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National Affairs and Government Initiatives PYQs – Current Affairs, SSC & Railway

486 National Affairs and Government Initiatives (Current Affairs) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions – page 5 of 5.

📚 486 questionsSSC 129 · Railway 357
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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q401. What is the primary objective of the e-Zero FIR initiative launched by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs in May 2025?

  1. (a) Provide compensation for cyber fraud victims
  2. (b) Fast-track cyber fraud FIRs
  3. (c) Create a national crime database
  4. (d) Launch an online cyber safety portal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fast-track cyber fraud FIRs

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 August 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q402. Which of the following organisations launched the Bharatpol platform to enhance coordination with Interpol in January 2025?

  1. (a) National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
  2. (b) National Investigation Agency (NIA)
  3. (c) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  4. (d) Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

Q403. In which city is India's first AI-focused Special Economic Zone (SEZ) being established in 2025?

  1. (a) Nava Raipur
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Pune
  4. (d) Bengaluru
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nava Raipur

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q404. Which of the following agencies launched the ‘Medical Innovations Patent Mitra’ in 2025?

  1. (a) AIIMS New Delhi
  2. (b) DST
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) ICMR
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ICMR

Q405. The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024, seeks to empower:

  1. (a) the State to make any special provision for the advancement of the economically weaker section (EWS) of citizens
  2. (b) the President to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously
  3. (c) the Election Commission to conduct elections for Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies at the same time
  4. (d) the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) the Election Commission to conduct elections for Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies at the same time

Q406. The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 amended which Act to address issues and challenges in the regulation and management of waqf properties?

  1. (a) Waqf Act, 1995
  2. (b) Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923
  3. (c) Wakf Act, 1954
  4. (d) Mussalman Wakf Validating Act, 1930
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Waqf Act, 1995

Q407. Which of the following cities hosted the 19ᵗʰ Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention held in January 2025?

  1. (a) Indore
  2. (b) Varanasi
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Bhubaneswar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhubaneswar

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 1 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q408. Who among the following launched the Nationwide Mass Drug Administration Campaign for Lymphatic Filariasis?

  1. (a) Shivraj Singh Chauhan
  2. (b) Amit Shah
  3. (c) Jagat Prakash Nadda
  4. (d) Chirag Paswan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jagat Prakash Nadda

Q409. On 1 May 2025, the Election Commission of India has launched how many major initiatives to improve the accuracy of voter list and ease the voting process?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 2
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q410. Which initiative, launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, aims to facilitate rapid action against cybercriminals?

  1. (a) Digital India Cyber Shield
  2. (b) National Cyber Safety Net
  3. (c) e-Zero FIR
  4. (d) Cyber Suraksha Abhiyan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) e-Zero FIR

Q411. What was the theme of the 10ᵗʰ Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog that was held on 24 May 2025?

  1. (a) Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
  2. (b) Viksit Bharat for All
  3. (c) Sustainable Growth for India
  4. (d) Empowering States for Development
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 1 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q412. In May 2025, the Ministry of Education launched a nationwide enforcement drive around schools and colleges for what purpose?

  1. (a) Focusing on mental health awareness
  2. (b) Making educational institutions free from tobacco and substance
  3. (c) Improving safety measures for female students
  4. (d) Promote positive campus culture and prevent incidents of ragging
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Making educational institutions free from tobacco and substance

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q413. As per the May 2025 Supreme Court ruling, what is the minimum number of years of legal practice required for law graduates to be eligible for Civil Judge examinations?

  1. (a) 3 years
  2. (b) 1 year
  3. (c) 5 years
  4. (d) 2 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3 years

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 13 August 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q414. In which of the following years did the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approve the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) to boost growth in the livestock sector?

  1. (a) 2021
  2. (b) 2019
  3. (c) 2025
  4. (d) 2016
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2025

Q415. Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired which edition of the Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi on 24 May 2025?

  1. (a) 8ᵗʰ
  2. (b) 11ᵗʰ
  3. (c) 10ᵗʰ
  4. (d) 9ᵗʰ
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 10ᵗʰ

Q416. Which Indian institute introduced two new BTech programs in Computational Engineering and Mechanics and Instrumentation and Biomedical Engineering, starting from the academic year 2025-26?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Technology Bombay
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Technology Madras
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Institute of Technology Madras

Q417. What is the purpose of the 'Melt and Pour' rule introduced in the DMI&SP Policy 2025?

  1. (a) Importing partially processed steel and finishing it domestically qualifies as “domestic”
  2. (b) Biometric authentication is required at smelting plants for traceability
  3. (c) Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India
  4. (d) Steel exports must include documentation of Indian melting processes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q418. Which of the following initiatives was launched by the National Commission for Women (NCW) on 22 May 2025 to promote AI literacy and digital safety among women, especially in rural and semi-urban areas?

  1. (a) Cyber Sakhi: AI Awareness Program
  2. (b) Digital Shakti: Women in Tech
  3. (c) Yashoda AI: Your AI SAKHI
  4. (d) Tech Sakhi: Empowering Women
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Yashoda AI: Your AI SAKHI

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q419. On 15 May 2025, the Supreme Court of India issued an immediate direction to the Centre to set up dedicated courts to deal with which cases?

  1. (a) Serious offenses like murder
  2. (b) Constitutional interpretations
  3. (c) Child sexual abuse
  4. (d) Dowry harassment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Child sexual abuse

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 3 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q420. What key principle did the Supreme Court emphasise in the 2024 Property Owners Association v State of Maharashtra case?

  1. (a) Only scarce or vital resources justify state takeover.
  2. (b) Public trust doctrine applies to all private assets.
  3. (c) State can acquire all private properties at will.
  4. (d) Government power overrides individual property rights.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only scarce or vital resources justify state takeover.

Q421. The new Indian Ports Bill 2025 seeks to repeal which Indian Act?

  1. (a) The Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856
  2. (b) The Calcutta Port (Pilotage) Act, 1948
  3. (c) The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021
  4. (d) The Indian Ports Act, 1908
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Indian Ports Act, 1908

Q422. Which Indian organisation hosted the 19ᵗʰ India Digital Summit in January 2025, focusing on the digital ecosystem?

  1. (a) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
  2. (b) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  3. (c) Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
  4. (d) National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)

Q423. In March 2025, the Lok Sabha passed the Bills of Lading Bill, modernising how many years of old colonial shipping law?

  1. (a) 175 years
  2. (b) 150 years
  3. (c) 120 years
  4. (d) 169 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 169 years

Q424. The Immigration and Foreigners Bill 2025, repeals which of the following Acts?

  1. (a) The Immigration (Carriers Liability) Amendment Act, 2005
  2. (b) The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
  3. (c) The Emigration Act, 1983
  4. (d) The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 August 2025 Shift 1 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q425. What was the Supreme Court's decision regarding the Kamla Nehru Memorial Trust's land allotment in Uttar Pradesh?

  1. (a) Ordered compensation to the Trust
  2. (b) Upheld the land allotment due to considerable public benefit assessment
  3. (c) Cancelled the land allotment due to lack of public benefit assessment
  4. (d) Directed the state to provide alternative land
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cancelled the land allotment due to lack of public benefit assessment

Q426. Which department has notified rules for the use of radar equipment to measure vehicle speed under the Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011?

  1. (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  3. (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. (d) Department of Consumer Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Department of Consumer Affairs

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 3 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q427. On 21 May 2025, the Director General of Health Services (DGHS) in Delhi was appointed to oversee the implementation of which two major healthcare initiatives?

  1. (a) Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission and Ayushman Arogya Mandir
  2. (b) National Health Stack and eSanjeevani
  3. (c) Fit India Movement and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
  4. (d) PM-JAY and National Digital Health Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission and Ayushman Arogya Mandir

Q428. India's first exploration licence auction and AI-Driven Mineral Targeting Hackathon was launched in:

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Telangana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa

Q429. In April 2025, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the development of a Greenfield High-Speed Corridor connecting which two states on NH-06 under Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)?

  1. (a) Manipur and Mizoram
  2. (b) Assam and Nagaland
  3. (c) Meghalaya and Assam
  4. (d) Tripura and Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Meghalaya and Assam

Q430. Who inaugurated Grameen Bharat Mahotsav?

  1. (a) Nirmala Sitharaman
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Droupadi Murmu
  4. (d) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Narendra Modi
The Grameen Bharat Mahotsav was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The Grameen Bharat Mahotsav is a mega festival organised to showcase rural development achievements, promote rural enterprises, artisans, and self-help groups, and celebrate India's rural economy and culture. PM Modi's inauguration of this event aligns with the government's focus on rural empowerment and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision.
Option 1 (Nirmala Sitharaman): Union Finance Minister; has inaugurated many financial sector events but not this specific festival.
Option 3 ( Droupadi Murmu): President of India; while she attends many national events, the Grameen Bharat Mahotsav was inaugurated by PM Modi.
Option 4 (Shivraj Singh Chouhan): Union Agriculture Minister (post-2024); involved in agricultural events but not the inaugural of Grameen Bharat Mahotsav.

Q431. Who inaugurated and addressed the 85th All India Presiding Officers' Conference in Patna, Bihar, on 20 January 2025 as Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Venkaiah Naidu
  2. (b) Jagdeep Dhankhar
  3. (c) Om Birla
  4. (d) Harivansh Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Om Birla

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Om Birla
Om Birla, the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha (elected June 2024), inaugurated and addressed the 85th All India Presiding Officers' Conference held in Patna, Bihar on January 20, 2025. The All India Presiding Officers' Conference brings together Speakers and Chairpersons of the Parliament and State/UT Legislatures to discuss legislative procedures and parliamentary matters.
Option 1 (Venkaiah Naidu): Former Vice President of India (2017–2022) and ex-Chairman of Rajya Sabha; not the current Lok Sabha Speaker.
Option 2 (Jagdeep Dhankhar): Current Vice President of India and Chairman of Rajya Sabha; he did not inaugurate the conference as Lok Sabha Speaker.
Option 4 (Harivansh Singh): Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; not the Lok Sabha Speaker.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 24 June 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q432. Which of the following statements related to the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) scheme launched in 2024 is/are correct?
Statement 1: The ONOS scheme aims to provide digital access to over 13,000 international journals for research institutions across India.
Statement 2: INFLIBNET(Information and Library Network) is responsible for managing financial transactions related to the subscription charges of these journals.

  1. (a) Both 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Neither 1 nor 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 24 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q433. Which of the following statements regarding the Namo Drone Didi scheme launched during 2024 are correct? It is a central sector scheme aimed at empowering women-led SHGs through drone-based agricultural services. The scheme is primarily implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. The scheme aims to enhance the income of women SHGs by providing drones for use in agriculture.

  1. (a) Only 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 23 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q434. Which of the following statements about the PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) Scheme launched in 2024 is/are correct? The scheme will remain in force until 31 March 2026. One of the key aims of PM E-DRIVE is to provide direct subsidies to petrol and diesel vehicles to improve their fuel efficiency. The scheme includes provisions to support the development of EV charging infrastructure. PM E-DRIVE focuses exclusively on private vehicle ownership.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 1, 3 and 4
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) 2 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q435. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the recent Supreme Court developments on bail under the PMLA (Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002) in 2024-25? The Supreme Court has clarified that prolonged incarceration without trial can be a valid ground for granting bail under PMLA-2002, despite the twin conditions under Section 45. In Arvind Kejriwal’s case, the Court ruled that the legality of arrest must also consider the “need and necessity” of arrest, in addition to the standard “reasons to believe” clause. The Court has held that “bail is the exception, jail the rule”, which remains applicable in money laundering cases.

  1. (a) Statements 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) Statements 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) Statements 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) Statement 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 only

Q436. Where was the Leadership Summit 2024, a two-day corporate-academia event centered around the theme 'Grooming Young Talents' held?

  1. (a) Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Technology Mumbai
  3. (c) Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati
  4. (d) Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati

Q437. The Himalayan High Altitude Atmospheric and Climate Research Centre was inaugurated on 8ᵗʰ April 2025 in which district?

  1. (a) Anantnag
  2. (b) Udhampur
  3. (c) Pulwama
  4. (d) Srinagar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Udhampur

Q438. Which summit is scheduled to be held at the Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai, in May 2025?

  1. (a) World Tech India Summit
  2. (b) World Global Business Forum
  3. (c) World Media India Expo
  4. (d) World Audio Visual & Entertainment Summit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) World Audio Visual & Entertainment Summit

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 June 2025 Shift 3 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q439. In the case of 'Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay vs Union of India (November 2024)', the Supreme Court dismissed a plea related to:

  1. (a) Uniform Civil Code for all Indian citizens
  2. (b) reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in jobs and education
  3. (c) constitutional validity of adding ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ to the Preamble
  4. (d) validity of Article 370 and special constitutional provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) constitutional validity of adding ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ to the Preamble

Q440. Which city hosted the 18ᵗʰ Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention in January 2025?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Lucknow
  4. (d) Bhubaneswar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bhubaneswar

Q441. On 15 April 2025, in which city of India STREE Summit 2025 on Women’s Safety and Empowerment was held?

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Ahmedabad
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hyderabad

Q442. Where is the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board, which was established in 2025?

  1. (a) Kochi
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Guntur
  4. (d) Nizamabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nizamabad

Q443. What was the theme for the Republic Day 2025 celebrations in India?

  1. (a) Unity in Diversity
  2. (b) India@75: A Nation Marching Forward
  3. (c) Swarnim Bharat: Virasat Aur Vikas
  4. (d) Celebrating the Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swarnim Bharat: Virasat Aur Vikas

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 June 2025 Shift 1 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q444. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Supreme Court judgement delivered in April 2025 in a case involving the use of Urdu on a municipal signboard in Maharashtra? The Supreme Court overturned the Bombay High Court’s decision that forbade the use of Urdu on municipal signboards. The Court held that language must reflect the religion of the majority in a particular region. The bench recognised Urdu as part of India’s Ganga-Jamuni tehzeeb and criticised prejudice against languages.

  1. (a) Only 3
  2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 3

Q445. Which of the following events was part of the 15ᵗʰ National Voters' Day celebrations held in January 2025?

  1. (a) Introduction of online voter ID application
  2. (b) Announcement of new electoral boundaries
  3. (c) Presentation of best electoral practices awards
  4. (d) Launch of digital voting machines
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Presentation of best electoral practices awards

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q446. In March 2025, what important decision did the Supreme Court of India make regarding disability rights?

  1. (a) It banned all exams for persons with disabilities.
  2. (b) It allowed only private companies to hire persons with disabilities.
  3. (c) It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.
  4. (d) It removed reservations for persons with disabilities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q447. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Supreme Court judgement in 'The State Of Tamil Nadu vs The Governor Of Tamil Nadu' on 8 April 2025? The Supreme Court held that the Governor cannot withhold assent after a bill is re-passed by the legislature. The Court used its powers under Article 142 to deem 10 pending Bills as having received assent. The judgement laid down that the Governor may reserve a re-enacted Bill for Presidential consideration.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 19 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q448. Which of the following statements regarding the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan launched in 2024 is/are correct? The scheme aims for the holistic development of tribal areas through 25 interventions in health, education and livelihood. The scheme benefits only 10 states with scheduled areas, excluding other tribal areas. It was launched by Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar in Jharkhand on 2ⁿᵈ October 2024.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

Q449. Which of the following changes did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 make?

  1. (a) Added Muslim women to boards
  2. (b) Allowed private leasing
  3. (c) Removed audits
  4. (d) Abolished State Waqf boards
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Added Muslim women to boards

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 June 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q450. Which of the following correctly characterises the regulatory and structural aspects of the NPS Vatsalya scheme, as launched in 2024? The scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Contributions under NPS Vatsalya are pooled into a government-managed consolidated fund without individual accounts. The scheme allows a smooth shift to a regular NPS account when the subscriber turns 18 years of age. Upon attaining adulthood, subscribers must compulsorily exit NPS Vatsalya and opt for the Atal Pension Yojana.

  1. (a) Only 2
  2. (b) 1 and 4
  3. (c) 1 and 3
  4. (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 June 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q451. Which Indian states are covered under the CITI-CDRA project as of March 2025?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala
  2. (b) Odisha, West Bengal, Assam
  3. (c) Gujarat, Haryana, Punjab
  4. (d) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 June 2025 Shift 1 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q452. Which of the following is INCORRECT based on the Supreme Court’s ruling in 'Samtola Devi vs The State Of Uttar Pradesh', on 27 March 2025, regarding the ‘Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007’?

  1. (a) Eviction of a child or relative is mandatory in every case of neglect under the Act.
  2. (b) Senior citizens can file for maintenance even after transferring their property to their legal heirs.
  3. (c) The Act does not provide any provision for the eviction of a child or relative.
  4. (d) Tribunals under the Act have the authority to order the eviction of a child or relative if it is deemed necessary for the protection of the senior citizen.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eviction of a child or relative is mandatory in every case of neglect under the Act.

Q453. In October 2024, the Indian government notified rules under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. What was a key objective of this legislation?

  1. (a) To expand the RTI Act to cover private educational institutions
  2. (b) To establish a unified grievance redressal portal for all central ministries
  3. (c) To convert minor offenses under various laws from criminal to civil penalties
  4. (d) To legalise digital signatures for land registration documents
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To convert minor offenses under various laws from criminal to civil penalties

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q454. According to the Supreme Court ruling in 'The State of Madhya Pradesh vs Balveer Singh' (24 February 2025) case, which of the following statements is correct regarding 'child witnesses'?

  1. (a) Courts must reject a child’s testimony if there is any minor inconsistency.
  2. (b) The testimony of a child witness is inadmissible unless corroborated by an adult.
  3. (c) The Evidence Act mandates a minimum age for a person to be a witness in court.
  4. (d) A child’s evidence is admissible if found voluntary, reliable and untutored.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A child’s evidence is admissible if found voluntary, reliable and untutored.

Q455. The Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, was notified by which Ministry of India in April 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. (b) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  3. (c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare
  4. (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q456. Which of the following statements about the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), launched in 2024, is/are correct? NMNF aims to reach 1 crore farmers and cover 7.5 lakh ha. Model Demonstration Farms will be set up only at Agricultural Universities. Natural Farming practices aim to reduce dependency on externally purchased inputs. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) Only 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q457. In the 'Suresh v. State Rep. by Inspector of Police case (March 2025)', what did the Supreme Court rule regarding ‘dying declarations’?

  1. (a) Dying declarations are inadmissible in court.
  2. (b) Suspicious dying declarations require corroborative evidence.
  3. (c) Dying declarations are always reliable.
  4. (d) Dying declarations are sacrosanct and do not require any supporting evidence.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Suspicious dying declarations require corroborative evidence.

Q458. Which of the following is NOT a change of the new Income Tax bill introduced in the Parliament during February 2025?

  1. (a) Reorganisation of sections logically to facilitate ease of reference
  2. (b) Removal of redundant and repetitive provisions for better navigation
  3. (c) Deletion of existing taxation principles, without ensuring continuity and usability
  4. (d) Elimination of intricate language to enhance readability
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Deletion of existing taxation principles, without ensuring continuity and usability

Q459. In 2024, the Government of India replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 by enacting a new law to modernise the telecom sector. What is the name of this new legislation?

  1. (a) Bharat Telecom Services Act, 2023
  2. (b) Information Infrastructure Modernization Act, 2024
  3. (c) Digital Communication Reform Act, 2024
  4. (d) The Telecommunication Act, 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Telecommunication Act, 2023

Q460. In March 2025, India's Parliament passed the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025. What was the primary objective of this legislation?

  1. (a) To establish new maritime boundaries
  2. (b) To regulate inland water transport
  3. (c) To modernise the 169 years old shipping law
  4. (d) To privatise major ports
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To modernise the 169 years old shipping law

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 June 2025 Shift 1 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q461. In February 2025, the Indian government imposed a ban on the manufacture and export of which two opioid drugs due to concerns over their misuse and associated health risks in West African countries?

  1. (a) Tapentadol and Carisoprodol
  2. (b) Oxycodone and Hydrocodone
  3. (c) Codeine and Tramadol
  4. (d) Morphine and Fentanyl
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tapentadol and Carisoprodol

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q462. Which of the following statements regarding the Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme (UNNATI), as highlighted in Rajya Sabha Unstarred Question (answered on 20 December 2024), is/are correct? The total budget outlay for the UNNATI Scheme is ₹10,037 crores, with 60% of the outlay allocated to the North East Region. Capital Investment Incentives in Zone A districts are higher than in Zone B districts. The UNNATI Scheme is effective for 10 years, with an additional 8 years for meeting committed liabilities. The UNNATI Scheme is a Central sector scheme implemented under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.

  1. (a) 1 and 3 Only
  2. (b) 1 Only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d) 2 and 3 Only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 Only

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 June 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q463. Under the PM E-DRIVE Scheme, which of the following vehicle categories are NOT eligible for demand incentives?

  1. (a) Electric trucks with valid scrapping certificates
  2. (b) Electric two-wheelers with advanced batteries
  3. (c) Electric three-wheelers for commercial use
  4. (d) Electric three-wheelers used for personal use
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Electric three-wheelers used for personal use

Q464. Where was the central celebration of Parakram Diwas, held in January 2025, to mark Subhas Chandra Bose's 128ᵗʰ birth anniversary?

  1. (a) Red Fort, New Delhi, Delhi
  2. (b) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, West Bengal
  3. (c) Barabati Fort, Cuttack, Odisha
  4. (d) Netaji Bhawan, Kolkata, West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Barabati Fort, Cuttack, Odisha

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 June 2025 Shift 1 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q465. Which of the following statements about the Delhi High Court’s ruling on the ‘Right to Be Forgotten’ in November 2024 is correct?

  1. (a) The judgement rejected the applicability of the ‘Right to Be Forgotten’ in cases of acquittal or quashed criminal proceedings.
  2. (b) The Court stated that the right to privacy cannot override public interest in matrimonial cases.
  3. (c) The Court permitted the petitioner to approach online platforms and search engines to mask their identities.
  4. (d) The Court ruled that the names of the couple involved in the matrimonial dispute must remain publicly accessible to ensure transparency.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Court permitted the petitioner to approach online platforms and search engines to mask their identities.

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 June 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q466. What is the primary objective of the NPS Vatsalya scheme launched in 2024?

  1. (a) To replace the existing National Pension System (NPS) for all age groups
  2. (b) To offer a savings-cum-pension plan exclusively for minors
  3. (c) To provide old-age pension to senior citizens living in rural areas
  4. (d) To support pension benefits for unorganised sector workers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To offer a savings-cum-pension plan exclusively for minors

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q467. In November 2024, NITI Aayog launched the 'Accelerating Sustainable State Energy Transition (ASSET)' initiative. What is the primary objective of this initiative?

  1. (a) To develop nuclear energy infrastructure across states
  2. (b) To enhance energy efficiency in industrial sectors
  3. (c) To promote electric vehicle adoption in urban areas
  4. (d) To support states in achieving their renewable energy targets
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To support states in achieving their renewable energy targets

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q468. Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's interim order in the Ranveer Allahbadia case (February 2025) is/are correct? The Supreme Court granted interim protection to Allahbadia but harshly criticised his remarks as obscene and vulgar. The Court ruled that Allahbadia was free to travel abroad without any restrictions since the remarks were made behind a paywall.

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Both 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 10 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q469. As of 28 March 2025, approximately how many farmer IDs have been generated under the Digital Agriculture Mission in India?

  1. (a) 4.10 crore
  2. (b) 3.50 crore
  3. (c) 4.85 crore
  4. (d) 1.25 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4.85 crore

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 10 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q470. Which of the following statements about the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), launched in 2024, is/are correct?
1. The total approved outlay of NMNF till 2025-26 is ₹1,000 crore.
2. The mission supports the establishment of Bio-input Resource Centres for providing Natural Farming inputs.

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 2

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 10 June 2025 Shift 3 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q471. In the 2024 Supreme Court case 'Aligarh Muslim University vs Naresh Agarwal (November 2024)', what did the majority of the Court hold regarding the minority status of educational institutions?

  1. (a) Institutions created before 1950 can still be considered minority institutions, even if incorporated by statute.
  2. (b) The majority of the judges (4 out of 7 in opinion) of the bench concluded the Azeez Basha case and violated the AMU's minority status.
  3. (c) An institution must be entirely managed by the minority community to qualify as a minority institution.
  4. (d) Educational institutions established by statute cannot be considered minority institutions under Article 30(1).
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Institutions created before 1950 can still be considered minority institutions, even if incorporated by statute.

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 June 2025 Shift 2 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q472. Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the 'Gorakhnath Sharma vs. State of Chhattisgarh' case, as ruled by the Chhattisgarh High Court in February 2025? The case involved allegations of brutal non-consensual sexual assault by a husband on his wife, leading to her death. The Chhattisgarh High Court convicted the husband and awarded maximum punishment in the case of rape.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Both 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 6 June 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q473. Under the Digital Agriculture Mission launched in 2024, which of the following is/are among the foundational registries of AgriStack?1. Farmers’ Registry2. Village Panchayat Audit Database3. Crop Sown Registry

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) All 1, 2, and 3
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 2 and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Q474. In March 2025, the Indian Parliament passed the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025. Which of the following Acts was specifically repealed by this legislation?

  1. (a) The Emigration Act, 1983
  2. (b) The Foreigners Act, 1946
  3. (c) The National Security Act, 1980
  4. (d) The Citizenship Act, 1955
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Foreigners Act, 1946

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 6 June 2025 Shift 3 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q475. In September 2024, the Uniform Code of Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024 extended its guidelines to which of the following sectors?

  1. (a) Online health consultations
  2. (b) Medical device manufacturers
  3. (c) Veterinary pharmaceuticals
  4. (d) Ayurvedic medicines
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Medical device manufacturers

Q476. Which among the following significant changes was introduced in the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?

  1. (a) Exemption of Waqf properties from legal scrutiny
  2. (b) Privatisation of Waqf properties
  3. (c) Mandating representation of at least two Muslim women on Waqf Boards
  4. (d) Abolition of the Central Waqf Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mandating representation of at least two Muslim women on Waqf Boards

Q477. The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 introduced which significant change to the composition of Waqf Boards?

  1. (a) Privatisation of Waqf properties
  2. (b) Exemption from government audits
  3. (c) Abolition of State Waqf Boards
  4. (d) Inclusion of non-Muslim members
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Inclusion of non-Muslim members

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 5 June 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q478. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Digital Agriculture Mission launched in 2024? It includes the creation of Digital Public Infrastructure such asAgriStackand Comprehensive Soil Fertility Maps.AgriStackis managed solely by the Central Government. The mission seeks to facilitate digital services like credit and insurance to farmers through authenticated data.

  1. (a) Only 2 and 3
  2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1 and 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 5 June 2025 Shift 2 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q479. In 2025, which state launched a groundbreaking initiative aimed at eradicating mother-to-child transmission of HIV, syphilis, and Hepatitis B by 2026?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) West Bengal

Q480. Where did the two-day Chintan Shivir, held on 7-8 March 2025 to discuss preparations for the 2028 and 2036 Olympics, take place?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Bengaluru
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hyderabad

Q481. What was the theme of the 18ᵗʰ Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention held in January 2025?

  1. (a) Redefining Engagement with the Indian Diaspora
  2. (b) Diaspora's contribution to a Viksit Bharat
  3. (c) Strengthening Bonds: The Indian Diaspora and India@75
  4. (d) Engaging Diaspora for a Self-Reliant India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Diaspora's contribution to a Viksit Bharat

Q482. Who launched ‘Create in India Challenge-Season One’ in New Delhi on 22 August 2024, the run-up to the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit?

  1. (a) Nitin Gadkari
  2. (b) Amit Shah
  3. (c) Ashwini Vaishnaw
  4. (d) Narendra Modi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ashwini Vaishnaw

Answer: Option 3 — Ashwini Vaishnaw
Union Minister of Information & Broadcasting, Ashwini Vaishnaw, launched the 'Create in India Challenge – Season One' in New Delhi on 22 August 2024.
Revision note — Create in India Challenge and WAVES
• The challenge (25 contests) was launched in the run-up to WAVES — World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit.
• Aim: build India as a global hub for content creation — animation, gaming, film, music, comics, VFX, AR/VR.
• WAVES 2025 (first edition) was held at Jio World Centre, Mumbai, 1–4 May 2025, inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi.
• Organised by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting.
• Ashwini Vaishnaw also holds Railways and Electronics & IT.
The same minister holds Railways, I&B and MeitY — a favourite hook in Railway papers.
RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 17 December 2024 Shift 1 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q483. The National Health Authority (NHA) and _________ signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on 11^(th) September. The partnership aims to revolutionise artificial intelligence in health research with an innovative data platform.

  1. (a) IIT Kanpur
  2. (b) IIT Delhi
  3. (c) IIT Kharagpur
  4. (d) IIT Madras
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IIT Kanpur

Answer: Option 1 — IIT Kanpur
On 11 September 2024, the National Health Authority (NHA) signed an MoU with IIT Kanpur.
The aim is a data platform and digital public goods for AI in healthcare research.
Revision note — National Health Authority (NHA)
• NHA is the apex body that runs Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
• It also runs the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), launched on 27 September 2021.
• NHA works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• AB PM-JAY gives a health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year; it was launched on 23 September 2018 from Ranchi.
• Under ABDM each citizen can get an ABHA number (Ayushman Bharat Health Account).
Also asked from this topic: the scheme West Bengal was set to implement in 2026 as the 36th State/UT to join (AB PM-JAY).
RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 17 December 2024 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q484. Which of the following Ministries launched the electric mobility promotion scheme in March 2024 to provide short term support to Electric Vehicles?

  1. (a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  2. (b) Ministry of Heavy Industries
  3. (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  4. (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Heavy Industries

Answer: Option 2 — Ministry of Heavy Industries
The Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024 was announced in March 2024 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI).
It was a short-term scheme to keep EV demand going after FAME-II ended on 31 March 2024.
Revision note — Electric vehicle schemes of India
• EMPS 2024: outlay ₹500 crore, for April–July 2024; later extended to September 2024.
• It gave subsidy for electric two-wheelers (e-2W) and electric three-wheelers (e-3W).
• FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles): Phase I from 2015, Phase II from 2019 — also under MHI.
• PM E-DRIVE (September 2024, outlay ₹10,900 crore) took over from EMPS for e-2W, e-3W, e-buses, e-ambulances, e-trucks and charging stations.
• PLI for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) battery storage and PLI for Automobile and Auto Components are also run by MHI.
Do not mix these up
• Heavy Industries vs Road Transport — MoRTH handles roads, vehicle registration and rules; EV subsidy schemes sit with MHI.
Also asked from this topic: the 2024 EV scheme with a ₹10,900 crore outlay that subsidises e-2W, e-3W, e-buses and charging infrastructure (PM E-DRIVE).
RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 December 2024 Shift 1 · Health policy and programmes - current

Q485. As of 30 September 2024, how many Jan Aushadhi Kendras have been established by the Government of India across the country?

  1. (a) 13,822
  2. (b) 14,822
  3. (c) 12,822
  4. (d) 11,822
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 13,822

Answer: Option 1 — 13,822
By 30 September 2024, 13,822 Jan Aushadhi Kendras were functioning across India under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
Revision note — Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana
• Started in 2008 as Jan Aushadhi; relaunched as PMBJP in 2015–16.
• Run by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
• Implementing agency: Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI).
• Sells quality generic medicines at 50%–90% below branded prices.
• Jan Aushadhi Diwas is observed on 7 March.
• Target: 25,000 Kendras by March 2027.
• As of 2026: the network crossed 15,000 Kendras in March 2025.
Also asked from this topic: the day celebrated to promote generic medicines (Jan Aushadhi Diwas, 7 March).
RRB JE CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 December 2024 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q486. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the PM Vishwakarma Yojana?1) The PM Vishwakarma Yojana was launched by the Hon'ble Prime Minister on 17 September 2023.2) Scheme aims to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.3) The Scheme components include recognition through PM Vishwakarma Certificate and ID Card, Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Credit Support, Incentive for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) 3 only
  3. (c) 2 only
  4. (d) 1 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
PM Vishwakarma was launched by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2023 (Vishwakarma Jayanti).
It gives end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
Revision note — PM Vishwakarma scheme
• Nodal ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME); a Central Sector scheme.
• Covers 18 traditional trades — carpenter, blacksmith, potter, goldsmith, cobbler, barber, tailor, mason and others.
• Recognition through the PM Vishwakarma Certificate and ID Card.
• Skill upgradation with a stipend of ₹500 per day, and a toolkit incentive of up to ₹15,000.
• Collateral-free credit of up to ₹3 lakh in two tranches (₹1 lakh and ₹2 lakh) at a concessional 5% interest.
• Also gives an incentive for digital transactions and marketing support.
• Eligible artisans must be at least 18 years old.
Also asked from this topic: the ministry that runs PM Vishwakarma (MSME); the number of trades covered (18); the group it supports (traditional artisans and craftspeople).
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