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SSC Stenographer 2025 8 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2025 on 8 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Polity, Economics, Medieval History, Biology, Geography.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 8 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (13) · Polity (8) · Economics (9) · Medieval History (1) · Biology (3) · Geography (5) · Physics (3) · Current Affairs (3) · Modern History (2)

Static GK (13)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q1. Identify the dance style recognized for its spiritual devotion and connection to the Vaishnavite movement.

  1. (a) Bharatanatyam
  2. (b) Sattriya
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Odissi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sattriya

The correct answer is Sattriya . This classical dance form originated in Assam and was introduced in the 15th–16th century by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev . It was primarily performed in monasteries ( sattras ) as a form of spiritual devotion and storytelling . Deeply rooted in the Vaishnavite Bhakti Movement , Sattriya dance aimed to spread the teachings of Lord Vishnu, particularly through narratives of Krishna’s life. Recognized as one of the eight classical dances of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi , it continues to serve as a medium of religious expression, combining music, drama, and dance.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q2. Who was the Home Minister in the first cabinet of free India?

  1. (a) Rajagopalachari
  2. (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
  3. (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  4. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel . After India gained independence in 1947, the first cabinet under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru was formed. Patel, also known as the "Iron Man of India" , was appointed as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister . He played a historic role in integrating over 560 princely states into the Indian Union, ensuring national unity and stability. His efforts in maintaining law and order, framing administrative systems, and strengthening internal security laid the foundation of modern India’s governance structure.
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q3. Where was the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 held?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Goa
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu . The Khelo India Youth Games 2024 were hosted by Tamil Nadu for the first time, with major events held in Chennai, Madurai, Trichy, and Coimbatore . This edition marked a significant step in promoting sports culture in South India. Over 5,000 athletes from across the country participated in more than 25 sporting disciplines . Hosting the event helped Tamil Nadu showcase its sports infrastructure and organisational capacity, boosting enthusiasm for grassroots sports development.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q4. Consider the following two statements, labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer from the given options.
Assertion (A): The standard distance between the penalty spot and the goal line on a football field is 11 meters.
Reason (R): This distance allows the goalkeeper a fair reaction time while challenging the accuracy and confidence of the penalty taker.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is that both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A . In football, the penalty spot is fixed at 11 meters (12 yards) from the goal line, as per FIFA rules. This specific distance is designed to balance the advantage between the penalty taker and the goalkeeper . While the striker has a good chance to score, the goalkeeper still has a small but fair opportunity to react, making the game competitive and fair. Hence, R provides the exact reasoning behind A.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q5. Which feature is not commonly associated with French colonial architecture in India?

  1. (a) Tall doors and windows
  2. (b) Sloped tiled roofs
  3. (c) Wide verandas
  4. (d) Ornate Mughal domes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ornate Mughal domes

French colonial architecture in India, especially visible in Puducherry, is characterised by tall doors and windows, sloping tiled roofs, and wide verandas designed to suit the tropical climate. However, ornate Mughal domes are features of Mughal architecture, not of French colonial style. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q6. Which of the following accurately describes The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida , winner of the 2022 Booker Prize?
The novel is set during the civil war in Sri Lanka and explores the afterlife of a photojournalist.
It is a non-fictional account of archaeological excavations in the Gandhara region.
The author, Shehan Karunatilaka, uses satire and ghosts to comment on violence, memory, and political trauma.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida by Shehan Karunatilaka is set during the Sri Lankan civil war. It follows the story of a photojournalist navigating the afterlife, using satire and ghostly narration to reflect on violence, memory, and politics. Thus, Statement 1 (Sri Lankan civil war & afterlife theme) and Statement 3 (use of satire & ghosts to comment on violence and politics) are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as the book is a fictional novel , not an archaeological account.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q7. Which of the following correctly pairs the initiative with its primary objective from India’s viewpoint?

  1. (a) IMEC – Maritime security in South China Sea
  2. (b) QUAD – Strengthening oil diplomacy in Gulf
  3. (c) Chabahar Port – Access Central Asia via Iran
  4. (d) BIMSTEC – Land connectivity to Europe
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chabahar Port – Access Central Asia via Iran

The correct pair is Chabahar Port – Access Central Asia via Iran . India developed the Chabahar Port in Iran as a strategic initiative to bypass Pakistan and gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. This project is crucial for India’s trade and connectivity with resource-rich Central Asia, enhancing energy and economic cooperation. The other options are incorrect: IMEC is related to linking India with Europe and Middle East trade routes, not South China Sea security. QUAD is a grouping focused on Indo-Pacific security and democratic cooperation, not oil diplomacy in the Gulf. BIMSTEC is aimed at regional cooperation in South and Southeast Asia, not land connectivity to Europe.
Organisations and Headquarters · Research institutes and laboratories

Q8. Which high-altitude observatory in India is known for hosting an optical-infrared telescope used for space observation in Ladakh?

  1. (a) Nainital Aryabhatta Observatory
  2. (b) Udaipur Solar Observatory
  3. (c) Mount Abu Infrared Observatory
  4. (d) Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory

The correct answer is Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory . Located in Ladakh at an altitude of about 4,500 meters, it is one of the world’s highest astronomical observatories. It houses the Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT) and recently India’s first Optical-Infrared telescope has been installed here. Its high altitude and dry atmosphere make it ideal for deep-space optical and infrared observations. The other options are incorrect: The Nainital Aryabhatta Observatory is mainly for optical studies at a much lower altitude; Udaipur Solar Observatory focuses only on solar studies; Mount Abu Observatory is important but not as high or suitable for infrared astronomy as Hanle.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q9. Which of the following festivals is celebrated by the tribal communities of Nagaland and showcases traditional dance and music?

  1. (a) Onam
  2. (b) Teej
  3. (c) Ugadi
  4. (d) Hornbill Festival
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hornbill Festival

The Hornbill Festival is the most famous cultural festival of Nagaland , celebrated every year in December. It is organised by the Government of Nagaland to showcase the rich traditions, customs, dances, music, handicrafts, and cuisines of the Naga tribes. Known as the “Festival of Festivals” , it brings together all Naga tribes at Kisama Heritage Village near Kohima. Onam is celebrated in Kerala, Teej in Rajasthan/Haryana, and Ugadi in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka. Hence, the correct answer is Hornbill Festival .
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q10. The first known rules of Kabaddi were framed in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

The first formal rules of Kabaddi were framed in Maharashtra in 1921 . Although Kabaddi was traditionally played in different forms across India—such as “Hu-Tu-Tu” in Maharashtra, “ Chedugudu ” in Andhra Pradesh, and “ Sadugudu ” in Tamil Nadu—Maharashtra took the lead in drafting official written rules. This codification marked the transformation of Kabaddi from a rural pastime into a structured sport. In 1923, the first All-India Kabaddi tournament was organised at Baroda, which gave the game wider recognition. Later, in 1950, the All India Kabaddi Federation was formed, which standardised rules and promoted Kabaddi at the national level. The sport became part of the Indian Olympic Games in 1938 and eventually featured in the Asian Games in 1990.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q11. What is one of the major future impacts of ISRO’s Aditya-L1 mission that studies the Sun’s chromosphere and corona?

  1. (a) Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems
  2. (b) Enhanced rainfall prediction in monsoon regions
  3. (c) Mapping of asteroids beyond Neptune
  4. (d) Development of underwater navigation systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems

The correct answer is Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems . The Aditya-L1 mission is India’s first dedicated solar mission, placed in a Halo orbit around Lagrange Point 1 (L1). Its primary objective is to study the Sun’s corona, chromosphere, and solar winds. These observations are crucial because disturbances on the Sun (like solar flares and coronal mass ejections) release high-energy particles that can disrupt satellite communications, GPS, power grids, and even human space missions. With Aditya-L1 data, ISRO can significantly improve space weather prediction capabilities, allowing preventive measures to protect satellites, ensure uninterrupted communication, and maintain the stability of power transmission systems on Earth.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q12. What is a unique feature of the AstroSat mission operated by ISRO?

  1. (a) X-ray observations only
  2. (b) Optical observations only
  3. (c) Single-wavelength observations
  4. (d) Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations

The correct answer is Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations . AstroSat , launched by ISRO in 2015, is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory. Unlike many other satellites that focus on a single wavelength such as X-ray or optical, AstroSat can observe the universe in multiple wavelengths — X-ray, Ultraviolet (UV), and Optical — simultaneously. This makes it unique because it provides a more comprehensive picture of astronomical phenomena such as black holes, neutron stars, supernovae, and active galactic nuclei. Such simultaneous data across different wavelengths helps scientists to correlate and understand cosmic processes better.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q13. Which instrument is commonly used in Carnatic classical music?

  1. (a) Santoor
  2. (b) Shehnai
  3. (c) Dhol
  4. (d) Mridangam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mridangam

The correct answer is Mridangam . In Carnatic classical music, which is the classical music tradition of South India, the Mridangam is the primary percussion instrument. It is a double-headed drum made of wood with leather on both sides. One side produces a bass sound and the other produces a treble sound, making it versatile for accompanying vocal as well as instrumental performances. While instruments like the Santoor and Shehnai are associated with Hindustani classical music of North India, and Dhol is used in folk traditions, Mridangam remains central to Carnatic performances.

Polity (8)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q14. Under Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what may the Court do when a person is convicted in one trial for multiple offences?

  1. (a) Shall suspend all sentences unless directed by a higher court in the same trial
  2. (b) Must give the harshest punishment only and remit other punishments altogether
  3. (c) May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate
  4. (d) Can impose only one punishment for all the offences, regardless of their nature
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate

The correct answer is "May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate." Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) provides that when a person is convicted of multiple offences in a single trial, the Court has the discretion to decide whether punishments shall run concurrently (at the same time) or consecutively (one after the other) . This provision ensures flexibility so that punishments are proportional to the gravity of offences, preventing either excessive severity or undue leniency.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Length, articles and original provisions

Q15. Initially, when the "Constitution of India" was adopted on 26th November 1949, how many Articles and Schedules did it originally contain?

  1. (a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
  2. (b) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
  3. (c) 284 Articles and 8 Schedules
  4. (d) 444 Articles and 12 Schedules
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

The correct answer is 395 Articles and 8 Schedules . When the Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949 , it originally had 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules . Over time, through various constitutional amendments, the Constitution has expanded significantly and today contains 470+ Articles, 25 Parts, and 12 Schedules . The original framework was drafted by the Constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar , who is known as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution .
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q16. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in the order of their appearance in the Constitution:
1. Right to Freedom
2. Right to Equality
3. Right to Freedom of Religion
4. Right against Exploitation

  1. (a) 4-2-1-3
  2. (b) 2-4-1-3
  3. (c) 1-2-3-4
  4. (d) 2-1-4-3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2-1-4-3

The correct order of the Fundamental Rights as arranged in the Constitution is: (2) Right to Equality (Articles 14–18) → (1) Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22) → (4) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) → (3) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28 ) .Thus , the correct sequence is 2-1-4-3 . This order reflects the structure in Part III of the Indian Constitution where equality comes first, followed by freedom, then protection from exploitation, and finally, freedom of religion.
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q17. Which Indian state does S. Jaishankar represent in the Rajya Sabha?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Uttar Pradesh
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat . Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s current External Affairs Minister, was elected to the Rajya Sabha from Gujarat. After his retirement as Foreign Secretary, he joined politics and was nominated to the Union Cabinet in 2019. To continue as a Cabinet Minister, he required membership in Parliament, and hence he was elected to the Rajya Sabha representing Gujarat. His selection reflects the political practice of nominating technocrats and experts to the Upper House, ensuring their participation in governance without requiring them to contest Lok Sabha elections directly.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q18. Which act replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  2. (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
  3. (c) None of the above
  4. (d) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 . The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which laid down the procedure for investigation, trial, and punishment of criminal offences, has now been replaced by the BNSS under the new set of three criminal laws introduced in 2023. These reforms were aimed at modernising the criminal justice system, reducing procedural delays, and making laws more citizen-centric. Along with the BNSS, the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 , and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, has been replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 . Together, these three new laws mark a significant transformation in India’s criminal justice framework, focusing on faster trials, digital evidence, victim protection, and improved efficiency.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q19. The power to legislate on 'Residuary Subjects' (matters not enumerated in any of the three Lists) rests exclusively with:

  1. (a) State Legislatures
  2. (b) The President of India
  3. (c) Parliament
  4. (d) The Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Parliament

The correct answer is Option 3: Parliament . In the Indian Constitution, legislative powers are divided into three lists under the Seventh Schedule – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List . However, there may be certain matters not mentioned in any of these lists. Such subjects are called Residuary Subjects . According to Article 248 of the Constitution, the power to make laws on residuary subjects rests exclusively with the Parliament of India . This provision ensures central authority over subjects that may emerge in future, such as space exploration, cyber laws, or atomic energy, which were not envisioned at the time of drafting the Constitution. State legislatures or other authorities do not have any role in residuary legislation.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q20. Which of the following pairs of newly created States/Union Territories after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Telangana – 2001
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh – 2000
  3. (c) Uttarakhand – 1998
  4. (d) Jharkhand – 2001
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chhattisgarh – 2000

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh – 2000 . Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on 1 November 2000 . The other options are mismatched: Telangana was created in 2014 , not 2001; Uttarakhand was created in 2000 , not 1998 (earlier known as Uttaranchal); Jharkhand was also created in 2000 , not 2001. Hence, only the pair Chhattisgarh – 2000 is correctly matched.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Schedules of the Constitution

Q21. ‘The provision for Oath or Affirmation by members of the legislature’ is mentioned in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Fifth Schedule
  2. (b) Second Schedule
  3. (c) Fourth Schedule
  4. (d) Third Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Third Schedule

The correct answer is Third Schedule . The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oaths and affirmations for various constitutional posts, including Union and State Ministers, Members of Parliament, Members of State Legislatures, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. These oaths affirm loyalty to the Constitution and uphold its integrity. Other schedules deal with different aspects: the Second Schedule deals with emoluments, allowances, and privileges of officials; the Fourth Schedule relates to allocation of Rajya Sabha seats; and the Fifth Schedule deals with administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.

Economics (9)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q22. Which of the following was a major criticism of the industrial policy followed in India during 1950–1990?

  1. (a) Neglect of the public sector.
  2. (b) Too much emphasis on exports.
  3. (c) Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.
  4. (d) Excessive competition among domestic industries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.

The correct answer is Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation . Between 1950 and 1990 , India followed a policy of import substitution and protectionism . The government imposed high tariffs, import restrictions, and licensing requirements (known as the License Raj ) to protect domestic industries. While this approach helped build a basic industrial base, it also created a monopolistic environment , reduced efficiency, and discouraged innovation. Since industries were shielded from foreign competition, they lacked incentive to improve quality or productivity, leading to stagnation. This criticism ultimately paved the way for the 1991 economic liberalisation reforms.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q23. What trend is reflected by increasing share of urban people in non-manual tertiary occupations?

  1. (a) Spatial literacy inequality
  2. (b) Emerging service economy
  3. (c) De-industrialization
  4. (d) Gendered education access
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Emerging service economy

The correct answer is Emerging service economy . An increasing share of urban population working in non-manual tertiary occupations (like IT, banking, education, healthcare, and other service-oriented jobs) reflects the structural transformation of the Indian economy. It shows a shift from agriculture and traditional industries to a service-dominated economy. This trend is strongly visible in metropolitan cities, where services such as finance, communication, transport, and IT generate major employment opportunities.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q24. What kind of approach does the Happiness Index encourage in governance?

  1. (a) Resource-based
  2. (b) Citizen-centric
  3. (c) Legalistic
  4. (d) Militaristic
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Citizen-centric

The Happiness Index focuses on measuring the well-being of citizens rather than just economic growth or resource-based parameters. It emphasises quality of life, mental health, social support, and citizen satisfaction in governance. Therefore, it promotes a citizen-centric approach where policies are designed to improve the happiness and welfare of people.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q25. Read the following statements about Trade Policy Reform:
Statement I: Trade policy reform in India involved removing quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.
Statement II: Trade policy reform increased import licensing to support domestic manufacturers.

  1. (a) Only Statement I is correct
  2. (b) Both Statements I and II are correct
  3. (c) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
  4. (d) Only Statement II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement I is correct

Trade Policy Reforms in India, particularly after 1991, aimed at liberalisation of trade . The reforms removed many quantitative restrictions (like quotas) on imports and exports to promote global integration. However, import licensing was reduced , not increased. Hence, Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect .
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q26. What does 'repo rate' refer to in India's monetary policy?

  1. (a) Rate at which the government borrows from banks
  2. (b) Rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI
  3. (c) Rate at which consumers take loans
  4. (d) Rate of foreign exchange transactions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI

Repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities or collateral. It is a crucial monetary policy tool used by RBI to control inflation and liquidity in the economy. When repo rate increases, borrowing becomes costlier for banks, which in turn raises lending rates for consumers and businesses, thereby reducing liquidity and controlling inflation. When repo rate decreases, borrowing becomes cheaper, encouraging banks to lend more, which increases liquidity and boosts economic activity. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because repo rate is specifically about RBI–commercial bank borrowing, not government loans, consumer loans, or forex rates.
Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q27. Consider the emphasis placed on the public sector in India’s industrial development strategy between 1947 and 1990. What was a key rationale behind giving the public sector a dominant role during this period?

  1. (a) The private sector had sufficient capital and technological expertise to drive industrialization in all key sectors.
  2. (b) There was a lack of demand for industrial goods in the domestic market, necessitating government intervention.
  3. (c) The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling strategic industries.
  4. (d) Public sector industries were inherently more efficient than private sector ones.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling strategic industries.

After independence, India lacked adequate private capital, infrastructure, and technical expertise to drive large-scale industrialisation . Hence, the government adopted a public sector-led strategy . Public enterprises were expected to play a key role in controlling the commanding heights of the economy —like steel, energy, heavy machinery, and defence . They were also seen as instruments to achieve social justice , reduce regional disparities, and ensure employment generation. Thus, the rationale was not about efficiency but about strategic control and social objectives . Options 1 and 4 are incorrect because private capital was insufficient, and efficiency was not the main justification. Option 2 is partly true but not the main reason. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 .
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q28. Which of the following schemes provides annual income support to farmers directly into their bank accounts?

  1. (a) PM Fasal Bima Yojana
  2. (b) PM-KISAN
  3. (c) MGNREGA
  4. (d) PM Jan Dhan Yojana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PM-KISAN

The correct answer is Option 2: PM-KISAN . The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme was launched in 2019 to provide direct income support to farmers across India. Under this scheme, eligible farmers receive ₹6,000 per year in three equal instalments of ₹2,000, directly credited to their bank accounts through DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer). The scheme aims to provide assured income support to help farmers meet their agricultural and household needs. Unlike PM Fasal Bima Yojana which provides crop insurance, or MGNREGA which guarantees employment, PM-KISAN focuses specifically on direct income transfer. This initiative has become one of the largest DBT schemes globally, ensuring financial inclusion and stability for millions of small and marginal farmers.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q29. In what way did fiscal discipline reforms affect center-state financial relations post-1991?

  1. (a) States had to adhere to fiscal targets
  2. (b) Centralized control over agriculture pricing
  3. (c) Increased state autonomy in tax policy
  4. (d) Reduced tax sharing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) States had to adhere to fiscal targets

The correct answer is Option 1: States had to adhere to fiscal targets . After the 1991 economic reforms, India adopted a policy framework that emphasized fiscal discipline to stabilize the economy and ensure sustainable growth. This required both the central and state governments to maintain fiscal responsibility and reduce budgetary deficits. Mechanisms such as the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act were introduced, making states accountable for controlling excessive borrowing and adhering to set fiscal targets. The reforms did not centralize agricultural pricing or increase tax autonomy; rather, they emphasized coordinated fiscal discipline. This strengthened financial accountability but also limited the states' flexibility in expenditure and borrowing.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q30. Which of the following reflects the "what to produce" decision in economics?

  1. (a) Choosing between capital and consumer goods
  2. (b) Increasing taxes to raise government revenue
  3. (c) Choosing method of production
  4. (d) Deciding on distribution of output
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Choosing between capital and consumer goods

In economics, the problem of "what to produce" refers to the decision about which goods and services should be produced and in what quantities, given limited resources. The choice is often between capital goods (like machines, factories) that help future production, and consumer goods (like food, clothes) that directly satisfy present human wants. This reflects the allocation of scarce resources towards competing needs. Option 2 relates to fiscal policy, option 3 reflects the "how to produce" decision, and option 4 corresponds to the "for whom to produce" decision. Thus, option 1 is correct.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q31. What led to the decline of Timurid power in the second half of the 15th century?

  1. (a) Internal wars due to partitioning
  2. (b) Rise of Uzbeks
  3. (c) Ottoman invasions
  4. (d) Economic decline due to maritime trade shifts
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Internal wars due to partitioning

The decline of the Timurid Empire in the second half of the 15th century was mainly due to internal wars caused by repeated partitioning of territories among Timur’s descendants . Each successor claimed portions of the empire, leading to constant succession disputes and weakening central authority. This disunity allowed external rivals like the Uzbeks and Ottomans to gain ground, but the immediate and primary cause was the fragmentation within the dynasty itself.

Biology (3)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell division - mitosis and meiosis

Q32. Which of the following statements about the G0 (G zero phase) phase of the cell cycle is most accurate?

  1. (a) DNA synthesis occurs rapidly in cells present in the G0 phase.
  2. (b) It is the phase where cell division is initiated in cancerous cells.
  3. (c) It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle.
  4. (d) Cells in G0 actively prepare for DNA replication.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle.

The G0 phase is also known as the resting or quiescent stage. In this stage, cells exit the active cell cycle after mitosis and do not proceed to DNA synthesis (S phase). Some cells enter G0 temporarily, such as liver cells which can re-enter the cycle when required, while others enter it permanently, such as neurons and cardiac muscle cells. Hence, statement 3 is the most accurate. Statement 1 and 4 are wrong because DNA synthesis does not occur in G0, it happens in the S phase. Statement 2 is also incorrect because cancer cells bypass G0 and divide uncontrollably, but G0 itself is not the stage of division initiation.
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Cloning and stem cells

Q33. Which of the following best describes the goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine?

  1. (a) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs
  2. (b) To stimulate hormonal glands
  3. (c) To provide genetic immunity against viruses
  4. (d) To prevent blood clotting in arteries
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs

The main goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine is to replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs. Stem cells have the unique ability to develop into different types of specialized cells such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or blood cells. This property makes them highly valuable in treating conditions like spinal cord injuries, heart diseases, diabetes, and certain neurodegenerative disorders. They can repair tissues that cannot heal naturally, thereby offering new hope in regenerative medicine. The other options are incorrect because stem cell therapy is not primarily aimed at stimulating hormones, providing viral immunity, or preventing blood clots, though ongoing research may explore such possibilities in the future.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q34. Which of the following is the central objective of Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme?

  1. (a) Urban health surveillance
  2. (b) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems
  3. (c) Food security through MSP
  4. (d) Providing skill-based employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems

The correct answer is Option 2: Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems . The Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme was launched by the Government of India to address malnutrition and ensure holistic development of children under 6 years of age. Its central aim is to provide nutritional support, promote early childhood care, and strengthen Anganwadi centres with modern facilities. The scheme merges existing nutrition-related programmes like ICDS, Anganwadi Services, and Poshan Abhiyaan into an integrated package. It focuses on improving nutritional outcomes for children, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. By strengthening delivery systems and monitoring mechanisms, the scheme aims to combat malnutrition and enhance human capital development.

Geography (5)

India - Drainage System · Waterfalls of India

Q35. The Jog Falls in Karnataka is formed from which river?

  1. (a) Kaveri
  2. (b) Godavari
  3. (c) Sharavathi
  4. (d) Krishna
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sharavathi

The Jog Falls, also known as Gerosoppa Falls , is one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is formed by the Sharavathi River , which drops from a height of about 830 feet (253 metres ). Jog Falls is unique because the Sharavathi River splits into four distinct cascades – Raja, Rani, Roarer, and Rocket. It is an important hydroelectric power site as well, with the Linganamakki Dam constructed upstream. The other rivers mentioned (Kaveri, Godavari, Krishna) form different famous waterfalls but not Jog Falls.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q36. Which planet has the longest day in the solar system?

  1. (a) Mars
  2. (b) Earth
  3. (c) Venus
  4. (d) Jupiter
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Venus

The correct answer is Venus . Venus has the longest rotation period of any planet in the solar system. It takes about 243 Earth days to complete one full rotation on its axis. Interestingly, Venus rotates in the opposite direction (retrograde rotation) compared to most other planets, meaning that if you were standing on Venus, the Sun would appear to rise in the west and set in the east. Despite its long day, a Venusian year (time taken to orbit the Sun) is only about 225 Earth days , making a day on Venus longer than its year.
Universe and Solar System · Universe, galaxies and Big Bang

Q37. Which type of galaxy has no regular shape and is rich in gas and dust?

  1. (a) Elliptical Galaxy
  2. (b) Lenticular Galaxies
  3. (c) Irregular Galaxy
  4. (d) Spiral Galaxy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Irregular Galaxy

The correct answer is Irregular Galaxy . Unlike spiral or elliptical galaxies, irregular galaxies do not have a defined shape. They appear chaotic and lack a central bulge or spiral arms. They are often rich in gas and dust, making them active sites of star formation. Examples include the Large Magellanic Cloud and the Small Magellanic Cloud, which are satellite galaxies of the Milky Way .
India - Agriculture · Food crops and leading states

Q38. Which of the following agro -climatic and soil conditions is most suitable for the cultivation of wheat?

  1. (a) Tropical crop; 30–35°C temperature; sandy soil
  2. (b) Temperate crop; winter temp 10–15°C, summer 21–26°C; clay loam soil
  3. (c) Subtropical crop; high humidity; laterite soil
  4. (d) Arid crop; temperature above 40°C; sandy loam soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Temperate crop; winter temp 10–15°C, summer 21–26°C; clay loam soil

The correct answer is Option 2: Temperate crop; winter temperature 10–15°C, summer 21–26°C; clay loam soil . Wheat is primarily a rabi crop in India, requiring a cool climate during its growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. The ideal temperature for germination is about 10–15°C, while during ripening, it requires around 21–26°C. Wheat grows best in fertile, well-drained loam or clay loam soil, which retains moisture but also allows air circulation. High temperatures (above 35°C) or excessive rainfall are harmful for wheat cultivation. Hence, temperate conditions with moderate winters and warm summers along with clay loam soil are considered most suitable.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q39. Which economic consequence of migration is generally considered a challenge for the destination regions in India, particularly concerning unskilled rural migrants?

  1. (a) Balanced regional development across states
  2. (b) Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment
  3. (c) Increased per capita income due to the inflow of highly skilled labor
  4. (d) Reduction in pressure on land resources and unemployment rates
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment

The correct answer is Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment . When large numbers of unskilled rural migrants move to cities, they usually lack formal education and job skills. As a result, they are absorbed into the informal sector where jobs are insecure, poorly paid, and often exploitative. This creates economic challenges for urban regions, as it increases pressure on civic infrastructure while failing to provide social security to workers. The rise of informal employment limits long-term economic stability and contributes to social inequalities in the destination areas.

Physics (3)

Sources of Energy · Energy efficiency and environmental impact

Q40. Which type of vehicle is commonly used in zero-emission public transport systems?

  1. (a) Electric buses
  2. (b) Petrol cars
  3. (c) Hybrid vehicles
  4. (d) Diesel buses
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Electric buses

The correct answer is Electric buses . Zero-emission transport refers to vehicles that do not release harmful pollutants or greenhouse gases from their exhaust. Among the listed options, electric buses operate solely on electricity stored in batteries and therefore do not emit carbon dioxide (CO₂), nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), or particulate matter during operation. They are becoming a preferred choice in many countries for sustainable public transport because they significantly reduce urban air pollution and dependence on fossil fuels. Petrol cars and diesel buses, on the other hand, release a large amount of greenhouse gases, while hybrid vehicles still rely partly on fossil fuels, so they are not completely zero-emission. India, under the FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles) scheme, has been actively promoting electric buses to meet its clean energy and climate goals.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q41. According to Lenz’s Law, what determines the direction of an induced current in a conductor?

  1. (a) It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it.
  2. (b) It continuously reduces the applied magnetic flux.
  3. (c) It is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.
  4. (d) It always enhances the existing magnetic field.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it.

[IMAGE: SSC Steno GK (eng)_image_10.png]
Sound and Waves · Speed of sound in different media

Q42. Read the following and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Sound waves travel faster in steel than in air at the same temperature.
Reason (R): The particles in solids (like steel) are more closely packed and experience stronger intermolecular forces compared to particles in gases (like air), allowing vibrations to be transmitted more efficiently and rapidly.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) A is true but R is false.
  3. (c) A is false but R is true.
  4. (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A . Sound waves need a medium to travel, and their speed depends on the density and elasticity of the medium. In solids like steel, particles are packed closely together and bound by strong intermolecular forces. This allows vibrations (sound energy) to be transmitted faster and more efficiently compared to gases like air, where particles are far apart and the intermolecular forces are weaker. Therefore, sound travels faster in steel than in air, and the given Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

Current Affairs (3)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q43. India’s improvement in the Rule of Law Index is most critically challenged by which factor?

  1. (a) Media bias
  2. (b) Slow judicial delivery
  3. (c) Legislative overreach
  4. (d) Executive dominance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Slow judicial delivery

The correct answer is Slow judicial delivery . India’s performance in the Rule of Law Index faces a significant challenge due to delays in judicial processes. Although India has a well-structured judiciary, the problem of huge case backlogs, shortage of judges, and procedural complexities have led to long delays in delivering justice. Justice delayed often becomes justice denied, thereby affecting public trust in the legal system. While factors like media bias, legislative overreach, or executive dominance also influence governance, the most critical factor highlighted at the global level is the inefficiency in timely judicial delivery. Strengthening judicial infrastructure, appointing more judges, and adopting technology-driven case management systems are considered essential reforms for improving India’s standing in the index.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q44. Read the below statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: India's first initiative to track Fishing Cats through radio-collars has been introduced at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary.
Statement 2: Fishing Cats are primarily found in coastal wetlands and mangrove ecosystems.

  1. (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 1 is correct
  3. (c) Only Statement 2 is correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Both statements are correct. India’s first initiative to track Fishing Cats using radio-collars was indeed launched at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh , which is known for its mangrove ecosystem. This initiative aims to study the movement and behaviour of Fishing Cats, which are vulnerable species. Fishing Cats are semi-aquatic wild cats and are primarily found in wetlands, marshes, and mangrove habitats along India’s eastern coast, including Sundarbans and Coringa. Thus, both statement 1 and statement 2 are factually correct.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q45. Which region has become the new epicenter of global terrorism, according to the GTI (Global Terrorism Index) 2024?

  1. (a) Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa
  2. (b) Southeast Asia
  3. (c) Central Asia
  4. (d) Middle East and North Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa

The correct answer is Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa . According to the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2024, the Central Sahel — particularly countries like Burkina Faso, Mali, and Niger — has emerged as the new epicenter of global terrorism. The rise of extremist groups in this region, combined with political instability, weak governance, and cross-border conflicts, has created a highly volatile environment. Previously, the Middle East was considered the main hub of terrorism, but recent data shows that attacks and fatalities have significantly shifted towards sub-Saharan Africa, making the Sahel the new focal point.

Modern History (2)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q46. With reference to the Indian Councils Act, 1892, consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
It significantly increased the number of official members in the Central Legislative Council.
It empowered the legislative councils to discuss the budget and address questions to the executive.
It introduced the principle of direct election for non-official members of provincial legislative councils.

  1. (a) 2 and 3 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 only

The correct answer is 2 only . The Indian Councils Act, 1892, brought limited reforms to the legislative councils. It empowered the councils to discuss the annual budget and to ask questions to the executive, though without the right to vote. This gave members some role in financial matters for the first time. However, it did not significantly increase the number of official members in the Central Legislative Council, nor did it introduce the principle of direct elections. Instead, members were nominated by bodies such as provincial councils, universities, and chambers of commerce. Hence, only Statement 2 is correct.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Arya Samaj and Dayananda Saraswati

Q47. Who set up a Dayanand Anglo Vedic school in Lahore?

  1. (a) Lala Lajpat Rai
  2. (b) Balgangadhar Tilak
  3. (c) Bipin Chandrapal
  4. (d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lala Lajpat Rai

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai . The Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) School was founded in 1886 in Lahore by Lala Lajpat Rai and his associates as part of the Arya Samaj movement. Its aim was to provide modern scientific education blended with Vedic values, reflecting Swami Dayanand Saraswati’s ideals. Later, the DAV institutions expanded into colleges and universities, becoming one of the largest educational networks in India. This institution played a significant role in creating a new generation of Indians who were modern in outlook but rooted in Indian traditions.
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