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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 8 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 8 May 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Geography, Computer, Ancient History, Current Affairs.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 8 May 2026⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Polity (6) · Economics (3) · Geography (4) · Computer (3) · Ancient History (2) · Current Affairs (7) · Static GK (2) · Medieval History (2) · Modern History (3) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (2)

Polity (6)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q1. Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act has inserted the word ‘socialist’ into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
  2. (b) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
  3. (c) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act
  4. (d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Preamble
The42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976is known as the 'Mini Constitution'.
Key changes made to the Preamble:
Added three words:Socialist, Secular, and Integrity
Original Preamble: 'Sovereign Democratic Republic'
After 42nd Amendment: 'SovereignSocialist SecularDemocratic Republic'
This amendment was enacted during the Emergency period under Indira Gandhi's government.
Answer: Option 1 → 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q2. Provision for 'living wage' and 'decent standard of life' for workers under the Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) is contained in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 43
  2. (b) Article 47
  3. (c) Article 42
  4. (d) Article 41
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 43

Topic: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Article 43- Living wage, conditions of work, and decent standard of life for workers.
Article 41- Right to work, education, and public assistance.
Article 42- Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
Article 47- Duty to raise nutrition level and standard of living.
Article 43 specifically mandates living wage and decent standard of life for workers.
Answer: Option 1 → Article 43
Fundamental Rights · Right to Property and Article 300A

Q3. Which Amendment Act restored the Right to Property as a legal right?

  1. (a) 48th Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment
  4. (d) 46th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44th Amendment

Topic:Right to Property - Constitutional Amendments
44th Amendment Act, 1978
Removed Right to Property from Fundamental Rights (Article 31).
Made it aLegal/Constitutional Rightunder Article 300A.
This means property can be acquired by law, but compensation
is not justiciable in courts.
Answer: Option 2 → 44th Amendment
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q4. Which of the following Union Territories of India was granted legislature through the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Andaman & Nicobar
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Chandigarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puducherry

Government of Union Territories Act, 1963
This Act provided for the creation of legislatures and councils of ministers for certain Union Territories.
Puducherry(then Pondicherry) was granted a legislature through this Act in 1963.
Delhi got its legislature much later through the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991.
Andaman & Nicobar and Chandigarh do not have legislatures.
Answer: Option 1 → Puducherry
Local Government · PESA Act, State Finance and State Election Commissions

Q5. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting elections to the:

  1. (a) President and Vice-President
  2. (b) State Assemblies
  3. (c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  4. (d) Panchayats and Municipalities
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Panchayats and Municipalities

Topic: State Election Commission
Constitutional Provision:Article 243K and 243ZA
State Election Commission conducts elections to:
• Panchayats (rural local bodies)
• Municipalities (urban local bodies)
Election Commission of India conducts:
• President, Vice-President
• Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
• State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: Option 4 → Panchayats and Municipalities
Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q6. Which Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (municipalities)?

  1. (a) 86th Amendment Act
  2. (b) 42nd Amendment Act
  3. (c) 74th Amendment Act
  4. (d) 73rd Amendment Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 74th Amendment Act

Topic:Constitutional Amendments - Local Self-Government
73rd Amendment Act (1992)→ Panchayati Raj (Rural Local Bodies)
74th Amendment Act (1992)→ Municipalities (Urban Local Bodies)
Both amendments gave constitutional status to local governance.
74th Amendment added Part IX-A and 12th Schedule to Constitution.
Answer: Option 3 → 74th Amendment Act

Economics (3)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q7. Which of the following agreements signed between India and Uzbekistan officially came into effect in May 2025, having been signed in September 2024 in Tashkent?

  1. (a) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
  2. (b) Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT)
  3. (c) Mutual Logistics Support Agreement (MLSA)
  4. (d) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT)

India-Uzbekistan Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT)
Key Facts:
• Signed in September 2024 during PM Modi's visit to Tashkent
• Officially came into effect in May 2025
• Aims to promote and protect investments between both nations
• Provides legal framework for bilateral investment protection
Answer: Option 2 → Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT)
Agriculture and Food Security · Rural development and rural credit

Q8. What was the initial corpus of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) when it was established in 1995-96?

  1. (a) ₹10,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹2,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹1,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹5,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹2,000 crore

Topic: Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
RIDF was established in1995-96by NABARD.
Purpose: Finance rural infrastructure projects in agriculture and allied sectors.
Initial corpus:₹2,000 crore
Funded by shortfall in priority sector lending by commercial banks.
Answer: Option 2 → ₹2,000 crore
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q9. Why were tax incentives provided to foreign investors during the 1991 economic reform period in India?

  1. (a) To increase tax revenue for the government
  2. (b) To promote domestic monopolies
  3. (c) To discourage foreign investment
  4. (d) To attract foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To attract foreign investment

1991 Economic Reforms in India
Context: India faced a severe balance of payments crisis in 1991, leading to comprehensive economic liberalization.
Tax Incentives to Foreign Investors:
• Reduced corporate tax rates for foreign companies
• Tax holidays for specific sectors and SEZs
• Exemptions on import duties for capital goods
Primary Objective:
To make India an attractive destination for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and bring in foreign capital, technology, and expertise.
Answer: Option 4 → To attract foreign investment

Geography (4)

India - Agriculture · Food crops and leading states

Q10. In which state of India are the three crops of rice — called ‘aus,’ ‘aman,’ and ‘boro’ — grown?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Manipur
  3. (c) Nagaland
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) West Bengal

Three Rice Crops System
Aus:Sown in March-April, harvested in June-July (summer crop)
Aman:Sown in June-July, harvested in November-December (main kharif crop)
Boro:Sown in November-December, harvested in March-April (winter/spring crop)
West Bengalis the primary state where all three rice crops are traditionally cultivated due to favorable climate and water availability.
Answer: Option 4 → West Bengal
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q11. Which of the following climatic regions has permafrost soil and low vegetation like mosses and lichens?

  1. (a) Aw – Tropical wet and dry climate
  2. (b) Cfb – Marine west coast climate
  3. (c) BSh – Subtropical steppe climate
  4. (d) ET – Tundra climate
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ET – Tundra climate

Topic: Climatic Regions and Vegetation
Permafrost soil= permanently frozen subsoil layer
Low vegetation= mosses, lichens, dwarf shrubs
ET – Tundra climate:
Found in polar regions (Arctic, Antarctic)
Temperature remains below 10°C in warmest month
Permafrost prevents deep-rooted plants
Only mosses, lichens, and low shrubs survive
Other options: Aw (tropical savanna), Cfb (temperate oceanic), BSh (semi-arid) lack permafrost
Answer: Option 4 → ET – Tundra climate
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q12. Which region of Maharashtra is known for iron ore production?

  1. (a) Pune and Thane
  2. (b) Aurangabad and Jalna
  3. (c) Chandrapur and Bhandara
  4. (d) Nagpur and Wardha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chandrapur and Bhandara

Topic: Iron Ore Production in Maharashtra
Chandrapur and Bhandaradistricts are the major iron ore producing regions in Maharashtra.
These districts are located in theVidarbha regionof eastern Maharashtra.
The iron ore deposits here are part of thePrecambrian formations.
Answer: Option 3 → Chandrapur and Bhandara
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q13. Which of the following is a correct match of a climate type with its vegetation or features as per Koeppen's scheme of classification of climate?

  1. (a) Aw – Deciduous forests and tree-shredded grasslands
  2. (b) BWh – Dense evergreen canopy
  3. (c) Cfa – Cold desert and permafrost
  4. (d) ET – Tropical rainforest
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aw – Deciduous forests and tree-shredded grasslands

Koeppen's Climate Classification
Aw Climate:Tropical Savanna (Wet-Dry)
Features: Distinct wet and dry seasons
Vegetation: Deciduous forests and tree-studded grasslands
Example: Parts of India, Africa, South America
Other Options Analysis:
BWh → Hot Desert (sparse vegetation, not dense canopy)
Cfa → Humid Subtropical (mild winters, not cold desert)
ET → Tundra (mosses/lichens, not tropical rainforest)
Answer: Option 1 → Aw – Deciduous forests and tree-shredded grasslands

Computer (3)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q14. Which function of the Operating System deals with allocation of CPU time among different running processes?

  1. (a) Device Management
  2. (b) Memory Management
  3. (c) Process Management
  4. (d) File Management
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Process Management

Operating System Functions:
Process Managementhandles CPU scheduling and allocation of CPU time to processes.
Key responsibilities:
• Creating and deleting processes
•CPU scheduling- allocating CPU time slices
• Process synchronization and communication
Other functions:
Device Management → I/O devices
Memory Management → RAM allocation
File Management → File storage
Answer: Option 3 → Process Management
Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q15. What does PCB stand for in a Computer System?

  1. (a) Programmed Control Board
  2. (b) Physical Circuit Block
  3. (c) Printed Circuit Board
  4. (d) Peripheral Circuit Board
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Printed Circuit Board

Topic: Computer Hardware Components
PCB is a fundamental component in computer systems.
PCB = Printed Circuit Board
It is a board with printed electrical circuits that connects
and supports electronic components like CPU, RAM, etc.
Answer: Option 3 → Printed Circuit Board
Computer Memory · Secondary storage devices

Q16. Which of the following correctly describes secondary memory?

  1. (a) Faster and more expensive than main memory
  2. (b) Volatile and faster than primary memory
  3. (c) Non-volatile and larger in storage capacity
  4. (d) Volatile and directly accessed by the CPU
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Non-volatile and larger in storage capacity

Secondary Memory Characteristics:
1.Non-volatile→ Data retained even after power off
2.Larger storage capacity→ GB to TB range
3.Slower than primary memory(RAM)
4.Not directly accessed by CPU→ Data first loaded to RAM
Examples: Hard Disk, SSD, CD, DVD, Pen Drive
Primary Memory (RAM) → Volatile, faster, smaller capacity
Secondary Memory → Non-volatile, slower, larger capacity
Answer: Option 3 → Non-volatile and larger in storage capacity

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Ancient inscriptions and scripts

Q17. The inscriptions of Ashoka and Kharavela were primarily written in which of the following languages?

  1. (a) Sanskrit
  2. (b) Prakrit
  3. (c) Pali
  4. (d) Bengali
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prakrit

Topic: Ancient Indian Inscriptions
Ashoka's Inscriptions:Written in Prakrit (Magadhi dialect)
Used Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts across India
Kharavela's Inscriptions:Hathigumpha inscription in Prakrit
Found in Udayagiri caves, Odisha
Key Fact:Prakrit was the common language of masses
Sanskrit was used later by rulers and scholars
Answer: Option 2 → Prakrit
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q18. Chandragupta I strengthened his political position by marrying Princess Kumaradevi of which tribal lineages?

  1. (a) Avanti
  2. (b) Gandhara
  3. (c) Panchala
  4. (d) Lichchhavi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lichchhavi

Topic: Gupta Empire - Chandragupta I
Chandragupta I (320-335 CE) was the founder of the Gupta Empire.
He married PrincessKumaradeviof theLichchhaviclan.
The Lichchhavis were a powerful republican tribe of Vaishali (Bihar).
This matrimonial alliance greatly strengthened his political position and legitimacy.
Coins were issued showing Chandragupta I and Kumaradevi together.
Answer: Option 4 → Lichchhavi

Current Affairs (7)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q19. Which national statistical organization is being changed by the Indian government's September 2025 draft bill ahead of its centenary?

  1. (a) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)
  2. (b) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
  3. (c) Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
  4. (d) Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

Topic:Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) Draft Bill 2025
In September 2025, the Indian government introduced a draft bill to restructure ISI ahead of its centenary (100 years) in 2031.
The bill proposes changes in ISI's governance structure and administrative framework.
ISI was established in 1931 by Professor P.C. Mahalanobis in Kolkata.
Answer: Option 1 → Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q20. What major engine milestone did ISRO achieve in March 2025?

  1. (a) First ion engine test
  2. (b) Solar electric propulsion demo
  3. (c) Flight acceptance hot testing of the CE20
  4. (d) Launch of a nuclear-based rocket engine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Flight acceptance hot testing of the CE20

ISRO Engine Milestone - March 2025
ISRO successfully completed theflight acceptance hot testing of the CE20 cryogenic enginein March 2025.
TheCE20is India's indigenously developed cryogenic upper stage engine used in GSLV Mk-III (LVM3) rockets.
This testing validates the engine's readiness for upcoming space missions including Gaganyaan and heavy satellite launches.
Answer: Option 3 → Flight acceptance hot testing of the CE20
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q21. Which rules define the process of identification, determination, and remediation of contaminated sites?

  1. (a) Air Quality Standards Rules, 2025
  2. (b) Urban Wetland Restoration Rules, 2025
  3. (c) Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025
  4. (d) Green Industrial Policy Rules, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025

Topic:Environmental Legislation 2025
TheEnvironment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025specifically address:
1. Identification of contaminated sites
2. Determination of contamination levels
3. Remediation procedures and standards
These rules provide framework for managing polluted land and industrial sites.
Answer: Option 3 → Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q22. In February 2025, which one of the following countries and India signed a declaration to establish a partnership focused on advanced and small modular nuclear reactors?

  1. (a) Japan
  2. (b) Russia
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) France

India-France Nuclear Partnership (February 2025)
India and France signed a declaration in February 2025 to establish a partnership focused on advanced and small modular nuclear reactors (SMRs).
This partnership aims to strengthen bilateral cooperation in civil nuclear energy and develop next-generation reactor technology.
France is a global leader in nuclear technology with extensive experience in reactor design and operation.
Answer: Option 3 → France
State News · State schemes and events

Q23. In Uttar Pradesh, which city’s police in December 2025 launched dedicated Closed User Group (CUG) phone numbers, enabling women to directly contact Mission Shakti Centre in-charges at police stations?

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Lucknow
  3. (c) Chandigarh
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lucknow

Topic: Mission Shakti Initiative - Uttar Pradesh
Key Facts:
1.Lucknow Policelaunched dedicated CUG phone numbers in December 2025
2. Initiative enables women to directly contact Mission Shakti Centre in-charges
3. CUG numbers provided at police stations for women's safety
4. Part of UP's Mission Shakti program for women empowerment
Note: Patna is in Bihar, Chandigarh is UT, Delhi is NCT - not in UP
Answer: Option 2 → Lucknow
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q24. In the CCPI (Climate Change Performance Index) 2025, how is a country's climate performance assessed?

  1. (a) Solely based on renewable energy production statistics
  2. (b) Through public opinion surveys and industrial growth trends
  3. (c) Only by analyzing national emissions targets and forest cover data
  4. (d) By combining emissions, energy use, and expert-reviewed climate policy data
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) By combining emissions, energy use, and expert-reviewed climate policy data

CCPI 2025 Assessment Framework
The Climate Change Performance Index uses acomprehensive multi-indicator approach.
Four Main Categories (100%):
1. GHG Emissions (40%)
2. Renewable Energy (20%)
3. Energy Use (20%)
4. Climate Policy (20%)
Climate Policy is evaluated throughexpert reviewsfrom national and international sources.
This holistic method combinesquantitative data(emissions, energy) withqualitative assessment(policy evaluation).
Answer: Option 4 → By combining emissions, energy use, and expert-reviewed climate policy data
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q25. What is the name of India’s first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease, launched in November 2025?

  1. (a) Sickle Cure
  2. (b) GENO-1
  3. (c) CRISPR-X
  4. (d) BIRSA 101
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) BIRSA 101

Topic: India's Indigenous Gene Therapy
BIRSA 101is India's first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease.
Launched in November 2025 by the Indian government.
Named after tribal leaderBirsa Munda, honoring tribal communities affected by sickle cell disease.
UsesCRISPR-Cas9technology to edit defective genes causing sickle cell anemia.
Answer: Option 4 → BIRSA 101

Static GK (2)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Puppetry and theatre forms

Q26. Tholpavakoothu, the traditional shadow puppetry performance, originates from which Indian state?

  1. (a) West Bengal
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala

Tholpavakoothu - Traditional Shadow Puppetry
Origin:Kerala
Key Facts:
• Ancient art form performed in Kali temples
• Uses leather puppets depicting Ramayana stories
• Performed during temple festivals, especially in Palakkad region
Answer: Option 3 → Kerala
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q27. Who among the following is India's first-ever two-time Olympic medallist in an individual event and the first Indian to win a wrestling world championship?

  1. (a) Col. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
  2. (b) Bajrang Punia
  3. (c) Geeta Phogat
  4. (d) Sushil Kumar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sushil Kumar

Topic: Indian Sports Achievements
Sushil Kumar's Olympic Medals:
Bronze at Beijing 2008 (66 kg wrestling)
Silver at London 2012 (66 kg wrestling)
First Indian with 2 individual Olympic medals
World Championship:
Gold at 2010 World Wrestling Championship (Moscow)
First Indian wrestler to win world championship
Other Options:
Rathore: 1 Olympic medal (shooting)
Bajrang: World medals but 1 Olympic medal
Answer: Option 4 → Sushil Kumar

Medieval History (2)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara administration and architecture

Q28. Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, was the capital of which empire?

  1. (a) Vijayanagara Empire
  2. (b) Gupta Empire
  3. (c) Maurya Empire
  4. (d) Mughal Empire
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vijayanagara Empire

Hampi - UNESCO World Heritage Site
Capital ofVijayanagara Empire(1336-1646 CE)
Located in Karnataka, on banks of Tungabhadra River
Famous for temples, monuments, and ruins
Answer: Option 1 → Vijayanagara Empire
Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q29. Which Mughal ruler is credited with introducing the Zabti revenue system across major parts of empire?

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Humayun
  3. (c) Babar
  4. (d) Aurangzeb
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Akbar

Zabti Revenue System
Introduced by:Akbar (1556-1605)
Key Features:
• Land measurement and classification system
• Revenue fixed based on average produce of 10 years
• Implemented byRaja Todar Mal(Revenue Minister)
• Also calledDahsala System
Coverage: Major parts of Mughal empire including Delhi, Agra, Allahabad, Awadh, Gujarat, Bihar, Bengal
Answer: Option 1 → Akbar

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Causes of the revolt

Q30. Which issue acted as the immediate trigger for the uprising that began in 1857?

  1. (a) Suspension of military pensions for long-serving Indian sepoys.
  2. (b) Introduction of the Enfield rifle with cartridges feared to contain animal fat.
  3. (c) New rules requiring sepoys to abandon traditional dress and customs.
  4. (d) Mandatory service postings across overseas territories for all regiments.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Introduction of the Enfield rifle with cartridges feared to contain animal fat.

Topic: Revolt of 1857 - Immediate Trigger
TheEnfield rifle cartridgeswere greased with animal fat (cow and pig).
Soldiers had to bite the cartridge before loading, which offended both Hindu and Muslim sepoys religiously.
This sparked theMeerut uprising on 10 May 1857, which spread rapidly across North India.
Answer: Option 2 → Introduction of the Enfield rifle with cartridges feared to contain animal fat.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · HRA, HSRA, Bhagat Singh and Kakori

Q31. The Kakori train robbery of August 1925 was organised by the:

  1. (a) Hindustan Republican Association in United Provinces
  2. (b) HSRA unit based in Lahore and Delhi
  3. (c) Anushilan Samiti in Bengal and Bihar
  4. (d) Ghadr Party working from North America
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hindustan Republican Association in United Provinces

Kakori Train Robbery (9 August 1925)
Organized by:Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)
Key Facts:
• Led by Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah Khan
• Took place near Kakori, United Provinces (now UP)
• Looted treasury from train to fund revolutionary activities
• HRA later became HSRA (Socialist added) in 1928
Answer: Option 1 → Hindustan Republican Association in United Provinces
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Prarthana Samaj and Satyashodhak Samaj

Q32. Which of the following institutions was founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade?

  1. (a) Widow Remarriage Association
  2. (b) Brahmo Samaj
  3. (c) Indian National Congress
  4. (d) Arya Samaj
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Widow Remarriage Association

Mahadev Govind Ranade (1842-1901)
Key Contributions:
• FoundedWidow Remarriage Association(1861) in Pune
• Co-founded Prarthana Samaj (1867)
• Founded Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870)
Other Options:
• Brahmo Samaj → Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1828)
• Indian National Congress → A.O. Hume (1885)
• Arya Samaj → Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1875)
Answer: Option 1 → Widow Remarriage Association

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Range of hearing, infrasonic and ultrasonic sound

Q33. Frequencies higher than the human audible limit of 20,000 Hz are classified as _____.

  1. (a) Infrasound
  2. (b) Supersonic
  3. (c) Tones
  4. (d) Ultrasound
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ultrasound

Sound Frequency Classification
Human audible range:20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
Below 20 Hz →Infrasound(earthquakes, elephants)
Above 20,000 Hz →Ultrasound(medical imaging, bats)
Supersonic refers to speed > speed of sound, not frequency
Answer: Option 4 → Ultrasound

Biology (2)

Ecology and Environment · Ecosystem and its components

Q34. The structural and functional unit of nature is _________.

  1. (a) Cell
  2. (b) Environment
  3. (c) Ecosystem
  4. (d) Ecology
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ecosystem

Structural and Functional Unit of Nature
Cell → Basic unit of life (not nature)
Environment → Surroundings (not a unit)
Ecology → Study of interactions (not a unit)
Ecosystem→ Complete functional unit with biotic and abiotic components
Ecosystem includes living organisms + physical environment interacting as a system.
It is self-sustaining and represents nature's organization.
Answer: Option 3 → Ecosystem
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q35. The stomach secretes the enzyme pepsin to aid digestion. Pepsin mainly acts on which nutrient?

  1. (a) Carbohydrates
  2. (b) Fats
  3. (c) Proteins
  4. (d) Vitamins
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Proteins

Topic:Digestive Enzymes - Pepsin
Pepsinis a proteolytic enzyme secreted by gastric glands in the stomach.
It breaks downproteinsinto smaller peptides in acidic medium (pH 1.5-2).
Secreted as inactive pepsinogen, activated by HCl.
Answer: Option 3 → Proteins

Chemistry (2)

Environmental Chemistry · Acid rain

Q36. Which pollutant from the following is mainly responsible for the formation of acid rain?

  1. (a) Carbon monoxide
  2. (b) Ammonia
  3. (c) Sulphur dioxide
  4. (d) Ozone
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sulphur dioxide

Topic: Acid Rain Formation
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)is the primary pollutant causing acid rain.
Process: SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (sulphurous acid)
Further oxidation: H₂SO₃ → H₂SO₄ (sulphuric acid)
Sources: Coal burning, industrial emissions, vehicle exhaust.
Note: Nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) also contribute to acid rain.
Answer: Option 3 → Sulphur dioxide
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Valency and chemical formulae

Q37. Select the correct formula of Aluminium Sulphate.

  1. (a) Al3SO4
  2. (b) Al2SO4
  3. (c) Al(SO4)3
  4. (d) Al2(SO4)3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Al2(SO4)3

Aluminium Sulphate Formula
Aluminium (Al) has valency =+3
Sulphate (SO₄) has valency =-2
Cross-multiply valencies:
Al₂(SO₄)₃
This balances: 2×(+3) + 3×(-2) = +6 - 6 = 0
Answer: Option 4 → Al2(SO4)3
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