) Article 19(1)(a)
  2. (b) Article 22
  3. (c) Article 21
  4. (d) Article 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 19(1)(a)

Topic:Fundamental Rights - Freedom of Speech and Expression
Article 19(1)(a)guarantees freedom of speech and expression to all citizens.
Freedom of the press is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
However, Supreme Court has held that press freedom isimplicitly includedunder Article 19(1)(a).
Other options: Article 21 (Right to Life), Article 22 (Protection against arrest), Article 32 (Constitutional remedies).
Answer: Option 1 → Article 19(1)(a)
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q28. Which of the following statements about Lok Adalat is correct?

  1. (a) Lok Adalat decisions are not binding on parties.
  2. (b) Lok Adalat has the power to enforce its decisions like a civil court.
  3. (c) Lok Adalat follows a lengthy and complex procedure similar to regular courts.
  4. (d) Lok Adalat mainly resolves disputes through arbitration.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lok Adalat has the power to enforce its decisions like a civil court.

Topic: Lok Adalat (Alternative Dispute Resolution)
Key Facts:
1. Lok Adalat decisions arebinding on all partiesand final.
2. Awards have status ofcivil court decreeunder Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
3. No appeal lies against Lok Adalat award.
4. Followssimple, informal procedurebased on conciliation, not arbitration.
5. Decisions areexecutable as court decrees.
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Incorrect — decisions ARE binding.
Option 2: Correct — has enforcement power like civil court.
Option 3: Incorrect — procedure is simple and informal.
Option 4: Incorrect — resolves through conciliation, not arbitration.
Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q29. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India specifies the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 370
  3. (c) Article 356
  4. (d) Article 368
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 368

Topic: Constitutional Amendment Power
Article 368deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for constitutional amendments.
Other Articles:
Article 352 → National Emergency
Article 370 → Special status to J&K (now abrogated)
Article 356 → President's Rule in states
Answer: Option 4 → Article 368

Geography (4)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Fluvial landforms

Q30. Which of the following landforms develops when a river cuts through a ridge, forming a narrow and steep-sided passage?

  1. (a) Dune
  2. (b) Gorge
  3. (c) Moraines
  4. (d) Plain
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gorge

Landform: River Erosion Feature
When a river cuts through a ridge or hard rock layer,
it creates anarrow, deep valley with steep sides.
This landform is called aGorge(or Canyon).
Other options:
• Dune → Wind-deposited sand formation
• Moraines → Glacial deposits
• Plain → Flat lowland area
Answer: Option 2 → Gorge
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q31. Which of the following rivers helps define a portion of the India–Bangladesh border?

  1. (a) Mahanadi
  2. (b) Narmada
  3. (c) Brahmaputra
  4. (d) Ganga
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ganga

India-Bangladesh Border Rivers
The Ganga River forms a natural boundary between India and Bangladesh in certain sections.
The river enters Bangladesh from West Bengal and continues as the Padma.
Other border rivers include Brahmaputra (enters as Jamuna) but Ganga is the primary answer.
Mahanadi flows in Odisha, Narmada in Central India - neither touch Bangladesh.
Answer: Option 4 → Ganga
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q32. Which of the following densities measures the pressure of population on net cultivated area in India?

  1. (a) Nutritional density
  2. (b) Economic density
  3. (c) Physiological density
  4. (d) Agricultural density
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Physiological density

Population Density Types:
Physiological Density= Population / Net Cultivated Area
Measures pressure on agricultural land actually used for farming
Agricultural Density= Rural Population / Net Cultivated Area
Nutritional Density= Related to food availability per person
Economic Density= Population / Productive Land
Physiological density shows how many people depend on each unit of cultivated land
Answer: Option 3 → Physiological density
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Rainfall distribution

Q33. Which of the following physiographic regions of India receives average annual rainfall of more than 200 cm?

  1. (a) Thar Desert
  2. (b) Western Ghats
  3. (c) Ladakh region
  4. (d) Interior Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Western Ghats

Topic: Rainfall Distribution in India
Western Ghats- Windward side receives heavy orographic rainfall from SW monsoon.
Annual rainfall exceeds200 cm, some areas receive >400 cm.
Thar Desert- Receives <25 cm (driest region).
Ladakh- Rain shadow area, receives <10 cm.
Interior Deccan- Rain shadow of Western Ghats, receives 50-100 cm.
Answer: Option 2 → Western Ghats

Chemistry (2)

Chemistry Miscellaneous · Chemists and their discoveries

Q34. Which Swiss chemist was the first to formulate his ideas about the structures of coordination compounds?

  1. (a) Alfred Werner
  2. (b) John Dalton
  3. (c) Isaac Newton
  4. (d) Robert Bunsen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alfred Werner

Topic: Coordination Chemistry
Alfred Werner(1866-1919) was a Swiss chemist.
He proposed theWerner's Theory of Coordination Compoundsin 1893.
Key contributions:
• Introduced concept of primary and secondary valencies
• Explained structure and bonding in coordination complexes
• Won Nobel Prize in Chemistry (1913) for this work
Other scientists: Dalton (Atomic Theory), Newton (Physics), Bunsen (Spectroscopy)
Answer: Option 1 → Alfred Werner
Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures

Q35. Which type of mixture is formed when Ethyl alcohol is dissolved in water?

  1. (a) Heterogeneous
  2. (b) Compounds
  3. (c) New element
  4. (d) Homogeneous
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Homogeneous

Topic: Types of Mixtures
When ethyl alcohol (C₂H₅OH) dissolves in water (H₂O), they mix uniformly at molecular level.
Key Points:
• Both are polar liquids and completely miscible
• Forms single phase with uniform composition throughout
• No visible boundaries between components
Homogeneous mixture= uniform composition, single phase
Heterogeneous mixture= non-uniform, multiple phases
Answer: Option 4 → Homogeneous

Physics (1)

Light - Refraction and Lenses · Total internal reflection and optical fibre

Q36. Mirage is an optical illusion which can be explained based on which of the following phenomena of light?

  1. (a) Diffraction
  2. (b) Interference
  3. (c) Photoelectric Effect
  4. (d) Total Internal Reflection
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Total Internal Reflection

Topic: Mirage - Optical Illusion
Mirage occurs due toTotal Internal Reflectionof light.
On hot days, air near ground is hotter and less dense than air above.
Light from sky travels from denser (cool) to rarer (hot) medium.
At critical angle, light undergoes total internal reflection.
This creates illusion of water on road/desert surface.
Answer: Option 4 → Total Internal Reflection

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Mendel's laws and experiments

Q37. Tallness in pea plants as identified by Mendel, represents which type of trait?

  1. (a) Recessive traits
  2. (b) Dominant traits
  3. (c) Hidden traits
  4. (d) Acquired traits
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dominant traits

Mendel's Pea Plant Experiment
Mendel crossed tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) pea plants.
F1 generation: All plants were tall (Tt).
This showedtallness is dominantover dwarfness.
Dominant trait: Expressed even in heterozygous condition (Tt).
Recessive trait (dwarfness): Only expressed in homozygous (tt).
Answer: Option 2 → Dominant traits

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Khalji dynasty

Q38. Before becoming Sultan, Alauddin Khalji held which important post under Jalaluddin?

  1. (a) Wazir
  2. (b) Sadr-us-Sudur
  3. (c) Amir-i-Tuzuk
  4. (d) Diwan-i-Arz
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amir-i-Tuzuk

Alauddin Khalji before becoming Sultan
Alauddin was the nephew and son-in-law of Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji.
He held the post ofAmir-i-Tuzuk(Master of Ceremonies).
Later appointed as Governor of Kara and Awadh.
He murdered Jalaluddin in 1296 and became Sultan.
Answer: Option 3 → Amir-i-Tuzuk
Mughal Empire · Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Q39. The Battle of Chausa, fought on 26 June 1539, was a military engagement between:

  1. (a) Akbar and Hemu
  2. (b) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
  3. (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
  4. (d) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Battle of Chausa (26 June 1539)
Fought betweenHumayun(Mughal Emperor) andSher Shah Suri(Afghan ruler).
Sher Shah Suri decisively defeated Humayun near Chausa (Bihar).
This defeat forced Humayun to flee from India temporarily.
Answer: Option 2 → Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
← 20 June 2026 Shift 2All shifts
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