Home › GK Questions Asked › RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 › 20 June 2026 Shift 2

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 20 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 20 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Biology, Current Affairs, Polity, Computer, Chemistry, Ancient History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 20 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Biology (2) · Current Affairs (7) · Polity (5) · Computer (4) · Chemistry (2) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (6) · Modern History (3) · Medieval History (2) · Geography (5) · Economics (2)

Biology (2)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases

Q1. Diabetes, cancer, and asthma are collectively known as which type of disorders?

  1. (a) Deficiency diseases
  2. (b) Communicable diseases
  3. (c) Airborne diseases
  4. (d) Non-communicable diseases
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Non-communicable diseases

Topic: Classification of Diseases
Diabetes, cancer, and asthma arenon-communicable diseases (NCDs).
Key characteristics:
• Cannot spread from person to person
• Caused by genetic, lifestyle, or environmental factors
• Chronic and long-lasting conditions
Deficiency diseases → caused by lack of nutrients (e.g., scurvy)
Communicable diseases → spread through contact (e.g., flu, TB)
Airborne diseases → spread through air (e.g., tuberculosis)
Answer: Option 4 → Non-communicable diseases
Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q2. Which molecule is primarily responsible for storing genetic information in most living organisms?

  1. (a) RNA
  2. (b) Lipid
  3. (c) Protein
  4. (d) DNA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) DNA

Topic: Genetic Material in Living Organisms
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)is the primary genetic material in most organisms.
DNA stores hereditary information in the form of genes.
RNA stores genetic information only in some viruses.
Proteins and lipids do not store genetic information.
Answer: Option 4 → DNA

Current Affairs (7)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q3. Who among the following wrote the book 'The World After Gaza'?

  1. (a) Amitabh Kant
  2. (b) Pankaj Mishra
  3. (c) Dr. S Jaishankar
  4. (d) Dr. Aishwarya Pandit
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pankaj Mishra

Topic: Recent Books and Authors
'The World After Gaza'is written byPankaj Mishra.
Pankaj Mishra is an Indian essayist and novelist known for his works on politics, culture, and history.
The book discusses geopolitical implications and global perspectives following the Gaza conflict.
Answer: Option 2 → Pankaj Mishra
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q4. Which two countries signed a peace accord known as the ‘Kuala Lumpur Peace Accord’ in October 2025?

  1. (a) Cambodia and Thailand
  2. (b) Malaysia and Indonesia
  3. (c) Thailand and Myanmar
  4. (d) Vietnam and Cambodia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cambodia and Thailand

Kuala Lumpur Peace Accord – October 2025
Signed between:Cambodia and Thailand
Purpose: To resolve long-standing border disputes and promote regional cooperation in Southeast Asia.
Location: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia (neutral venue)
Answer: Option 1 → Cambodia and Thailand
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q5. Who among the following announced the UN80 initiative in 2025?

  1. (a) Judge Yuji Iwasawa
  2. (b) Bob Rae
  3. (c) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
  4. (d) António Guterres
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) António Guterres

UN80 Initiative (2025)
Announced by:António Guterres, UN Secretary-General
Purpose: Commemorate 80th anniversary of United Nations (founded 1945)
Focus: Strengthen multilateralism and global cooperation
Answer: Option 4 → António Guterres
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q6. Under an MoU signed on 2 September 2025 between the Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare and Patanjali Yoggram, nearly six million veterans and their dependents will receive free access to which type of treatment?

  1. (a) Advanced cardiac treatment
  2. (b) Oncology treatment
  3. (c) AYUSH treatment
  4. (d) Allopathic treatment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) AYUSH treatment

MoU Details:
Date: 2 September 2025
Between: Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare & Patanjali Yoggram
Key Provision:
Nearly 6 million veterans and dependents get freeAYUSH treatment
(Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy)
Patanjali Yoggram specializes in traditional Indian medicine systems
Answer: Option 3 → AYUSH treatment
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q7. In March 2025, ISRO developed Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201. These are example of which of the following?

  1. (a) Space telescopes
  2. (b) New launch vehicles
  3. (c) 32-bit microprocessors
  4. (d) Navigation satellites
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 32-bit microprocessors

ISRO's Indigenous Microprocessors (March 2025)
Vikram 3201 and Kalpana 3201are India's first indigenous32-bit microprocessorsdeveloped by ISRO.
Named afterVikram Sarabhai(father of Indian space program) andKalpana Chawla(astronaut).
Designed for space applications to reduce dependency on foreign technology.
Part of ISRO's self-reliance initiative in critical space components.
Answer: Option 3 → 32-bit microprocessors
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q8. As mentioned in the Economic Survey 2024-25, what was the diaspora population of India in 2020?

  1. (a) 18 million
  2. (b) 12 million
  3. (c) 26 million
  4. (d) 32 million
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 18 million

Topic: Economic Survey 2024-25 - Indian Diaspora
The Economic Survey 2024-25 provides data on India's diaspora population.
Key Fact:
India's diaspora population in 2020 was18 million.
This makes India one of the largest diaspora populations globally.
Answer: Option 1 → 18 million
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q9. India and Russia conducted 14th Edition of Maritime Bilateral Exercise INDRA 2025 on which of the following coasts?

  1. (a) Vishakhapatnam
  2. (b) Kochi
  3. (c) Mangaluru
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chennai

INDRA 2025 - India-Russia Maritime Exercise
Exercise:14th Edition of INDRA Naval Exercise
Participants: Indian Navy and Russian Navy
Location:Chennai Coast (Bay of Bengal)
Date: January 2025
Key Facts:
- INDRA is a tri-service exercise (Army, Navy, Air Force)
- Naval component conducted off Chennai coast
- Focuses on maritime security and interoperability
Answer: Option 4 → Chennai

Polity (5)

State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q10. The governor can dissolve Vidhan Sabha before the completion of its term on the advice of the _______.

  1. (a) Election Commission
  2. (b) High Court of the State
  3. (c) Chief Minister
  4. (d) President
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chief Minister

Topic: Powers of Governor - Dissolution of Vidhan Sabha
Constitutional Provision:
Under Article 174, the Governor has the power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
Key Point:
The Governor exercises this power on the advice of theChief Ministerand the Council of Ministers.
The Chief Minister, being the head of the state government, recommends dissolution when necessary (e.g., loss of majority, political instability).
Answer: Option 3 → Chief Minister
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q11. The Right to Information Act 2005 was extended to the whole of India except which of the following state/UT at the time of enactment in 2005?

  1. (a) Tripura
  2. (b) Mizoram
  3. (c) West Bengal
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Topic: Right to Information Act, 2005
The RTI Act 2005 was enacted to provide citizens access to information under government control.
At the time of enactment in 2005, the Act was extended to the whole of Indiaexcept Jammu and Kashmir.
J&K had special status underArticle 370, which allowed it to have its own constitution and laws.
J&K later enacted its own RTI law in 2009.
After abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, the central RTI Act now applies to J&K.
Answer: Option 4 → Jammu and Kashmir
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q12. In which year was the Ninth Amendment to the Constitution passed in India?

  1. (a) 1962
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1964
  4. (d) 1960
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1960

Ninth Amendment Act, 1960
Key provisions:
• Transferred Berubari Union (West Bengal) to Pakistan
• Implemented Indo-Pakistan Agreement of 1958
• Modified First Schedule (territories of India)
Historical context: Part of boundary settlement
between India and Pakistan post-partition.
Answer: Option 4 → 1960
Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q13. The Supreme Court of India can issue how many types of writs (orders)?

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5

Topic: Writs under Article 32 (Supreme Court)
The Supreme Court can issue5 types of writs:
1.Habeas Corpus- To produce a person before court
2.Mandamus- To command performance of duty
3.Prohibition- To prohibit lower courts from exceeding jurisdiction
4.Certiorari- To quash orders of lower courts/tribunals
5.Quo Warranto- To inquire into legality of public office claim
Answer: Option 3 → 5
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q14. Which of the following correctly pairs the provision and its subject as per the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 9 – Citizenship by registration
  2. (b) Article 7 – Power of Parliament to regulate citizenship
  3. (c) Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement
  4. (d) Article 11 – Citizenship by birth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement

Topic: Citizenship Provisions (Part II, Articles 5-11)
Article 5– Citizenship at the commencement of Constitution
Article 6– Rights of citizenship of persons migrating from Pakistan
Article 7– Rights of migrants to Pakistan
Article 8– Rights of persons of Indian origin residing abroad
Article 9– Persons voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship
Article 10– Continuance of rights of citizenship
Article 11– Parliament's power to regulate citizenship by law
Option 1: Article 9 deals with termination, not registration
Option 2: Article 7 deals with migrants to Pakistan, not regulation
Option 4: Article 11 gives Parliament power to regulate, not birth
Answer: Option 3 → Article 5 – Citizenship at commencement

Computer (4)

Computer Fundamentals and History · Introduction and characteristics of computers

Q15. A computer’s characteristic of Accuracy means it can produce precise and correct results as long as the ___________________________ is/are correct.

  1. (a) speed of the processor
  2. (b) input data and instructions
  3. (c) size of the system’s RAM
  4. (d) resolution of the display screen
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) input data and instructions

Topic: Computer Fundamentals - Accuracy
Accuracyis a fundamental characteristic of computers that refers to their ability to produce error-free and precise results.
Key Point: Computer accuracy depends on the quality ofinput data and instructionsprovided to it.
Principle:GIGO (Garbage In, Garbage Out)- If input is correct, output will be accurate; if input is wrong, output will be wrong.
Speed, RAM size, and display resolution do not affect the correctness of results.
Answer: Option 2 → input data and instructions
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q16. Which combination correctly matches the device with its primary function?

  1. (a) OCR – Recognizing magnetic ink characters
  2. (b) MICR – Reading barcodes
  3. (c) OMR – Detecting shaded marks on paper
  4. (d) Barcode Reader – Capturing handwritten text
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) OMR – Detecting shaded marks on paper

Input Devices and Their Functions:
OCR (Optical Character Recognition)– Converts printed/handwritten text into digital format
MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition)– Reads magnetic ink characters (used in cheques)
OMR (Optical Mark Recognition)– Detects shaded/marked areas on paper (used in answer sheets, surveys)
Barcode Reader– Scans and reads barcodes (vertical lines pattern)
Option 3 correctly matches OMR with detecting shaded marks.
Answer: Option 3 → OMR – Detecting shaded marks on paper
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q17. When using the search term Invoice* in Windows 11 File Explorer, which files will be found?

  1. (a) Files that contain exactly the word “Invoice”
  2. (b) Files that have “Invoice” anywhere in the name
  3. (c) Files that end with the word “Invoice”
  4. (d) Files that begin with the word “Invoice”
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Files that begin with the word “Invoice”

Topic: Windows 11 File Explorer - Wildcard Search
The asterisk (*) is awildcard characterin File Explorer.
Invoice*means:
- Must start with 'Invoice'
- Followed by any characters (or none)
Examples found: Invoice.pdf, Invoice123.docx, InvoiceJan.xlsx
Not found: MyInvoice.pdf, 2024Invoice.docx
Answer: Option 4 → Files that begin with the word "Invoice"
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q18. What is the primary function of the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + H in applications like MS Word?

  1. (a) Displays document history
  2. (b) Highlights selected text
  3. (c) Opens the Help window
  4. (d) Opens the Find and Replace dialog box
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Opens the Find and Replace dialog box

Topic:Keyboard Shortcuts in MS Word
Ctrl + His a standard shortcut across Microsoft Office applications.
Function: Opens theFind and Replacedialog box directly.
This allows users to search for specific text and replace it with different text throughout the document.
Note: Ctrl + F opens only Find, while Ctrl + H opens Find and Replace together.
Answer: Option 4 → Opens the Find and Replace dialog box

Chemistry (2)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Element families (alkali, alkaline earth, halogens, noble gases)

Q19. Considering the periodic trends, which property explains why noble gases are chemically inert under standard conditions?

  1. (a) Low ionization energy
  2. (b) High atomic mass
  3. (c) High electronegativity
  4. (d) Completely filled valence shell
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Completely filled valence shell

Topic: Noble Gases - Chemical Inertness
Noble gases havecompletely filled valence shells(ns²np⁶ configuration).
This stable electronic configuration makes them highly unreactive as they have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons.
Examples: He (1s²), Ne (2s²2p⁶), Ar (3s²3p⁶)
Other options incorrect:
• Noble gases havehigh ionization energy(not low)
• Atomic mass doesn't determine reactivity
• Electronegativity is negligible for noble gases
Answer: Option 4 → Completely filled valence shell
Metals and Non-metals · Important non-metals and their facts

Q20. The dissolution of which of the following in water makes the solution acidic due to the formation of sulphurous acid?

  1. (a) Sulphur trioxide
  2. (b) Sulphonic acid
  3. (c) Sulphur hexafluoride
  4. (d) Sulphur dioxide
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sulphur dioxide

Topic: Acidic Oxides and Acid Formation
Sulphurous Acid Formation:
SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (Sulphurous acid)
Key Facts:
• SO₂ (Sulphur dioxide) is an acidic oxide
• Dissolves in water to form H₂SO₃
• SO₃ forms H₂SO₄ (Sulphuric acid), not sulphurous
• SF₆ is inert and doesn't react with water
Answer: Option 4 → Sulphur dioxide

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Chalukyas of Badami

Q21. Which of the following Deccan rulers defeated Harshavardhana and assumed the title “Dakshinapatheshvara” (Lord of the Deccan)?

  1. (a) Pulakeshin II
  2. (b) Narasimhavarman I
  3. (c) Dhruva Dharavarsha
  4. (d) Vikramaditya I
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pulakeshin II

Topic: Chalukya Dynasty - Pulakeshin II
Key Facts:
Pulakeshin II (610-642 CE) was the greatest ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Badami.
He defeated Harshavardhana of Kanauj on the banks of river Narmada around 618-620 CE.
After this victory, he assumed the title'Dakshinapatheshvara'(Lord of the Deccan).
This defeat halted Harsha's southern expansion and established Chalukya supremacy in the Deccan.
Answer: Option 1 → Pulakeshin II

Static GK (6)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q22. Which of the following traditional art forms originated in the Mithila region of Bihar?

  1. (a) Kalamkari paintings
  2. (b) Pattachitra paintings
  3. (c) Madhubani paintings
  4. (d) Warli paintings
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhubani paintings

Topic: Traditional Art Forms of India
Madhubani paintingsoriginated in theMithila region of Bihar.
Key Facts:
• Also known as Mithila paintings
• Created by women of villages around Madhubani district
• Characterized by geometric patterns and vibrant colors
Other options:
• Kalamkari → Andhra Pradesh
• Pattachitra → Odisha
• Warli → Maharashtra
Answer: Option 3 → Madhubani paintings
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q23. AR Rahman won the Academy Award for Best Original Score for which film?

  1. (a) Rockstar
  2. (b) Slumdog Millionaire
  3. (c) Dil Se
  4. (d) Lagaan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Slumdog Millionaire

AR Rahman's Academy Award Achievement
AR Rahman won2 Academy Awards (Oscars)in 2009.
Film:Slumdog Millionaire (2008)
Awards won:
• Best Original Score
• Best Original Song (Jai Ho)
This made him the first Indian to win 2 Oscars in same year.
Answer: Option 2 → Slumdog Millionaire
Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q24. Where is the head office of the National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj in India?

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Lucknow
  3. (c) Hyderabad
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hyderabad

Topic: National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR)
NIRDPRis an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Rural Development.
Head Office:Hyderabad, Telangana
It focuses on training, research, and consultancy in rural development and panchayati raj.
Answer: Option 3 → Hyderabad
Important Days and Themes · International days

Q25. The International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women marks the beginning of which global campaign?

  1. (a) 10 Days of Equality
  2. (b) 30 Days of Human Rights Protection
  3. (c) 7 Days for Women
  4. (d) 16 Days of Activism against Gender-Based Violence
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 16 Days of Activism against Gender-Based Violence

International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women
Date:25 November(observed annually)
This day marks the beginning of the16 Days of Activism against Gender-Based Violencecampaign.
Campaign Period: 25 November to 10 December (Human Rights Day)
Organized by: UN Women and international organizations
Answer: Option 4 → 16 Days of Activism against Gender-Based Violence
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q26. Which Indian ministry, in collaboration with the International Council for Circular Economy (ICCE), unveiled the ‘I Am Circular’ Coffee Table Book in April 2024?

  1. (a) Ministry of education
  2. (b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  3. (c) Ministry of Finance
  4. (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Topic: Government Initiatives - Circular Economy
'I Am Circular' Coffee Table Book - April 2024
Launched by:Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Collaboration: International Council for Circular Economy (ICCE)
Purpose: Promote circular economy practices in electronics sector
Answer: Option 4 → Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q27. Which of the following classical dance forms of India originated among the Kathakars (storytellers) of northern India, later incorporating elements of Bhakti traditions as well as Persian and Central Asian influences during the Mughal period?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Mohiniyattam
  3. (c) Bharatanatyam
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kathak

Topic: Classical Dance Forms of India
Kathakoriginated fromKathakars (storytellers)of northern India.
Initially a temple dance form, it incorporatedBhakti movementelements.
DuringMughal period, it absorbed Persian and Central Asian influences, evolving into a court dance.
Other options: Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh) - all from South India.
Answer: Option 1 → Kathak

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Press acts and other laws

Q28. The Arms Act of 1878 was introduced during the tenure of which Viceroy of British India?

  1. (a) Lord Ripon
  2. (b) Lord Lytton
  3. (c) Lord Curzon
  4. (d) Lord Wellesley
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lord Lytton

Topic: Arms Act of 1878
The Arms Act was passed in 1878 during the tenure ofLord Lytton(1876-1880).
This act prohibited Indians from possessing arms without licenses.
It was a repressive measure following the 1857 Revolt to disarm Indians.
Europeans and Anglo-Indians were exempted from this restriction.
Answer: Option 2 → Lord Lytton
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Extremists - leaders and methods

Q29. Which of the following activities formed a central component of the extremist strategy of political mobilisation in the early nationalist phase of India's freedom strugle?

  1. (a) Limiting participation to educated elites through controlled political forums
  2. (b) Adopting British constitutional practices as the primary model for reform
  3. (c) Promoting swadeshi through the boycott of foreign goods and local production
  4. (d) Replacing mass meetings with secret organisations focused on covert action
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promoting swadeshi through the boycott of foreign goods and local production

Topic: Extremist Strategy in Early Nationalist Movement
Extremist Leaders:Lal-Bal-Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal), Aurobindo Ghosh.
Key Strategy - Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908):
Boycott of British goods and promotion of indigenous products.
Mass mobilization through public meetings, processions, and festivals.
Economic self-reliance as tool for political freedom.
Why other options incorrect:
Option 1: Extremists wanted mass participation, not elite-only.
Option 2: They rejected British constitutional methods as inadequate.
Option 4: They used public mass movements, not secret organizations.
Answer: Option 3 → Promoting swadeshi through the boycott of foreign goods and local production
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · HRA, HSRA, Bhagat Singh and Kakori

Q30. In which year was the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) formed?

  1. (a) 1920
  2. (b) 1924
  3. (c) 1922
  4. (d) 1926
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1924

Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)
Founded inOctober 1924at Kanpur by revolutionary leaders.
Key founders: Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and others.
Later renamedHindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)in 1928.
Aim: Armed revolution against British rule.
Answer: Option 2 → 1924

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Lodi dynasty

Q31. Who succeeded Bahlol Lodi and ascended the throne in AD 1489?

  1. (a) Ibrahim Lodi
  2. (b) Muhammad Shah
  3. (c) Sikandar Lodi
  4. (d) Alam Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sikandar Lodi

Topic:Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526)
Bahlol Lodifounded the Lodi Dynasty in 1451.
He ruled until his death in1489.
Sikandar Lodi(his second son) succeeded him and ruled from 1489-1517.
Ibrahim Lodi (last Lodi ruler) came after Sikandar Lodi in 1517.
Answer: Option 3 → Sikandar Lodi
Delhi Sultanate · Mongol invasions

Q32. Which of the following was a major military reason behind the construction of Siri Fort?

  1. (a) To house Buddhist monasteries
  2. (b) To protect Delhi from Mongol attacks
  3. (c) To serve as a trading hub for the Songara Rajputs
  4. (d) To celebrate Khilji's victory over the Cholas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To protect Delhi from Mongol attacks

Siri Fort - Historical Context
Built by:Alauddin Khilji (1303 CE)
Primary Purpose:Military defense against Mongol invasions
Key Facts:
• Delhi faced repeated Mongol attacks in late 13th century
• Siri was the second city of Delhi built for strategic defense
• Fort had strong fortifications to repel Mongol cavalry
Answer: Option 2 → To protect Delhi from Mongol attacks

Geography (5)

India - Agriculture · Cash crops and leading states (cotton, jute, sugarcane, tea, coffee, rubber)

Q33. Which of the following is an example of a fibre crop in India?

  1. (a) Turnip
  2. (b) Radish
  3. (c) Cucumber
  4. (d) Jute
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Jute

Topic: Fibre Crops in India
Fibre crops are plants grown for their fibres used in textiles, ropes, and paper.
Major fibre crops in India:
• Jute (Golden Fibre) - West Bengal, Bihar
• Cotton - Gujarat, Maharashtra
• Coconut coir - Kerala, Tamil Nadu
Turnip, Radish → Root vegetables
Cucumber → Vegetable crop
Jute → Fibre crop (used in gunny bags, textiles)
Answer: Option 4 → Jute
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q34. The thorn and scrub vegetation of India is mainly found in which region?

  1. (a) Malabar Coast
  2. (b) Eastern Himalayas
  3. (c) Western Rajasthan
  4. (d) Sundarbans
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Western Rajasthan

Topic: Natural Vegetation of India
Thorn and scrub vegetation grows in areas withlow rainfall (below 70 cm)andsemi-arid climate.
Characteristics: Scattered thorny trees, bushes, cacti, acacias.
Main regions:Western Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.
Western Rajasthan (Thar Desert region) has the most extensive thorn forests due to scanty rainfall.
Answer: Option 3 → Western Rajasthan
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q35. Which mountain range lies immediately to the south of the Vindhyan Range, separated by the Narmada Valley?

  1. (a) Aravalli Range
  2. (b) Western Ghats
  3. (c) Satpura Range
  4. (d) Eastern Ghats
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Satpura Range

Topic: Indian Geography - Mountain Ranges
TheVindhyan Rangeruns east-west across central India.
TheNarmada Riverflows westward between Vindhyan and Satpura ranges.
TheSatpura Rangelies immediately south of Vindhyan Range, separated by Narmada Valley.
This forms a natural divide between North and South India.
Answer: Option 3 → Satpura Range
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q36. Which neighbouring country is separated from India by the Palk Strait?

  1. (a) Afghanistan
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Sri Lanka
  4. (d) Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sri Lanka

Topic: Indian Geography - Neighbouring Countries
Palk Straitis a narrow water body separating India and Sri Lanka.
It lies between Tamil Nadu (India) and northern Sri Lanka.
Width: approximately 53-82 km.
Answer: Option 3 → Sri Lanka
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q37. The Sardar Sarovar Project is built on which river?

  1. (a) Sabarmati
  2. (b) Narmada
  3. (c) Mahi
  4. (d) Tapi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narmada

Sardar Sarovar Project
Location: Gujarat (near Navagam)
Built on:Narmada River
One of the largest dam projects in India
Part of the Narmada Valley Project
Answer: Option 2 → Narmada

Economics (2)

Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q38. Which of the following statements about the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme is INCORRECT?

  1. (a) It aims at providing complete “plug and play” infrastructure till the plot level along with building sustainable future ready cities
  2. (b) It seeks to develop new industrial cities as smart cities by integrating next-generation technologies across infrastructure sectors
  3. (c) It is an infrastructure initiative that aims to shape the future of urban and industrial development
  4. (d) The program started with the launch of Palakkad-Bangalore-Mumbai-Ahmedabad Industrial Corridor in 2010
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The program started with the launch of Palakkad-Bangalore-Mumbai-Ahmedabad Industrial Corridor in 2010

National Industrial Corridor Development Programme
Statement 1: Correct - Provides plug and play infrastructure at plot level with sustainable cities
Statement 2: Correct - Develops smart industrial cities using next-gen technologies
Statement 3: Correct - Infrastructure initiative for urban and industrial development
Statement 4:INCORRECT- Program started withDelhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC)in 2007-08, not Palakkad-Bangalore-Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor
Key Fact: DMIC was the first industrial corridor launched under this programme
Answer: Option 4 → The program started with the launch of Palakkad-Bangalore-Mumbai-Ahmedabad Industrial Corridor in 2010
Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural credit and institutions (NABARD, KCC)

Q39. Which institution is primarily responsible for providing and regulating credit for the promotion of agriculture and rural development in India?

  1. (a) Ministry of Finance
  2. (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  4. (d) State Bank of India (SBI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

Topic: Agricultural Credit & Rural Development
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
• Established in 1982 under NABARD Act 1981
• Apex institution for agricultural credit and rural development
• Provides refinance to banks for agricultural loans
• Regulates and supervises cooperative banks and RRBs
Other institutions:
• RBI: Overall banking regulation
• Ministry of Finance: Policy formulation
• SBI: Commercial banking operations
Answer: Option 2 → National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
← 20 June 2026 Shift 1All shifts20 June 2026 Shift 3 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz