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SSC Stenographer 2025 8 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 46 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 8 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Biology, Static GK, Current Affairs, Geography, Medieval History.

📚 46 questions🗓️ 8 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (8) · Biology (3) · Static GK (8) · Current Affairs (5) · Geography (7) · Medieval History (4) · Polity (8) · Physics (2) · Modern History (1)

Economics (8)

National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q1. A factory purchases machinery worth ₹50 lakh. At the end of the year, depreciation is ₹5 lakh. What is the Net Investment made by the firm?

  1. (a) ₹5 lakh
  2. (b) ₹55 lakh
  3. (c) ₹50 lakh
  4. (d) ₹45 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ₹45 lakh

Net Investment = Gross Investment − Depreciation = ₹50 lakh − ₹5 lakh = ₹45 lakh → Option 4 .
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q2. In the context of India's trade policies between 1947 and 1990, what was a common characteristic of the approach towards imports?

  1. (a) Promoting imports as a way to boost domestic competition.
  2. (b) Primarily focusing on the import of luxury goods and consumer durables.
  3. (c) Following a strategy of import substitution to protect domestic industries.
  4. (d) Encouraging unrestricted import of all goods.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Following a strategy of import substitution to protect domestic industries.

Between 1947 and 1990, India followed a strategy of import substitution . The goal was to reduce dependence on foreign goods and promote self-reliance by protecting domestic industries. Under this policy, the government imposed high tariffs, quantitative restrictions, and licensing requirements to discourage imports. Priority was given to building local industries, particularly in heavy machinery, steel, and consumer goods. The idea was that by restricting imports, Indian industries would grow without facing external competition and help the nation achieve economic independence. This approach was consistent with the broader vision of a planned economy and self-sufficiency during the early decades after independence.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q3. Which policy reform targeted improving competitiveness and efficiency of the banking system after 1991?

  1. (a) Full deregulation of credit markets
  2. (b) Introduction of prudential norms and CRAR
  3. (c) Limiting foreign entry into retail banking
  4. (d) Nationalization of cooperative banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Introduction of prudential norms and CRAR

The correct answer is Introduction of prudential norms and CRAR (Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio) . After the 1991 economic reforms, India’s banking sector underwent major restructuring to make it more efficient, competitive, and in line with international standards. Prudential norms introduced concepts like income recognition, asset classification, provisioning for bad loans (NPAs), and capital adequacy. CRAR ensured that banks maintained sufficient capital against risk-weighted assets, which strengthened their financial stability. These reforms improved transparency, reduced non-performing assets, and increased accountability in the banking system, thereby boosting overall competitiveness and efficiency.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q4. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. (a) Swadesh Darshan – Ministry of Culture
  2. (b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao – Ministry of Women & Child Dev.
  3. (c) PM MITRA – Ministry of Textiles
  4. (d) PM JANMAN – Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swadesh Darshan – Ministry of Culture

The incorrectly matched pair is Swadesh Darshan – Ministry of Culture . In reality, the Swadesh Darshan Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Tourism , not the Ministry of Culture. This scheme was launched in 2014-15 to promote theme-based tourist circuits and develop infrastructure for integrated tourism. The other pairs are correct: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao is under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel parks) is under the Ministry of Textiles, and PM JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan) is under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q5. Identify the correct interpretation of Gross National Product (GNP).

  1. (a) Income earned by Indians at home and abroad
  2. (b) Income of foreigners in India
  3. (c) Income earned by residents and non-residents within India
  4. (d) Income earned by Indians only within India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Income earned by Indians at home and abroad

The correct interpretation of Gross National Product (GNP) is the total income earned by Indians at home and abroad . Unlike Gross Domestic Product (GDP) , which measures the value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, GNP focuses on the income generated by the nationals of a country, regardless of whether they are living in the country or abroad. Thus, GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). For example, if an Indian engineer working in the USA sends his earnings home, it is included in India’s GNP, but not in its GDP.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q6. Which of the following statements are correct about the PM MITRA Scheme?1. It aims to establish integrated large-scale textile parks.2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.3. The scheme promotes synergy among textile value chain segments.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3 are correct . The PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) Scheme was launched by the Government of India to strengthen the textile sector by creating world-class industrial parks with state-of-the-art infrastructure. It aims to establish integrated large-scale textile parks that bring together spinning, weaving, processing, dyeing, printing, and garment manufacturing at one location. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles and focuses on promoting synergy among different segments of the textile value chain , reducing logistics cost, and improving competitiveness.
Financial Markets and Institutions · Insurance and IRDAI

Q7. Which of the following is a key responsibility of IRDAI?

  1. (a) Protecting the interests of insurance policyholders
  2. (b) Managing disinvestment in public sector enterprises
  3. (c) Promoting foreign trade
  4. (d) Regulating the stock market
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Protecting the interests of insurance policyholders

The correct answer is Protecting the interests of insurance policyholders . The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) was established in 1999 under the IRDA Act, 1999. Its primary responsibilities include regulating and promoting the insurance industry, ensuring the financial soundness of insurers, and most importantly, safeguarding the interests of policyholders by setting fair practices, grievance redressal mechanisms, and solvency norms. It does not deal with stock markets (regulated by SEBI), nor with disinvestment in PSUs (handled by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management), nor with foreign trade (regulated by the Ministry of Commerce).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q8. The regulatory framework adopted by India between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the "License Raj," aimed to direct economic activity. While it had certain intended benefits, what was a significant unintended negative consequence often associated with this system?

  1. (a) The fostering of a highly competitive market environment with numerous players in each industry.
  2. (b) A rapid increase in the quality and global competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent quality control measures.
  3. (c) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to rent-seeking behavior.
  4. (d) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic activities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to rent-seeking behavior.

The correct answer is The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to rent-seeking behavior . The License Raj , which lasted from India’s independence until the 1991 economic reforms, required businesses to obtain multiple licenses and clearances to operate. While it was designed to regulate resources and ensure balanced growth, it led to excessive bureaucratic red tape, corruption, and favoritism . This environment discouraged new entrepreneurs, restricted competition, and often stifled innovation. Many firms survived not due to efficiency, but due to political connections and rent-seeking practices.

Biology (3)

Ecology and Environment · Trophic levels and the 10 percent law

Q9. A forest ecosystem experiences a prolonged drought. Which trophic level would likely experience the most immediate and severe impact on its biomass?

  1. (a) Primary consumers
  2. (b) Secondary consumers
  3. (c) Tertiary consumers
  4. (d) Producers
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Producers

Producers would face the most immediate and severe impact during a prolonged drought. The main reason is that they directly depend on natural resources like water, sunlight, and nutrients from the soil to perform photosynthesis. Without sufficient water, their growth and survival decline sharply, reducing the biomass at the very base of the food chain. Since producers form the foundation of all trophic levels, their reduction affects the entire ecosystem — leading to less food availability for primary consumers, which in turn cascades upward to secondary and tertiary consumers. Hence, the first and strongest impact of drought is seen on producers.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q10. What is the aim of Ayushman Bharat scheme?

  1. (a) Clean drinking water for all
  2. (b) Health insurance for the poor
  3. (c) Free education to children
  4. (d) Housing for the poor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Health insurance for the poor

The correct answer is Health insurance for the poor . The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) , launched in 2018, is the world’s largest government-funded healthcare scheme. It provides health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. The scheme primarily targets poor and vulnerable families , covering over 10 crore families (approx. 50 crore beneficiaries) . It aims to reduce out-of-pocket health expenditure and ensure universal health coverage for the underprivileged sections of society.
Reproduction · Flower structure and sexual reproduction in plants

Q11. Which type of placentation is characterized by the ovules developing on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part, as seen in mustard and argemone?

  1. (a) Basal
  2. (b) Free central
  3. (c) Parietal
  4. (d) Axile
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Parietal

The correct answer is Parietal placentation . In this type, the ovules develop along the inner wall or periphery of the ovary . The ovary in such cases is unilocular (single chambered) , but due to the development of false septa, it may appear multilocular. Examples: Mustard, Argemone. Other types of placentation include: Basal (ovules at base, e.g., sunflower) , Axile (ovules on central axis, e.g., tomato, hibiscus) , and Free central (ovules around central axis without septa, e.g., dianthus, primrose ).

Static GK (8)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q12. Consider the following statements and choose correct option:
Statement 1: Kriti is a highly structured musical composition in Carnatic tradition.
Statement 2: Tillana often concludes a Carnatic recital and emphasizes rhythmic syllables.

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Both statements are correct. Kriti is indeed a highly structured and central musical composition in the Carnatic music tradition. It usually consists of three main parts: Pallavi, Anupallavi, and Charanam . Kritis are devotional in nature and are the backbone of Carnatic performances. On the other hand, Tillana is a lively and rhythmic composition that is often used to conclude Carnatic recitals. It places emphasis on rhythmic syllables (jatis) and is known for its brisk tempo and lively character. Hence, both statements accurately describe important aspects of Carnatic music.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q13. What is the primary mission behind India’s involvement in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)?

  1. (a) To bypass China’s CPEC route via Taiwan
  2. (b) To promote clean maritime security
  3. (c) To facilitate transit trade through the Arctic
  4. (d) To improve connectivity with Eurasia via multimodal routes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To improve connectivity with Eurasia via multimodal routes

The primary mission behind India’s involvement in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is to improve connectivity with Eurasia via multimodal routes . The INSTC is a 7,200 km long network of sea, rail, and road routes that connects India with Russia and Europe through Iran, Central Asia, and the Caucasus region. Its main purpose is to reduce transport costs and travel time for goods between India and Eurasia. Compared to traditional routes via the Suez Canal, INSTC can cut transit time by up to 40% and reduce costs by nearly 30%. This corridor strengthens India’s trade relations with Central Asia, Russia, and Europe, while also providing a strategic counterbalance to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q14. How many players from one team are allowed on the basketball court during play?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 4
  4. (d) 7
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5

In basketball, each team is allowed to have a maximum of 5 players on the court at any given time during play. These players usually consist of 2 guards, 2 forwards, and 1 center, though the specific formation can vary depending on the team’s strategy. If a team has fewer than 5 players due to fouls, injuries, or disqualifications, the game can still continue, but no more than 5 are permitted. Substitutions are allowed, but they can only be made when the ball is dead (during stoppage). Having 6 or more players on the court from one team at the same time results in a technical foul .
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q15. Which of the following authors did NOT receive the Nobel Prize in Literature?

  1. (a) Haruki Murakami
  2. (b) Kazuo Ishiguro
  3. (c) Orhan Pamuk
  4. (d) Alice Munro
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Haruki Murakami

The correct answer is Haruki Murakami . He is a world-renowned Japanese novelist famous for works like Kafka on the Shore and Norwegian Wood . Despite being considered a strong contender for many years, he has not received the Nobel Prize in Literature . On the other hand, Kazuo Ishiguro (2017), Orhan Pamuk (2006), and Alice Munro (2013) are all Nobel laureates in Literature. This question highlights the difference between popular acclaim and official recognition—while Murakami enjoys global literary fame, he has not yet been awarded the Nobel.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. The Aditya-L1 mission was launched to replace the INSAT series of weather satellites.
2. Aditya-L1 successfully entered a Halo Orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) to observe solar activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Neither 1 nor 2
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 only

The correct answer is 2 only . The Aditya-L1 mission , launched by ISRO in 2023, is India’s first dedicated solar observatory mission. It was not launched to replace the INSAT series of weather satellites ; instead, its primary objective is to study the Sun’s atmosphere, solar winds, magnetic storms, and their impact on Earth’s climate and satellites. Aditya-L1 was placed in a Halo Orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) , which is about 1.5 million km away from Earth. This unique position allows continuous observation of the Sun without the interruptions caused by Earth’s shadow, making it ideal for solar research. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q17. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Santhal festival of Erok Sim marks the end of the agricultural season.
Reason (R): The Magh Sim festival expresses gratitude for the harvest and prepares for a new cycle.

  1. (a) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
  3. (c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
  4. (d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

The correct answer is A is incorrect, but R is correct . The Santhal festival of Erok Sim is not related to marking the end of the agricultural season; instead, it is linked to rituals connected with sowing and cultivation practices. On the other hand, the Magh Sim festival is indeed celebrated by the Santhal community to show gratitude for the harvest and to prepare for a fresh agricultural cycle. Hence, Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is true.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q18. Odissi classical dance originated in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha . Odissi is one of the eight recognized classical dance forms of India , with origins in the temples of Odisha. It is deeply connected with devotional themes, especially the worship of Lord Jagannath, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu. Traditionally performed as a temple dance, Odissi is known for its graceful movements, sculpturesque poses, and intricate footwork that resemble the carvings of ancient Odisha temples such as Konark Sun Temple. Over centuries, Odissi evolved from a ritualistic dance to a celebrated classical art form, symbolising Odisha’s rich cultural heritage.
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q19. Which Indian sporting award is given for outstanding performance in sports coaching?

  1. (a) Arjuna Award
  2. (b) Dronacharya Award
  3. (c) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
  4. (d) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dronacharya Award

The correct answer is Dronacharya Award . This award was instituted in 1985 by the Government of India and is given to outstanding coaches in sports and games who have consistently trained sportspersons and helped them achieve excellence at international events like the Olympics, Asian Games, and World Championships. The award includes a statuette of Dronacharya (the legendary teacher from Mahabharata) , a scroll of honour , a ceremonial dress, and a cash prize. Other major awards include: Arjuna Award (for sportspersons), Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (for the highest sporting honour ), and Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar (for organisations promoting sports).

Current Affairs (5)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q20. Who will fly to ISS under Axiom-4 mission in June 2025?

  1. (a) Sunita Williams
  2. (b) Prasanth Nair
  3. (c) Shubhanshu Shukla
  4. (d) Gagandeep Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shubhanshu Shukla

The correct answer is Shubhanshu Shukla , who has been selected to fly to the International Space Station (ISS) under the Axiom-4 mission scheduled for June 2025 . Axiom Space, a private space company, is organising this mission in collaboration with NASA and SpaceX. This mission is significant because it will mark India’s growing role in international space exploration, as Indian-origin astronauts are being increasingly recognised for their contributions. Shubhanshu Shukla’s participation will be a proud moment for India in human spaceflight history, similar to earlier achievements like Rakesh Sharma’s mission in 1984 and upcoming Gaganyaan preparations.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q21. Where was the 72nd Senior National Volleyball Championship 2024 held?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  2. (b) Guwahati, Assam
  3. (c) Bangalore, Karnataka
  4. (d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Guwahati, Assam

The 72nd Senior National Volleyball Championship 2024 was hosted in Guwahati, Assam . This annual championship is one of the most prestigious national-level volleyball tournaments in India, organised under the aegis of the Volleyball Federation of India (VFI). The event brings together top teams from different states and units to compete at the senior level. Hosting the event in Assam reflects the state’s growing importance in promoting national-level sports events in the Northeast region. Such tournaments also help in talent identification and give exposure to players who can later represent India in international competitions.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q22. Which analytical inference best explains why Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan received the Vigyan Ratna award in Biological Sciences?

  1. (a) For promoting chemical synthesis in pharma
  2. (b) For discovering DNA replication enzymes
  3. (c) For elucidating malaria parasite metabolism and boosting biotech start-ups
  4. (d) For isolating SARS-CoV-2 protein markers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) For elucidating malaria parasite metabolism and boosting biotech start-ups

Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan received the Vigyan Ratna Award in Biological Sciences mainly for his pioneering research in malaria parasite metabolism and his remarkable contributions in advancing India’s biotechnology sector. His studies helped in understanding how the malaria parasite survives and metabolises , which is crucial for developing effective treatment strategies against the disease. Apart from his research, he played a key role in encouraging and mentoring young scientists, promoting biotech start-ups, and bridging academic research with industrial applications. His work not only contributed to public health but also supported India’s progress in biotechnology innovation.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q23. In the Climate Change Performance Index 2025, why did India retain a top-10 spot unlike several developed economies?

  1. (a) Aggressive fossil fuel expansion
  2. (b) Lack of net-zero policy
  3. (c) High renewable energy share and low per capita emissions
  4. (d) High energy consumption per capita
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High renewable energy share and low per capita emissions

India retained a top-10 position in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025 because of its high share of renewable energy and comparatively low per capita emissions . India has made significant progress in expanding renewable energy capacity, particularly solar and wind, and has become one of the largest renewable energy markets in the world. Moreover, India’s per capita carbon emissions remain much lower than that of most developed nations, which gives it an advantage in global climate rankings. Despite its large population and developmental challenges, India’s policies on renewable energy and emission reduction have ensured strong performance compared to advanced economies that rely heavily on fossil fuels.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q24. What is the score of India in Corruption Perception Index published by Transparency International?

  1. (a) 38
  2. (b) 300
  3. (c) 150
  4. (d) 48
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 38

The correct answer is 38 . According to the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2023 published by Transparency International , India scored 38 out of 100 . The CPI ranks countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, where 0 means highly corrupt and 100 means very clean . With a score of 38, India ranks in the mid-lower range , reflecting persistent challenges in governance, transparency, and accountability. However, India’s position has remained relatively stable compared to previous years, indicating neither major improvement nor major decline.

Geography (7)

Environment and Protected Areas · Biosphere reserves

Q25. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is correctly matched with its state?

  1. (a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Dehang-Dibang – Meghalaya
  3. (c) Pachmarhi – Gujarat
  4. (d) Dibru-Saikhowa – Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh . This biosphere reserve, located in the Eastern Ghats, was designated as a biosphere reserve in 2010. It is known for its rich biodiversity, especially the red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus ), which are endemic and highly valuable. The other options are incorrect: Dehang-Dibang is located in Arunachal Pradesh , not Meghalaya. Pachmarhi is in Madhya Pradesh , not Gujarat. Dibru-Saikhowa is in Assam , not Manipur. Hence, only option 1 is correctly matched.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Aeolian and karst landforms

Q26. What is Karst topography primarily associated with?

  1. (a) River meandering in alluvial plains
  2. (b) Groundwater action in limestone or dolomite regions
  3. (c) Glacial deposition in polar regions
  4. (d) Wind erosion in arid deserts
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Groundwater action in limestone or dolomite regions

Karst topography is primarily associated with the action of groundwater in limestone or dolomite regions . It develops due to the chemical weathering process, especially solution and carbonation, where slightly acidic groundwater dissolves soluble rocks like limestone. Typical landforms of Karst include caves, sinkholes, stalactites, stalagmites, disappearing streams, and underground drainage systems. The name "Karst" originates from a region near the border of Slovenia and Italy, which is famous for such landforms. This topography is a classic example of landforms shaped by chemical weathering rather than erosion by rivers, glaciers, or wind.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q27. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates Alluvial soils from Red and Yellow soils?

  1. (a) Alluvial: rich in phosphorus and humus; Red/Yellow: rich in potash:
  2. (b) Alluvial: sandy loam to clay; Red/Yellow: sandy loam, less fertile uplands:
  3. (c) Alluvial: older types most fertile; Red/Yellow: colored by iron:
  4. (d) Alluvial: from rocks; Red/Yellow: river-transported:
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alluvial: sandy loam to clay; Red/Yellow: sandy loam, less fertile uplands:

The correct differentiation is Alluvial: sandy loam to clay; Red/Yellow: sandy loam, less fertile uplands . Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediments brought by rivers, hence they are very fertile and range from sandy loam to clay in texture. They are found in river plains and deltas and support intensive agriculture. In contrast, Red and Yellow soils are typically found in upland regions, are sandy loam in texture, and relatively less fertile due to low humus content. Their colour is due to the presence of iron oxides. Thus, option 2 gives the accurate contrast between the fertile alluvial plains and the less fertile upland red/yellow soils.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Continental drift and plate tectonics

Q28. What is the primary reason for the asymmetrical distribution of continents and oceans across the Earth’s surface?

  1. (a) Magnetic anomalies in the core
  2. (b) Seafloor spreading and plate tectonics
  3. (c) Earth’s elliptical orbit
  4. (d) Variations in solar radiation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Seafloor spreading and plate tectonics

The correct answer is Seafloor spreading and plate tectonics . The present-day asymmetrical distribution of continents and oceans is explained by the theory of plate tectonics , which states that the Earth’s lithosphere is divided into plates that float on the semi-fluid asthenosphere. These plates move due to convection currents in the mantle, leading to processes like seafloor spreading, continental drift, subduction, and mountain building. Over millions of years, these movements have rearranged landmasses and oceans, giving rise to the current irregular pattern. For example, the drifting of the Indian Plate led to the formation of the Himalayas, while the Atlantic Ocean widened due to seafloor spreading.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q29. Which state has the lowest population in India?

  1. (a) Manipur
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Mizoram
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim , which is the least populated state in India. According to the 2011 Census , Sikkim had a population of about 6.1 lakh (610,577) , the lowest among all states. Its small geographical area, mountainous terrain, and limited arable land contribute to its low population density. In contrast, states like Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra have very high populations. Despite its small population, Sikkim is known for its high literacy rate, rich biodiversity, and achievements such as being the first fully organic state of India.
India - Population and Census · Religious and linguistic composition (census data)

Q30. According to the classification of modern Indian languages, which linguistic family accounts for the largest share of the Indian population?

  1. (a) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata)
  2. (b) Dravidian
  3. (c) Austric ( Nishada )
  4. (d) Indo-European (Aryan)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indo-European (Aryan)

The correct answer is Indo-European (Aryan) . The majority of India’s population speaks languages belonging to the Indo-European (or Indo-Aryan) family, which is a major branch of the larger Indo-European language group. These include Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, Assamese, Odia, Kashmiri, Konkani, and many others . About 75% of Indians speak Indo-Aryan languages. In comparison, Dravidian languages (like Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam) account for about 20–22% of the population, while Sino-Tibetan and Austric languages are spoken by much smaller communities, mainly in the North-East and tribal belts.
India - Population and Census · SC and ST population

Q31. According to Census 2011 which Indian State/UT has no Scheduled Tribe?

  1. (a) Puducherry
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Puducherry

The correct answer is Puducherry . As per the Census of India 2011 , all states and most union territories in India have Scheduled Tribe (ST) populations, except Puducherry . While states like Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and the North-Eastern states have a very high concentration of Scheduled Tribes, Puducherry recorded no Scheduled Tribe population in the 2011 Census. This makes Puducherry unique in terms of demographic composition.

Medieval History (4)

South Indian Kingdoms · Rashtrakutas (Deccan)

Q32. Which dynasty was founded by Dantidurga in the mid-8th century?

  1. (a) Pratihara Dynasty
  2. (b) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
  3. (c) Chola Dynasty
  4. (d) Pala Dynasty
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rashtrakuta Dynasty

The correct answer is the Rashtrakuta Dynasty , founded by Dantidurga in the mid-8th century CE. Initially, the Rashtrakutas were feudatories of the Chalukyas of Badami. Around 753 CE, Dantidurga defeated the Chalukya king Kirtivarman II and established independent power in the Deccan region. The Rashtrakutas soon rose to prominence and became one of the most powerful dynasties of early medieval India. Their empire extended over large parts of the Deccan, and they were known for military conquests, cultural patronage, and architectural achievements, including the famous Kailasa temple at Ellora.
Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate architecture

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding provincial architecture in medieval India and choose the correct option:
1. Bengal and Jaunpur developed distinct architectural styles separate from the Delhi Sultanate.
2. Regional styles often blended Islamic structures with local artistic traditions.
3. Provincial styles remained completely uniform across all regions of India .

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
  3. (c) 2 and 3 Only
  4. (d) 1 and 2 Only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 and 2 Only

The correct answer is 1 and 2 Only . Provincial architecture in medieval India developed distinct features in different regions. For example, Bengal was famous for its curved roofs and use of terracotta due to heavy rainfall and local material availability. Jaunpur developed its own style marked by bold and massive structures like the Atala Masjid. In many regions, Islamic architecture was blended with local artistic traditions – e.g., Gujarat and Malwa styles incorporated Hindu and Jain motifs. However, the statement that "provincial styles remained completely uniform across all regions" is incorrect, because styles differed significantly depending on geography, material, and cultural influence.
Mughal Empire · Mughal painting, literature and music

Q34. Which Mughal emperor is known for his extensive autobiography, Tuzuk - i -Jahangiri?

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Aurangzeb
  3. (c) Jahangir
  4. (d) Shah Jahan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jahangir

The correct answer is Jahangir . He wrote his autobiography called Tuzuk - i -Jahangiri (also known as Jahangirnama ) , which provides a detailed account of his reign, administrative measures, personal reflections, and interest in art, architecture, and nature. It is considered one of the most authentic sources on Mughal history, as it records Jahangir’s observations about politics, society, and even natural phenomena. Unlike Akbar, who had Abul Fazl write the Akbarnama , Jahangir personally wrote large parts of his memoir, making it unique among Mughal emperors.
Mughal Empire · Mughal foreign relations

Q35. Which of the following best explains the reason to held Qandhar strategically important for the Mughals?

  1. (a) It served as a religious pilgrimage center linking India with Central Asian Sufi shrines.
  2. (b) It controlled key land routes between Kabul and Herat and acted as a fortified military outpost.
  3. (c) It provided direct naval access to the Red Sea for Mughal expeditions.
  4. (d) It was a crucial trade hub connecting the Arabian Sea with the Persian Gulf.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It controlled key land routes between Kabul and Herat and acted as a fortified military outpost.

The correct answer is It controlled key land routes between Kabul and Herat and acted as a fortified military outpost . Qandhar (modern-day Kandahar in Afghanistan) was of immense strategic importance to the Mughals as it lay on the crucial trade and invasion routes connecting Central Asia, Persia, and India . Holding Qandhar meant securing India’s northwestern frontier and preventing Persian and Uzbek advances. The Mughals, especially Akbar, Jahangir, and Shah Jahan, fought several campaigns to retain control of Qandhar due to its role as a gateway for trade, military defense, and political influence in the region.

Polity (8)

State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q36. Consider the below statements:
1. Governor is state’s constitutional head.
2. He acts solely on Council’s advice.
Which of the above statements holds true regarding Governor’s executive powers?

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

The correct answer is Only 1 . The Governor is indeed the constitutional head of the state (Article 153). He represents the Union in the state and formally exercises executive powers in the name of the Governor. However, statement 2 is not fully correct. Though the Governor usually acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister (Article 163), he is not bound solely by it in all matters. The Constitution provides him with certain discretionary powers , such as recommending President’s Rule (Article 356), reserving bills for the President’s consideration, and appointing a Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority. Hence, while statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is only partially true, not absolute.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Nature of the Constitution (federal, unitary, parliamentary)

Q37. The system of federalism in India divides power between:

  1. (a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  2. (b) Centre and States
  3. (c) Executive and Judiciary
  4. (d) President and Governors
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Centre and States

The correct answer is Centre and States . The Indian Constitution establishes a federal system where powers are divided between the Union (Centre) and the States. This division is clearly laid out in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which contains three lists: Union List (subjects on which only the Centre can legislate), State List (subjects on which only states can legislate), and Concurrent List (subjects where both Centre and States can make laws, but Union law prevails in case of conflict). This structure ensures a balance of power, though India is often described as a “quasi-federal” system because the Centre holds more authority compared to the States, especially in times of emergency.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q38. Statutory grants to states by the Union government, under Article 275 of the Constitution, are primarily recommended by which body?

  1. (a) National Development Council
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Finance Commission
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Finance Commission

The correct answer is Finance Commission . Article 275 of the Indian Constitution provides for statutory grants to states in need of financial assistance. The Finance Commission , constituted every five years under Article 280, recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and States, as well as the principles governing grants-in-aid. Based on its recommendations, the Union government provides funds to states to meet their requirements, particularly for scheduled tribes, scheduled areas, and other developmental purposes. Other bodies like the Ministry of Finance and NITI Aayog may play roles in policy-making and planning, but the primary constitutional authority for recommending such statutory grants is the Finance Commission.
Constitutional Development and Making · Drafting Committee and Dr B R Ambedkar

Q39. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

  1. (a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  3. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

The correct answer is Dr. B. R. Ambedkar , who was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly on 29 August 1947 . The Drafting Committee had 7 members, and its main responsibility was to prepare the draft of the Indian Constitution. Dr. Ambedkar is often called the “Chief Architect of the Indian Constitution” because of his pivotal role in framing, defending, and finalising the provisions of the Constitution. On the other hand, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a major role in the integration of princely states.
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q40. Which part of the Indian Constitution is known as the “Magna Carta of India” and guarantees fundamental rights to the citizens?

  1. (a) Part IV
  2. (b) Part I
  3. (c) Part II
  4. (d) Part III
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Part III

The correct answer is Part III of the Indian Constitution. It contains the provisions relating to Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35) , which guarantee essential freedoms such as the right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and right to constitutional remedies. These rights are enforceable by the courts and act as a safeguard for individual liberty against state action. Because of their importance in protecting citizens’ freedoms, Part III is often called the “Magna Carta of India” , drawing an analogy to the Magna Carta of 1215 in England which limited the powers of the king and guaranteed rights to the people.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q41. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. Which of these terms were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?

  1. (a) Sovereign, Democratic
  2. (b) Socialist, Secular
  3. (c) Republic, Democratic
  4. (d) Justice, Liberty
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Socialist, Secular

The correct answer is Socialist, Secular . The original Preamble of the Constitution (1950) described India as a Sovereign Democratic Republic . Later, during the Emergency period, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 , added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to highlight the commitment of the Indian state towards social and economic justice and equal treatment of all religions. Hence, since 1976, the Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic . This amendment is sometimes referred to as the "Mini-Constitution" because it made many significant changes.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q42. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following best defines "electronic communication"?

  1. (a) Telephonic conversations recorded manually
  2. (b) Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers
  3. (c) Only video calls conducted through secure government networks
  4. (d) Verbal messages sent through written documents only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers

The correct answer is Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers . The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, modernized many legal definitions to align with the digital era. Under this law, "electronic communication" broadly includes emails, text messages, phone messages, social media messages, and other forms of data exchange through electronic means. It does not limit itself to only telephonic or video calls, but covers all types of information transmission using electronic devices . This definition helps in expanding the scope of admissible evidence and enforcement under cyber-related crimes.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Conflict between FR and DPSP and related cases

Q43. Which of the following best reflects the constitutional dilemma in implementing the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India, as discussed in debates surrounding Article 44 and Article 25?

  1. (a) UCC aligns with Article 44 but may be seen to infringe upon religious freedom under Article 25
  2. (b) UCC allows gender-based personal law systems to remain untouched under Article 14
  3. (c) UCC enforces cooperative federalism by giving states legislative powers on personal law
  4. (d) UCC operationalises the secular ethos by completely eliminating all religious laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) UCC aligns with Article 44 but may be seen to infringe upon religious freedom under Article 25

The correct answer is UCC aligns with Article 44 but may be seen to infringe upon religious freedom under Article 25 . Article 44 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to implement a Uniform Civil Code to promote national integration and equality by bringing uniformity in personal laws relating to marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc. However, Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion , which includes the right to follow personal laws based on religious practices. This creates a constitutional dilemma: while UCC aims to ensure equality and secularism, it can be perceived as interfering with religious freedoms. The debate is essentially about balancing secular reform under Article 44 with religious freedom under Article 25 .

Physics (2)

Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q44. A heating element of a heater is made of a material with high resistivity and high melting point. Which of the following material properties is most crucial for its function as a heating element ?

  1. (a) Low specific heat capacity
  2. (b) High modulus of elasticity
  3. (c) High resistivity
  4. (d) High thermal conductivity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High resistivity

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Gravitation · Kepler's laws and planetary motion

Q45. Which of the following quantities remains conserved when an object moves under the gravitational pull of another object?

  1. (a) Potential energy and linear momentum
  2. (b) Kinetic energy and linear momentum
  3. (c) Angular momentum and mechanical energy
  4. (d) Only linear momentum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Angular momentum and mechanical energy

The correct answer is Angular momentum and mechanical energy . When a body moves under the gravitational influence of another body (like planets orbiting the Sun), the gravitational force is a conservative central force . This ensures that mechanical energy (kinetic + potential energy) remains conserved. Also, since the force always acts along the line joining the two bodies, there is no torque about the centre of force, which means angular momentum of the system remains conserved. However, linear momentum of the object is not necessarily conserved individually, as the force continuously changes its direction. A classic example is the Earth revolving around the Sun, where both angular momentum and total mechanical energy are conserved.

Modern History (1)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q46. Once the Time Magazine had mocked Gandhiji’s physical size but to whom do it compare his martyrdom later on?

  1. (a) Martin Luther
  2. (b) Abraham Lincoln
  3. (c) Albert Einstein
  4. (d) George Orwell
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Abraham Lincoln

The correct answer is Abraham Lincoln . Initially, Time Magazine had mocked Mahatma Gandhi’s physical appearance, calling him frail and small. However, after his assassination in January 1948 , the same magazine compared his martyrdom with that of Abraham Lincoln , the 16th President of the USA who was also assassinated in 1865 for his ideals. Both Gandhi and Lincoln were remembered as great leaders who sacrificed their lives for unity, justice, and humanity. This comparison highlighted Gandhi’s stature as a global leader despite his simple lifestyle and modest appearance.
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