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SSC Stenographer 2025 8 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 42 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 8 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Physics, Polity, Geography, Economics, Modern History, Static GK.

📚 42 questions🗓️ 8 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Physics (1) · Polity (8) · Geography (6) · Economics (10) · Modern History (2) · Static GK (10) · Current Affairs (2) · Chemistry (3)

Physics (1)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Temperature scales and conversions

Q1. What is the boiling point of water at sea level?

  1. (a) 212°F
  2. (b) 217.4°F
  3. (c) 203°F
  4. (d) 208.4°F
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 212°F

The boiling point of water at sea level is 212°F (100°C) . At this temperature, the vapour pressure of water equals the atmospheric pressure at sea level (1 atmosphere or 760 mmHg). When this condition is met, water molecules can escape freely into the air, causing boiling. Factors like altitude affect this boiling point: at higher altitudes (lower pressure), water boils at a lower temperature, while at higher pressures (like in a pressure cooker), it boils at a higher temperature. The other options are incorrect: 217.4°F (103°C) and 208.4°F (98°C) do not represent the standard boiling point at sea level, and 203°F (95°C) is too low and only occurs at higher elevations.

Polity (8)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q2. Which list allows both Centre and State to legislate on the same subject?

  1. (a) State List
  2. (b) Union List
  3. (c) Concurrent List
  4. (d) Reserved List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concurrent List

The correct answer is the Concurrent List . Under the Indian Constitution, the division of subjects for law-making is given in the Seventh Schedule , which contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects only the Parliament can legislate on (e.g., defence , foreign affairs). The State List contains subjects on which only State legislatures can make laws (e.g., police, public order). The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both Centre and States can legislate (e.g., education, forests, marriage laws). However, in case of a conflict between a Central law and a State law on the same subject, the Central law prevails . There is no “Reserved List” in the Constitution; hence that option is incorrect.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding the implementation challenges of UCC is most accurate in the context of judicial interpretations and recent state-level developments?

  1. (a) The Law Commission of India (2018) recommended UCC for all religions to ensure uniformity.
  2. (b) UCC is enforceable only when ratified by all religious communities through a national referendum.
  3. (c) The UCC is already implemented in Goa and Uttarakhand through their respective legislative frameworks.
  4. (d) The Supreme Court has uniformly declared UCC as mandatory across states.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The UCC is already implemented in Goa and Uttarakhand through their respective legislative frameworks.

The most accurate statement is that the UCC is already implemented in Goa and Uttarakhand through their legislative frameworks . Goa has long followed a common civil code due to Portuguese influence, which continues even after its integration with India. Recently, Uttarakhand became the first Indian state to pass a Uniform Civil Code in 2024, marking a significant legal development. Statement 1 is not fully correct as the 2018 Law Commission report stated that UCC was neither necessary nor desirable at that stage . Statement 2 is inaccurate because there is no constitutional provision for a national referendum to enforce UCC. Statement 4 is also incorrect because the Supreme Court has not declared UCC mandatory across all states , though it has often urged for debate and discussion. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q4. What major reform does Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam bring?

  1. (a) Introduction of new fundamental rights
  2. (b) Digitization of evidence
  3. (c) Removal of all existing laws
  4. (d) Abolishment of the Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Digitization of evidence

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, bringing major reforms to adapt to modern judicial needs. Its biggest reform is the recognition and digitization of electronic evidence , such as emails, digital records, SMS, server logs, and other electronic data. This ensures that courts can rely on digital documentation in the same way as physical documents, making trials faster, transparent, and in line with the digital era.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Nature of the Constitution (federal, unitary, parliamentary)

Q5. The Indian Constitution is often described as "quasi-federal" or "federal in form, unitary in spirit" primarily due to which characteristic?

  1. (a) Strong centralizing tendencies and powers of the Union Government.
  2. (b) The equal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha.
  3. (c) The presence of a written constitution.
  4. (d) The existence of independent judiciary.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Strong centralizing tendencies and powers of the Union Government.

The Indian Constitution is often called "quasi-federal" because, though it has federal features like division of powers and bicameralism, it also grants strong unitary powers to the Union government . For example, under Articles 352, 356, and 360 , during emergencies, the Union can take complete control over states. Moreover, the Union List in the Seventh Schedule has more subjects than the State List, giving the Centre a dominant role. Therefore, the Constitution is "federal in form" but "unitary in spirit," emphasizing the centralizing power of the Union .
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q6. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in the order they are listed in the Indian Constitution:
1. Right to Constitutional Remedies
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Equality

  1. (a) 1-2-3-4
  2. (b) 3-2-1-4
  3. (c) 4-1-3-2
  4. (d) 4-2-3-1
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 4-2-3-1

In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are arranged in a specific order under Part III (Articles 12 to 35). The sequence is: ( i ) Right to Equality (Articles 14–18), (ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22), (iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24), (iv) Right to Freedom of Religion, (v) Cultural and Educational Rights, and (vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32). Therefore, among the given options, the correct arrangement is 4-2-3-1 . This order reflects how rights progress logically: first ensuring equality, then granting freedom, followed by protecting individuals from exploitation, and finally providing remedies if these rights are violated.
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q7. The concept of "Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)" in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) United Kingdom
  3. (c) United States of America
  4. (d) Ireland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ireland

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Irish Constitution (1937) . The idea itself can be traced back to the Spanish Constitution of 1931 , but India directly borrowed it from Ireland. DPSPs are guidelines for governance , aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy. They are non-justiciable (not legally enforceable in courts) but are fundamental in the governance of the country. Examples include principles related to equal pay for equal work, promotion of welfare of people, and organisation of village panchayats.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · National Commissions for SC, ST and BC

Q8. Kishor Makwana’s appointment as Chairman of NCSC is significant in which evaluative context?

  1. (a) Social justice administration and SC policy implementation
  2. (b) Caste census leadership
  3. (c) Agricultural economic reforms
  4. (d) Political consolidation in Southern India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Social justice administration and SC policy implementation

Kishor Makwana’s appointment as Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) holds significance in the context of social justice administration and SC policy implementation . The NCSC plays a critical role in safeguarding the rights of Scheduled Castes, reviewing the implementation of constitutional and legal safeguards, and ensuring effective policy execution for their upliftment. His leadership is particularly evaluated in terms of advancing the goals of social justice, reducing caste-based inequalities, and strengthening the institutional mechanisms meant for SC welfare.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q9. Read the below statements related to Concurrent List laws:
1. Union law overrides state law in conflict.
2. State law can prevail if reserved and assented by President.
Which is/are correct?

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Neither 1 nor 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Under the Indian Constitution, the Concurrent List allows both the Union and the State governments to make laws. However, if there is a conflict between Union and State law , the Union law prevails (Article 254). At the same time, a state law can prevail over a Union law if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and receives his assent . Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct .

Geography (6)

India - Drainage System · Himalayan river systems (Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra)

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of India’s major drainage systems:
1. The ancient Indo-Brahma river is believed to have split into three major drainage systems over time.
2. The Ganga and its Himalayan tributaries represent the central drainage system.
3. The western drainage system consists of the Brahmaputra and its tributaries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 1 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct because geologists believe that the ancient Indo-Brahma river system gradually split into three parts: the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra drainage systems. Statement 2 is also correct, as the Ganga and its Himalayan tributaries form the central drainage system of India, draining a vast region of the north and central plains. Statement 3 is incorrect because the western drainage system does not consist of the Brahmaputra; rather, it consists of rivers flowing into the Arabian Sea, such as the Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Mandovi . The Brahmaputra belongs to the eastern drainage system . Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q11. In each of the following questions, a statement labeled Assertion (A) is given, followed by a statement labeled Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Migration can be driven by negative and positive circumstances.
Reason (R): Push factors make individuals migrate away from a region, whereas pull factors draw individuals to a region.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) A is false, but R is true.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion (A) states that migration is influenced by both negative and positive circumstances. This is true because migration can occur due to adverse conditions (push factors such as poverty, unemployment, natural disasters, political instability) as well as attractive opportunities (pull factors such as employment, better living conditions, education, security). Reason (R) explains exactly this concept, by differentiating between push and pull factors. Therefore, both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q12. Name the port that is privately owned by the Adani Group?

  1. (a) Visakhapatnam Port, Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Chennai Port, Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Mundra Port, Gujarat
  4. (d) Kandla Port, Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mundra Port, Gujarat

The correct answer is Mundra Port, Gujarat . It is India’s largest commercial port and is privately owned and operated by the Adani Group . Located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch, it plays a crucial role in India’s international trade, handling large volumes of container, bulk, and liquid cargo. Its private ownership has allowed rapid expansion, modern facilities, and efficient management compared to many government-run ports.
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q13. How does the Faint Young Sun paradox challenge our understanding of early Earth’s climate?

  1. (a) It proves the Moon once had an atmosphere.
  2. (b) It suggests that early solar output was too weak to prevent global freezing.
  3. (c) It implies there was no liquid water on early Earth.
  4. (d) It shows Earth was too hot due to excessive solar radiation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It suggests that early solar output was too weak to prevent global freezing.

The Faint Young Sun paradox arises because astrophysical models suggest that the Sun’s energy output in its early years was about 20–30% weaker than today. This should have made early Earth frozen and uninhabitable. However, geological evidence shows the presence of liquid water and life forms as early as 3.8 billion years ago. This contradiction suggests that some other mechanisms, like greenhouse gases (CO₂, CH₄) or reduced albedo, must have compensated for the weak solar radiation and kept Earth warm enough for liquid water and life.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environment and climate schemes and missions

Q14. Which of the following is true about the Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme ?
It promotes scrapping of old vehicles to reduce emissions.
The 'Ministry of Road Transport and Highways' is the nodal agency.
The scheme incentivizes buyers of fuel-efficient new vehicles only in urban areas.

  1. (a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) Only 2 and 3 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct

The Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme (VVMP) , launched in 2021, primarily aims at reducing air pollution and improving road safety by scrapping old and polluting vehicles. Under this scheme, old unfit vehicles are phased out and replaced with newer fuel-efficient and environment-friendly vehicles. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal agency implementing this programme . However, the claim that the scheme incentivizes buyers only in urban areas is incorrect, as the programme applies across the country.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Weathering and erosion

Q15. Read the following statements:
Statement 1: Diastrophism includes all processes that move, elevate, or build up portions of the Earth's crust.
Statement 2: Exogenic processes derive their energy from the atmosphere, influenced by solar energy and tectonic gradients.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 2 is correct
  2. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  3. (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
  4. (d) Only Statement 1 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Both statements are correct. Diastrophism refers to endogenic processes such as folding, faulting, uplift, and subsidence which affect the Earth's crust and cause large-scale structural changes. Exogenic processes (like weathering, erosion, and deposition) derive their energy mainly from atmospheric forces and solar energy , and are influenced indirectly by tectonic gradients that create slopes and elevations. Together, they explain how the Earth's surface is continuously shaped and reshaped.

Economics (10)

National Income · Keynesian income determination and multiplier

Q16. According to John Maynard Keynes, what is the most effective tool for reviving an economy during a depression?

  1. (a) Reducing private investment
  2. (b) Increasing public savings
  3. (c) Expanding government expenditure
  4. (d) Raising income tax on corporations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Expanding government expenditure

John Maynard Keynes, a famous British economist, argued that during a depression, private investment and demand fall drastically, leading to unemployment and underutilisation of resources. He suggested that the most effective remedy is expansion of government expenditure . By increasing public spending on infrastructure, welfare, and services, the government can stimulate demand, create jobs, and revive economic growth. This is the essence of Keynesian economics , which emphasises the role of active government intervention in the economy during downturns.
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q17. Which of the following is a key focus area of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?

  1. (a) Agricultural subsidies
  2. (b) Urban development
  3. (c) Rural electrification
  4. (d) Multi-modal connectivity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Multi-modal connectivity

The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, launched in 2021, focuses primarily on developing integrated infrastructure through multi-modal connectivity . Its aim is to bring together 16 ministries, including railways, roadways, ports, aviation, and power, on a single platform to ensure coordinated planning and faster execution of infrastructure projects. This plan intends to reduce logistics costs, improve efficiency, and boost economic growth by creating a seamless transport network.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q18. Which indicator in EODB (Ease of doing business) measures the time and cost to resolve commercial disputes?

  1. (a) Enforcing contracts
  2. (b) Trading across borders
  3. (c) Getting electricity
  4. (d) Dealing with construction permits
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Enforcing contracts

In the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business (EODB) index, “Enforcing Contracts” specifically measures the efficiency of the judicial system in resolving commercial disputes. It evaluates the time taken , cost incurred , and quality of judicial processes to settle a dispute between two parties. The idea is that if contract enforcement is slow or costly, it creates uncertainty for businesses and discourages investment. Other indicators like “Trading across borders” or “Getting electricity” measure different aspects of the business environment, but resolving disputes is directly captured by “Enforcing Contracts.”
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Microeconomics and macroeconomics

Q19. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Macroeconomics – Price of tea
  2. (b) Macroeconomics – National Income
  3. (c) Microeconomics – GDP
  4. (d) Microeconomics – Inflation rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Macroeconomics – National Income

The correct match is Macroeconomics – National Income . Macroeconomics deals with the overall performance of the economy, including national income, GDP, inflation, and unemployment . On the other hand, microeconomics studies individual units like households, firms, and markets . For example, the price of tea is a microeconomic topic, not macroeconomic. Similarly, GDP and inflation are macroeconomic variables, not microeconomic. Hence, only option 2 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q20. Which key reform in 1991 specifically addressed the inefficiency of public sector enterprises and promoted competition in industrial production?

  1. (a) Fiscal Responsibility Act
  2. (b) Complex Industrial Licensing process
  3. (c) Public Distribution System Reform
  4. (d) Privatization of profit-making PSUs
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Privatization of profit-making PSUs

In 1991, India launched a major economic reform programme under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh. A significant part of this reform was the liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG) policy . To address inefficiency in PSUs, the government introduced privatization measures by reducing government control over profit-making PSUs and allowing private investment. This improved productivity, reduced political interference, and promoted competition in industrial production. It marked a shift from a state-controlled to a market-oriented economy.
Agriculture and Food Security · Land reforms

Q21. Consider the land reforms implemented in India between 1947 and 1990. What was one of the main objectives of these reforms?

  1. (a) To promote the cultivation of cash crops for export.
  2. (b) To consolidate large landholdings in the hands of a few individuals.
  3. (c) To encourage the widespread adoption of mechanized farming techniques.
  4. (d) To reduce the concentration of land ownership and protect the interests of small farmers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To reduce the concentration of land ownership and protect the interests of small farmers.

After independence, India faced inequality in land distribution where a small number of landlords controlled vast areas. Between 1947 and 1990, reforms such as abolition of zamindari, land ceiling acts, tenancy reforms, and distribution of surplus land were carried out. The main goal was to reduce land concentration and ensure fair distribution so that small and marginal farmers were protected. These reforms promoted equity, social justice, and agricultural productivity .
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q22. If a country improves in the GGGR due to a policy mandating equal female representation on company boards, which GGGR dimension would be most directly impacted?

  1. (a) Educational Attainment
  2. (b) Economic Participation and Opportunity
  3. (c) Health and Survival
  4. (d) Political Empowerment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Economic Participation and Opportunity

The Global Gender Gap Report (GGGR) measures gender equality in four key dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment . If women are given equal representation on company boards , it directly impacts Economic Participation and Opportunity , as it increases women’s access to leadership roles, employment opportunities, and wage equality. This reform would not primarily affect education, health, or politics, but rather the economic involvement of women in the workforce.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q23. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding scheme and its implementing ministry?

  1. (a) PM-JANMAN – Ministry of Rural Development
  2. (b) Samarth Scheme – Ministry of Textiles
  3. (c) Mission Shakti – Ministry of Home Affairs
  4. (d) PM MITRA – Ministry of Agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Samarth Scheme – Ministry of Textiles

The correct pair is Samarth Scheme – Ministry of Textiles . The Samarth Scheme was launched to provide skill development in the textile sector, especially for youth, women, and unemployed people. Its primary aim is to enhance employability and support the growth of the textile industry by training individuals in various textile-related skills. The other options are mismatched: PM-JANMAN is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not Rural Development; Mission Shakti comes under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, not Home Affairs; and PM MITRA is under the Ministry of Textiles, not Agriculture.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q24. The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 played a significant role in shaping India’s industrial development strategy. What was a key feature of this resolution?

  1. (a) It strongly advocated for the dominance of the private sector in all industrial activities.
  2. (b) It promoted a completely open and competitive industrial environment with minimal government intervention.
  3. (c) It emphasized the development of small-scale and cottage industries while discouraging large-scale enterprises.
  4. (d) It categorized industries into three schedules, with the public sector leading in strategic and heavy industries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It categorized industries into three schedules, with the public sector leading in strategic and heavy industries.

The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was a landmark in India’s industrial planning. It categorized industries into three schedules : ( i ) industries under the exclusive responsibility of the state (e.g., arms, atomic energy, railways), (ii) industries where both the state and private sector could operate, but the state had a dominant role (e.g., steel, coal, aircraft), and (iii) industries left to the private sector, though subject to regulation. This framework laid the foundation of India’s mixed economy , with the public sector given primacy in heavy and strategic industries, while still allowing private enterprise in other sectors.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q25. What was the main purpose behind the enactment of the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act?

  1. (a) To increase fiscal deficit
  2. (b) To reduce government borrowing
  3. (c) To promote foreign trade
  4. (d) To regulate private sector investments
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce government borrowing

The FRBM Act (2003) was enacted to ensure fiscal discipline, reduce fiscal deficit, and limit overall government borrowing. Its objective was to create a stable macroeconomic environment by controlling excessive government debt and ensuring responsible public finance management. It also aimed to promote transparency in fiscal operations and set targets for reducing fiscal deficit and revenue deficit over time.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Economic impact and drain of wealth

Q26. Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): British capital accumulation in the 18th century was reinvested in industrial development.
Reason (R): The capital was largely controlled by merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal aristocracy.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

In the 18th century, the process of industrialisation in Britain was fuelled by the reinvestment of accumulated capital. This capital did not remain in the hands of the feudal lords, who were more interested in land and status, but was instead channelled by merchants and industrialists into factories, machines, and industries. Thus, both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason accurately explains why the capital was reinvested in industrial development.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Other wars (Anglo-Burmese, Anglo-Afghan)

Q27. Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Sir Charles Napier justified the annexation of Sindh on moral and legal grounds.
Reason (R): He described it as a “useful humane piece of rascality.”

  1. (a) A is true, but R is false.
  2. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true.

The annexation of Sindh (1843) by Sir Charles Napier was not justified on moral and legal grounds; rather, it was a result of British imperial expansion driven by strategic and economic interests, especially to secure trade routes and check Russian influence. Therefore, Assertion (A) is false. However, Napier himself cynically referred to the conquest as a “useful humane piece of rascality,” acknowledging the exploitative nature of the annexation while presenting it as beneficial from a colonial perspective. Hence, Reason (R) is true.

Static GK (10)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q28. Which classical dance form uses storytelling through hand gestures (mudras) and facial expressions (abhinaya)?

  1. (a) Bharatanatyam
  2. (b) Koli
  3. (c) Garba
  4. (d) Bihu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bharatanatyam

Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest and most revered classical dance forms of India, originating in Tamil Nadu. It is known for its unique storytelling style that combines intricate footwork, graceful body movements, and expressive hand gestures (mudras) along with facial expressions (abhinaya). Through these, dancers narrate mythological stories, devotional themes, and spiritual ideas. This makes Bharatanatyam not just a dance but also a medium of conveying emotions and narratives.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q29. Which of the following statements is correct about Urs at Ajmer Sharif?

  1. (a) It marks the birth anniversary of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.
  2. (b) It is celebrated annually based on the solar calendar.
  3. (c) It follows the lunar calendar and marks the saint’s death.
  4. (d) It is held only once every five years during Ramzan.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It follows the lunar calendar and marks the saint’s death.

The Urs at Ajmer Sharif commemorates the death anniversary of Sufi saint Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti . Unlike a birth anniversary, Urs marks the saint’s union with God, which is considered a sacred occasion in Sufi tradition. It is observed annually according to the Islamic lunar calendar (Hijri calendar), generally in the month of Rajab . Thousands of devotees, regardless of religion, gather at the Ajmer Dargah to pay homage.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q30. What is the standard width of a hockey field?

  1. (a) 55 meters
  2. (b) 54.5 meters
  3. (c) 57 meters
  4. (d) 50 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 55 meters

According to the International Hockey Federation (FIH) , the standard dimensions of a hockey field are 91.4 metres in length and 55 metres in width . These rules are globally accepted and followed in all official matches, including the Olympics and World Cup. The 55 metres width is designed to provide adequate space for ball movement, tactical positioning, and fair play. Historically, hockey fields were sometimes slightly varied in size, but after standardisation by FIH, 91.4 × 55 m became mandatory. This ensures uniformity worldwide and allows international tournaments to be conducted on fields of equal size.
Another important point is that the field is divided into two halves by a centre line, and within each half there is a striking circle (D) from where goals can be scored. The fixed width of 55 metres balances the length-to-width ratio, ensuring smooth gameplay.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q31. What is the main objective of ISRO's SCATSAT-1 satellite?

  1. (a) Mapping forest cover across India
  2. (b) Measuring atmospheric ozone depletion
  3. (c) Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction
  4. (d) Monitoring earthquake zones
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction

SCATSAT-1 ( Scatterometer Satellite-1) was launched by ISRO in September 2016 to provide weather forecasting, cyclone detection, and tracking of ocean winds . It replaced the earlier Oceansat-2 scatterometer , ensuring continuity of meteorological services. The satellite measures wind speed and direction over the ocean surface, which is crucial for predicting monsoons, tracking tropical cyclones, and improving disaster preparedness. It is not used for ozone measurement or earthquake monitoring; its primary function is linked to atmospheric and marine weather observations.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q32. In Kho-Kho, how many players are in a team, and how many are on the field during a game?

  1. (a) 12 players in a team, 9 on the field.
  2. (b) 9 players in a team, 9 on the field.
  3. (c) 12 players in a team, 12 on the field.
  4. (d) 9 players in a team, 12 on the field.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 12 players in a team, 9 on the field.

A standard Kho-Kho team consists of 12 players , of which 9 take the field at a time —8 sit as defenders (chasers sit in the squares) and 1 acts as the active chaser running to tag opponents; the remaining 3 are substitutes. Hence, “12 in a team, 9 on the field” is correct.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q33. The IMEC is envisaged as a multi-modal corridor. Which of the following modes of transport are its primary components?

  1. (a) Maritime and Rail only
  2. (b) Road and Pipeline only
  3. (c) Air, Rail, and Sea
  4. (d) Air and Road only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maritime and Rail only

The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) , announced at the G20 Summit 2023, is a planned multi-modal transport corridor aimed at improving trade connectivity between India, the Middle East, and Europe. Its two primary components are: ( i ) Maritime routes – connecting Indian ports with Middle Eastern ports. (ii) Rail networks – linking Middle Eastern countries to Europe, creating faster and more efficient supply chains. This corridor will significantly reduce transportation time and cost while enhancing energy and trade cooperation.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q34. India’s support for which of the following missions aligns most closely with IMEC’s purpose?

  1. (a) African Union’s Blue Charter mission
  2. (b) Non-Aligned Movement’s Neutrality Declaration
  3. (c) International Solar Alliance energy initiative
  4. (d) One Sun One World One Grid initiative
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) One Sun One World One Grid initiative

The India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC) is a major connectivity project aimed at enhancing trade, energy, and digital links between Asia, the Middle East, and Europe. Its core purpose is to establish a sustainable and integrated network for the smooth flow of goods, energy, and green technologies. India’s “One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG)” initiative , which seeks to connect renewable energy grids across countries to ensure efficient solar energy sharing, aligns closely with IMEC’s vision. Both focus on sustainable connectivity, clean energy, and international cooperation .
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q35. Which of the following ISRO initiatives, launched with the vision of "Catch them young", aims to introduce school students to space science and technology?

  1. (a) YUVIKA – Young Scientist Programme
  2. (b) NISHTHA Space Module
  3. (c) Vidyarthi Vigyan Manthan
  4. (d) SPARK Internship Programme
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) YUVIKA – Young Scientist Programme

ISRO launched the YUVIKA (Young Scientist Programme ) to encourage school students towards space science and technology. The vision “Catch them young” highlights the aim of identifying and nurturing talent at an early age. Under this programme , selected students are trained at ISRO centres , where they get exposure to satellite technology, space applications, and practical experiments. This initiative not only boosts scientific curiosity but also prepares young minds to contribute to India’s space journey in the future.
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding the structure of Carnatic music compositions and choose correct option:
Statement 1: Varnam is typically performed at the end of a Carnatic concert to summarize key ragas.
Statement 2: Alapana involves improvisational elaboration of a raga without rhythm (tala).

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  3. (c) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 2

In Carnatic music, Varnam is not performed at the end but usually at the beginning of a concert. It serves as a warm-up piece, introducing the raga, testing the musician’s voice, and setting the tone for the performance. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect . On the other hand, Alapana is indeed an improvisational elaboration of a raga without any fixed rhythm ( tala ). The artist explores the raga slowly, moving from lower notes to higher, showcasing creativity and mastery. Thus, Statement 2 is correct , making option 4 the right answer.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q37. Who is the author of "The God of Small Things"?

  1. (a) Mo Yan
  2. (b) Neil Gaiman
  3. (c) Arundhati Roy
  4. (d) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arundhati Roy

The novel "The God of Small Things" was authored by Arundhati Roy , an Indian writer and political activist. Published in 1997 , it is her debut novel and won the Booker Prize for Fiction the same year, bringing her international recognition. The novel is set in Kerala and explores themes of caste discrimination, social injustice, family bonds, and forbidden love, making it a landmark in Indian English literature.

Current Affairs (2)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q38. Who was announced on 26 June 2025 as first Indian astronaut for Titans Space mission?

  1. (a) Sunita Williams
  2. (b) Jahnavi Dangeti
  3. (c) Rakesh Sharma
  4. (d) Minal Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jahnavi Dangeti

On 26 June 2025, Jahnavi Dangeti , a 23-year-old from Andhra Pradesh, was announced as the first Indian astronaut selected for the Titans Space Mission . She has already undergone advanced space training at NASA and the International Space Training Center, including underwater spacewalk simulations. Her selection is a historic milestone for India as it showcases the growing role of Indian youth in global space exploration programs.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q39. Where was the 86th Senior National Table Tennis Championships 2025 held?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  2. (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Surat, Gujarat
  4. (d) Panaji, Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Surat, Gujarat

The 86th Senior National Table Tennis Championships 2025 was hosted in Surat, Gujarat . Surat has emerged as one of the growing hubs for national-level sports events in recent years, owing to its modern infrastructure and strong organisational capacity. The event brought together India’s top table tennis players, showcasing high-level competition. Hosting such events in Gujarat also highlights the state’s increasing investment in sports promotion and infrastructure development.

Chemistry (3)

Environmental Chemistry · Greenhouse effect and greenhouse gases

Q40. Which specific environmental condition found in waterlogged soils of rice paddies and wetlands directly facilitates the significant microbial production of methane, a potent greenhouse gas?

  1. (a) Frequent soil tilling
  2. (b) Low soil temperatures
  3. (c) Anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions
  4. (d) High levels of dissolved oxygen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions

In rice paddies and wetlands, waterlogging leads to anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions . In the absence of oxygen, methanogenic bacteria thrive and decompose organic matter, producing methane (CH₄) as a by-product. This methane then escapes into the atmosphere, making paddy fields one of the largest agricultural sources of greenhouse gas emissions.
Structure of Atom · Bohr's model

Q41. According to Bohr’s model, what is the significance of an electron transition from a higher energy orbit to a lower energy orbit?

  1. (a) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference between the orbits is absorbed.
  2. (b) The electron’s angular momentum becomes quantized.
  3. (c) The electron gains energy.
  4. (d) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference between the orbits is emitted.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference between the orbits is emitted.

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Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Food chemistry (preservatives, sweeteners, additives)

Q42. Metanil yellow, a non-permitted dye, is often used to adulterate turmeric. Which chemical test can confirm its presence?

  1. (a) Mixing with saltwater and checking for layers
  2. (b) Adding vinegar and looking for bubbles
  3. (c) Boiling in water and observing sediment
  4. (d) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid test yielding pink color
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid test yielding pink color

Metanil yellow is a non-permitted synthetic dye sometimes used to adulterate turmeric. Its detection is carried out by a specific chemical test: when turmeric adulterated with Metanil yellow is treated with alcohol and concentrated hydrochloric acid , it gives a pink or violet-red coloration . This reaction confirms the presence of the dye. The other options such as mixing with saltwater, adding vinegar, or boiling do not specifically detect Metanil yellow. Thus, the correct test is the alcohol + hydrochloric acid test .
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