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National Affairs and Government Initiatives PYQs – Current Affairs, SSC & Railway

486 National Affairs and Government Initiatives (Current Affairs) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions – page 3 of 5.

📚 486 questionsSSC 129 · Railway 357
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SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q201. Which ministry launched the 'Green Hydrogen Certification
Scheme of India' (GHCI) in April 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  2. (b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  3. (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  4. (d) Ministry of Power
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Correct Answer: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy — Option (b)
The Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI) was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in April 2025. The GHCI is designed to provide a credible and transparent certification framework for green hydrogen produced in India — verifying that the hydrogen meets the required emissions threshold (greenhouse gas emissions ≤ 2 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen) to be classified as 'green'. The scheme supports India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, which aims to make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen, with a target of 5 million metric tonnes of green hydrogen production by 2030.
Option (a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas — Incorrect: This ministry handles fossil fuel-based petroleum and gas; the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme falls under MNRE, not the petroleum ministry.
Option (c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change — Incorrect: While this ministry deals with climate-related matters, the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme specifically falls under the MNRE.
Option (d) Ministry of Power — Incorrect: The Ministry of Power deals with electricity generation and distribution; the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q202. In November 2024, who launched the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat'
(Child Marriage Free India) campaign?

  1. (a) Smriti Irani
  2. (b) Amit Shah
  3. (c) Narendra Modi
  4. (d) Annapurna Devi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Annapurna Devi

Correct Answer: Annapurna Devi — Option (d)
Annapurna Devi, Union Minister for Women and Child Development, launched the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' (Child Marriage Free India) campaign in November 2024. The campaign was launched with the aim of making India free from the social evil of child marriage. It involved awareness drives, community mobilisation , and engagement with state governments, NGOs, and local bodies to prevent child marriages across India. The initiative aligned with the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 and India's commitment to Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 5.3 — eliminating child marriage by 2030.
Option (a) Smriti Irani — Incorrect: Smriti Irani served as Union Minister for Women and Child Development in an earlier government; the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was launched by Annapurna Devi in November 2024.
Option (b) Amit Shah — Incorrect: Amit Shah is the Union Home Minister ; the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was launched by the Women and Child Development Minister Annapurna Devi.
Option (c) Narendra Modi — Incorrect: PM Narendra Modi has championed various social welfare programmes , but the 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign was specifically launched by Minister Annapurna Devi.
SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 3 · Policies, laws and bills

Q203. In _____ 2025, the Cabinet approved India's National Sports Policy 2025.

  1. (a) January
  2. (b) July
  3. (c) April
  4. (d) May
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) July

Correct Answer: July — Option (b)
In July 2025, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved India's National Sports Policy 2025. The policy aims to transform India into a global sporting powerhouse by 2047 (Viksit Bharat). Key objectives include: increasing India's performance in international competitions (especially Olympics), developing grassroots sports infrastructure, creating a talent identification system, supporting athletes through the entire sporting lifecycle, promoting sports as a career, and leveraging sports for national development, health, and unity. The policy replaced the earlier National Sports Policy of 2001.
Option (a) January — Incorrect: The National Sports Policy 2025 was not approved in January 2025; it was approved in July 2025.
Option (c) April — Incorrect: The Cabinet approval of the National Sports Policy 2025 came in July, not April 2025.
Option (d) May — Incorrect: The National Sports Policy 2025 was approved by the Cabinet in July 2025, not May.
SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q204. The TALASH initiative was started in July 2025. The full form of TALASH is _____.

  1. (a) Tribal Access, Leadership and Skill Hub
  2. (b) Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self Esteem Hub
  3. (c) Tribal Advancement and Learning Support Hub
  4. (d) Tribal Awareness, Learning and Social Empowerment Hub
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self Esteem Hub

Correct Answer: Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self Esteem Hub — Option (b)
TALASH stands for Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self Esteem Hub. The TALASH initiative was launched in July 2025 as part of the Government of India's efforts to empower tribal youth and communities. The programme focuses on identifying aptitude and potential among tribal students and youth, developing life skills necessary for their overall development and economic empowerment, and building self-esteem and confidence. TALASH aims to bridge the gap between tribal communities and mainstream opportunities in education, employment, and entrepreneurship.
Option (a) Tribal Access, Leadership and Skill Hub — Incorrect: This is not the correct full form of TALASH; the correct expansion begins with 'Tribal Aptitude'.
Option (c) Tribal Advancement and Learning Support Hub — Incorrect: This is not the correct full form of TALASH.
Option (d) Tribal Awareness, Learning and Social Empowerment Hub — Incorrect: This is not the correct full form of TALASH; the correct full form is Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self Esteem Hub.
SSC GD 2026 – 9 May 2026 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q205. What is the name of the initiative started by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in August 2025 to connect school students with science?

  1. (a) ICMR-SHINE
  2. (b) ICMR-EDUCATE
  3. (c) ICMR-INSPIRE
  4. (d) ICMR-DISCOVER
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ICMR-SHINE

Correct Answer: ICMR-SHINE — Option (a)
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) launched the ICMR-SHINE initiative in August 2025 to connect school students with science and biomedical research. SHINE stands for Students' Hub for Innovation and Excellence (or a similar expansion). The initiative aims to inspire the next generation of scientists and researchers by exposing school students to cutting-edge medical research, providing mentorship from ICMR scientists, organising science camps and laboratory visits, and encouraging scientific thinking and innovation from an early age. ICMR is India's apex body for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
Option (b) ICMR-EDUCATE — Incorrect: ICMR-EDUCATE was not the initiative launched in August 2025 for connecting school students with science; it was ICMR-SHINE.
Option (c) ICMR-INSPIRE — Incorrect: INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) is a programme of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), not ICMR. ICMR's initiative was ICMR-SHINE.
Option (d) ICMR-DISCOVER — Incorrect: ICMR-DISCOVER was not the initiative launched by ICMR in August 2025 for school students; the correct initiative is ICMR-SHINE.
SSC GD 2026 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q206. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan targets how many tribal villages?

  1. (a) 63,843
  2. (b) 78,569
  3. (c) 58,475
  4. (d) 85,654
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 63,843

Correct Answer: 63,843 — Option (a)
The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA) was launched on 2 October 2024 (Gandhi Jayanti) by PM Narendra Modi, named after Birsa Munda (who is revered as 'Dharti Aaba' — Father of the Earth). The scheme targets 63,843 tribal villages across 30 states/UTs with a total outlay of ₹79,156 crore. It aims to provide saturation coverage of infrastructure and services (roads, housing, clean water, electricity, healthcare, education, mobile connectivity) in villages with predominantly Scheduled Tribe populations. The scheme covers approximately 5.5 crore tribal beneficiaries.
Option (b) 78,569 — Incorrect: The correct number of tribal villages targeted under Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan is 63,843, not 78,569.
Option (c) 58,475 — Incorrect: 58,475 is not the correct figure; the scheme targets 63,843 tribal villages.
Option (d) 85,654 — Incorrect: 85,654 is not the number targeted; the correct figure is 63,843 villages.
SSC GD 2026 – 8 May 2026 Shift 1 · National events and launches

Q207. Where has the Government of India launched the 5th Marine Census at the 'Coastal State Fisheries Conference 2025'?

  1. (a) Kolkata
  2. (b) Cuttack
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Mumbai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mumbai

Correct Answer: Mumbai — Option (d)
The Government of India launched the 5th Marine Census at the Coastal State Fisheries Conference 2025 held in Mumbai. The Marine Census is conducted by the Fishery Survey of India (FSI) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. The Marine Census aims to provide comprehensive data on marine fisheries resources, fishing vessels, fishing communities, and infrastructure along India's coastline. India has a coastline of approximately 8,118 km, and the marine fisheries sector is vital for food security and livelihood of millions of coastal communities.
Option (a) Kolkata — Incorrect: Kolkata is not a coastal city on the marine fisheries front for this launch; the Coastal State Fisheries Conference 2025 and the 5th Marine Census launch was in Mumbai.
Option (b) Cuttack — Incorrect: Cuttack is an inland city in Odisha; the 5th Marine Census was launched in Mumbai.
Option (c) Chennai — Incorrect: Chennai is a major coastal city, but the 5th Marine Census was launched at the conference held in Mumbai.

Q208. Which national statistical organization is being changed by the Indian government's September 2025 draft bill ahead of its centenary?

  1. (a) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)
  2. (b) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
  3. (c) Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
  4. (d) Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

Topic:Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) Draft Bill 2025
In September 2025, the Indian government introduced a draft bill to restructure ISI ahead of its centenary (100 years) in 2031.
The bill proposes changes in ISI's governance structure and administrative framework.
ISI was established in 1931 by Professor P.C. Mahalanobis in Kolkata.
Answer: Option 1 → Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

Q209. Which rules define the process of identification, determination, and remediation of contaminated sites?

  1. (a) Air Quality Standards Rules, 2025
  2. (b) Urban Wetland Restoration Rules, 2025
  3. (c) Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025
  4. (d) Green Industrial Policy Rules, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025

Topic:Environmental Legislation 2025
TheEnvironment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025specifically address:
1. Identification of contaminated sites
2. Determination of contamination levels
3. Remediation procedures and standards
These rules provide framework for managing polluted land and industrial sites.
Answer: Option 3 → Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025
SSC GD 2026 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · National events and launches

Q210. The 5th anniversary of the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan in 2025 was organised in which month?

  1. (a) March
  2. (b) April
  3. (c) June
  4. (d) August
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) August

Correct Answer: August — Option (d)
The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (NMBA) was launched on 15 August 2020 by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, on India's Independence Day. Therefore, its 5th anniversary was celebrated in August 2025. The campaign targets identified vulnerable districts across India and works through community outreach, awareness programmes , treatment, and rehabilitation to address drug abuse. The programme focuses on de-addiction, awareness among youth, and strengthening of treatment facilities.
Option (a) March — Incorrect: The NMBA was launched on 15 August 2020; its anniversaries are in August, not March.
Option (b) April — Incorrect: April is not the launch month of NMBA; its 5th anniversary was in August 2025.
Option (c) June — Incorrect: The NMBA anniversary falls in August (its launch date was 15 August 2020), not June.
SSC GD 2026 – 7 May 2026 Shift 3 · Policies, laws and bills

Q211. The Union Minister of Home Affairs and Cooperation unveiled
the National Cooperation Policy 2025 in New Delhi in _____ 2025.

  1. (a) January
  2. (b) July
  3. (c) April
  4. (d) May
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) July

Correct Answer: July — Option (b)
The National Cooperation Policy 2025 was unveiled by Union Minister of Home Affairs and Cooperation Amit Shah in New Delhi in July 2025. The policy aims to strengthen the cooperative sector in India, promote cooperative federalism, and align the cooperative movement with India's development goals under the vision of ' Sahakar se Samridhi' (Prosperity through Cooperation). The Ministry of Cooperation was established in 2021 under Amit Shah to give a new impetus to the cooperative sector in India.
Option (a) January — Incorrect: The National Cooperation Policy 2025 was unveiled in July 2025, not January.
Option (c) April — Incorrect: The policy was unveiled in July 2025, not April.
Option (d) May — Incorrect: The National Cooperation Policy 2025 was unveiled in July 2025, not May.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 1 · National events and launches

Q212. In November 2025, PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police in which city of Chhattisgarh?

  1. (a) Bilaspur
  2. (b) Korba
  3. (c) Bhilai
  4. (d) Raipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Raipur

60th All India DGP/IGP Conference - November 2025
Event: PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police.
Location: The conference was held inRaipur, Chhattisgarh.
Key Point: Raipur is the capital city of Chhattisgarh.
Answer: Option 4 → Raipur
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 1 · National events and launches

Q213. Who presided over the National Level Conclave of Ministers of States/UTs for Minority Welfare held on 13 September 2025, at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi?

  1. (a) George Kurian
  2. (b) Om Prakash Rajbhar
  3. (c) Kiren Rijiju
  4. (d) Md. Zama Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kiren Rijiju

National Level Conclave of Ministers - September 13, 2025
Event: Conclave for Minority Welfare
Venue: Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi
Kiren Rijiju- Union Minister for Minority Affairs
He presided over this national-level ministerial conclave.
The conclave focused on welfare schemes and policies for minority communities across states and UTs.
Answer: Option 3 → Kiren Rijiju
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · National events and launches

Q214. In October 2025, India's Society of Association Executives (SAE) officially launched in which of the following cities?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Patna
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Ahmedabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bengaluru

Topic: Current Affairs - October 2025
India's Society of Association Executives (SAE) was officially launched inBengaluruin October 2025.
SAE is a professional body for association management professionals in India.
Bengaluru, being India's tech and startup hub, was chosen as the launch city.
Answer: Option 3 → Bengaluru
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 – 7 May 2026 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q215. In October 2025, the Ministry of Minority Affairs announced support to universities to set up Centres of Excellence to promote heritage and classical languages. This initiative was taken under which scheme?

  1. (a) National Minorities Development Finance Corporation (NMDFC)
  2. (b) Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)
  4. (d) Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)

Topic: Ministry of Minority Affairs Scheme
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)is a central sector scheme
for socio-economic development of minority communities.
In October 2025, under PMJVK, support was announced to universities
to establishCentres of Excellencefor promoting heritage and classical languages.
Other schemes: PM VIKAS (infrastructure), NMDFC (finance), MANF (fellowships).
Answer: Option 3 → Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK)
SSC GD 2026 – 4 May 2026 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q216. The Rs. 6000 crores allocated for One Nation One Subscription initiative ensures smooth implementation of ONOS from 1st January 2025 to 31st December _____.

  1. (a) 2032
  2. (b) 2030
  3. (c) 2029
  4. (d) 2027
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2027

Correct Answer: 2027 — Option (d)
The One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) initiative was approved by the Union Cabinet of India with an allocation of Rs. 6000 crores. The scheme covers the period from 1st January 2025 to 31st December 2027. Under this initiative, all government-funded higher education institutions and research laboratories across India will have access to research articles and journals from major international publishers.
Option (a) 2032 — Incorrect: The ONOS scheme is approved only up to 2027, not 2032.
Option (b) 2030 — Incorrect: The scheme ends in 2027, not 2030.
Option (c) 2029 — Incorrect: The correct end year is 2027, not 2029.
SSC GD 2026 – 30 April 2026 Shift 2 · Policies, laws and bills

Q217. According to a government notification for abolition of the 'No-Detention Policy' for Classes 5 and 8, if students fail the annual exam, they will be given extra coaching and an opportunity to re-appear within _____ months of declaration of results.

  1. (a) 2
  2. (b) 5
  3. (c) 6
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2

Correct Answer: 2 months — Option (a)
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019, abolished the No-Detention Policy for Classes 5 and 8. According to the government notification, students who fail the annual examination will be given additional coaching and an opportunity to re-appear in the examination within 2 months of declaration of results. If they fail the re-examination as well, they may be detained in the same class.
Option (b) 5 months — Incorrect: The specified period is 2 months, not 5.
Option (c) 6 months — Incorrect: The period is 2 months, not 6.
Option (d) 4 months — Incorrect: The period is 2 months, not 4.
SSC GD 2026 – 29 April 2026 Shift 2 · Policies, laws and bills

Q218. In _____, the Centre officially announced the scrapping of the 'No-Detention Policy' for Classes 5 and 8 in central government-run schools?

  1. (a) November 2024
  2. (b) December 2024
  3. (c) January 2025
  4. (d) October 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) December 2024

Correct Answer: December 2024 — Option (b)
In December 2024, the Central Government of India officially announced the scrapping of the 'No-Detention Policy' for Classes 5 and 8 in central government-run schools ( Kendriya Vidyalayas , Navodaya Vidyalayas , and other centrally administered schools). Key facts about the No-Detention Policy: The No-Detention Policy was introduced under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which mandated that no student should be held back or expelled from school up to Class 8; The policy was aimed at reducing dropout rates by eliminating the fear of failing; However, concerns grew about declining academic standards and students being promoted without basic competency; The amendment: In 2019, Parliament amended the RTE Act to allow States/UTs to decide whether to implement detention from Classes 5 and 8; In December 2024, the Centre formally scrapped the No-Detention Policy for its own schools, allowing students who fail the board/year-end examination even after re-examination to be detained.
Option (a) November 2024 — Incorrect: The official announcement of scrapping the No-Detention Policy for central government schools was made in December 2024, not November 2024.
Option (c) January 2025 — Incorrect: The announcement was made in December 2024, not January 2025; the policy change was officially declared in the last month of 2024.
Option (d) October 2024 — Incorrect: The Centre's official announcement to scrap the No-Detention Policy for Classes 5 and 8 in central schools was made in December 2024, not October 2024.

Q219. Under which Act were the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, issued on 29-8-2025?

  1. (a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  2. (b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
  3. (c) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
  4. (d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Topic: Environment Audit Rules, 2025
The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 were notified on 29th August 2025.
These rules were issued under theEnvironment (Protection) Act, 1986.
The EPA 1986 is the umbrella legislation that empowers the Central Government to take measures for environmental protection and issue rules for environmental audits.
Answer: Option 4 → Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Q220. What does the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, aim to establish across India?

  1. (a) A water conservation campaign
  2. (b) A framework for environmental accountability
  3. (c) A new environmental tax system
  4. (d) A national reforestation program
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A framework for environmental accountability

Environment Audit Rules, 2025
Purpose: Establish systematic environmental auditing mechanism
Key Features:
• Creates accountability framework for environmental compliance
• Ensures monitoring of environmental standards
• Promotes transparency in environmental management
Answer: Option 2 → A framework for environmental accountability

Q221. In December 2025, which organization hosted the national stakeholder consultation on the High Seas Treaty (BBNJ) in Kochi, India?

  1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. (b) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
  3. (c) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
  4. (d) Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute

Topic: High Seas Treaty (BBNJ) Consultation - December 2025
Key Facts:
1.CMFRI(Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute) hosted the national stakeholder consultation on theHigh Seas Treaty (BBNJ)inKochi, Indiain December 2025.
2.BBNJ= Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction Treaty, also known as theHigh Seas Treaty.
3. CMFRI is under ICAR and is India's premier marine fisheries research organization located in Kochi, Kerala.
Answer: Option 2 → Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute

Q222. With which State did the Department of Biotechnology sign the first Centre–State Memorandum of Understanding under the BioE3 Policy in 2025 to promote high-performance biomanufacturing?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Topic: BioE3 Policy 2025 - Centre-State MoU
BioE3 Policy:Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment
First MoU signed:Department of Biotechnology signed the first Centre-State MoU withAssamin 2025
Purpose:To promote high-performance biomanufacturing and strengthen biotechnology ecosystem
Answer: Option 1 → Assam

Q223. Which of the following number series was prescribed by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) on 16 December 2025, for IRDAI-regulated entities to use for consumer service and transactional calls, to be implemented by 15 February 2026?

  1. (a) 1600 series
  2. (b) 1900 series
  3. (c) 1500 series
  4. (d) 1400 series
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1600 series

Topic: TRAI Regulation for IRDAI Entities
Key Facts:
TRAI prescribed1600 seriesnumbers on 16 Dec 2025.
Purpose: Consumer service and transactional calls by IRDAI-regulated entities (insurance companies).
Implementation deadline:15 February 2026.
Answer: Option 1 → 1600 series

Q224. During which nationwide event, observed in 2025, did the Union Minister of Science and Technology emphasize inclusive participation in India’s biotechnology mission and the goal of achieving a $300 billion bioeconomy by 2030?

  1. (a) Global Biotech Innovation and Sustainability Summit
  2. (b) World Bioproduct Day – The BioE3 Way
  3. (c) National Biotechnology Awareness Week Programme
  4. (d) India Bioeconomy Vision 2030 Outreach Event
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Bioproduct Day – The BioE3 Way

Event Context:
In 2025, Union Minister of Science and Technology addressedWorld Bioproduct Day – The BioE3 Way.
Key highlights of the event:
• Emphasizedinclusive participationin India's biotechnology mission
• Announced goal of achieving$300 billion bioeconomy by 2030
• BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) policy focus
This nationwide event promoted sustainable bioproducts and biotechnology innovation.
Answer: Option 2 → World Bioproduct Day – The BioE3 Way
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 24 March 2026 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q225. When was the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyaan (PMJUGA) started?

  1. (a) 2024
  2. (b) 2022
  3. (c) 2023
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2024

Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyaan (PM-JUGA)
Launch Date:October 2, 2024
Launched by PM Modi on Gandhi Jayanti.
Objective: Holistic development of tribal villages.
Covers 63,000+ villages across India.
Answer: Option 1 → 2024

Q226. What was the theme of the Emerging Science, Technology, and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) held in November 2025?

  1. (a) Science and Technology for Inclusive Growth
  2. (b) Emerging Technologies for a Better Tomorrow
  3. (c) Innovating for Sustainable Development
  4. (d) Imagine, Innovate, Inspire for Viksit Bharat 2047
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Science and Technology for Inclusive Growth

Topic:ESTIC November 2025
ESTIC (Emerging Science, Technology, and Innovation Conclave) was held in November 2025.
The theme focused on leveraging science and technology for inclusive growth across all sections of society.
This aligns with India's vision of equitable development and technological advancement.
Answer: Option 1 → Science and Technology for Inclusive Growth

Q227. On 21 December 2025, President Droupadi Murmu approved the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB–G RAM G) Bill, 2025, enhancing rural wage employment guarantee to which of the following days in a financial year?

  1. (a) 100 days
  2. (b) 150 days
  3. (c) 125 days
  4. (d) 175 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 125 days

VB-GRAM Bill, 2025 — Rural Employment Guarantee
Key Facts:
• President Droupadi Murmu approved on21 December 2025
• Full Name:Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)
• Enhanced rural wage employment guarantee from 100 days to125 days
• Replaces MGNREGA provisions for financial year
Answer: Option 3 → 125 days

Q228. Under the Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity Target Rules, 2025, if an obligated entity fails to meet targets, then environmental compensation is linked to carbon credit prices. The compensation for shortfall is:

  1. (a) Twice the average traded price of carbon credit certificates
  2. (b) A fixed penalty per tonne decided by SPCBs
  3. (c) Three times the average traded price of carbon credit certificates
  4. (d) Equal to the average traded price of carbon c redit certificates
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Twice the average traded price of carbon credit certificates

Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity Target Rules, 2025
Key Provision: Environmental Compensation for Non-Compliance
When obligated entities fail to meet emission intensity targets, they must pay environmental compensation.
Compensation Formula:2 × Average Traded Priceof Carbon Credit Certificates
This penalty mechanism ensures entities have strong financial incentive to meet targets rather than pay compensation.
The doubled rate acts as deterrent while linking penalty to market-based carbon pricing.
Answer: Option 1 → Twice the average traded price of carbon credit certificates

Q229. Which Supreme Court case, decided in April 2025, led to the 16th Presidential Reference under Article 143 concerning timelines for assent to State Bills?

  1. (a) Kaiser-I-Hind Pvt. Ltd. vs National Textile Corporation
  2. (b) S.R. Bommai vs Union of India
  3. (c) State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Nabam Rebia vs Deputy Speaker, Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu

Topic: Constitutional Law - Presidential Reference
TheState of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Naducase (April 2025) dealt with the Governor's delay in giving assent to State Bills.
This landmark judgment raised constitutional questions about timelines for gubernatorial assent under Article 200.
The Supreme Court's decision led to the16th Presidential Reference under Article 143, seeking the President's opinion on fixing time limits for assent to State legislation.
This reference addressed the constitutional ambiguity regarding the Governor's discretionary powers in withholding assent.
Answer: Option 3 → State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu

Q230. In 2025, the Global AI Conclave, reinforcing India’s role as a thought leader in responsible artificial intelligence, was hosted in which city?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Bengaluru
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chennai

Global AI Conclave 2025
Event: Global AI Conclave focusing on responsible AI
Host City:Chennai
Significance: Reinforced India's position as a thought
leader in responsible artificial intelligence development
Answer: Option 3 → Chennai

Q231. Which Bill, assented to by the President of India in 2025, consolidates civil nuclear laws and allows private sector participation?

  1. (a) Civil Nuclear Governance and Private Sector Participation Framework Bill
  2. (b) National Policy for Nuclear Energy Expansion with Private Participation Bill
  3. (c) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill
  4. (d) Atomic Energy Reform and Private Participation in Nuclear Power Bill
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill

Topic:Recent Legislative Development in Nuclear Energy Sector
SHANTI Bill, 2025- Key Features:
1. Full form: Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India
2. Purpose: Consolidates existing civil nuclear laws in India
3. Major reform: Opens nuclear power sector to private participation for first time
4. Presidential assent received in 2025
Answer: Option 3 → Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Bill

Q232. Which of the following is a legislative reform aimed at modernizing India’s aviation sector by re-enacting the Aircraft Act, 1934, in alignment with contemporary needs and global standards?

  1. (a) Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Act, 2023
  2. (b) The Carriage by Air (Amendment) Act, 2022
  3. (c) Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
  4. (d) Aircraft (Security) Rules, 2020 & Amendments (2022)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024

Topic:Aviation Sector Legislative Reforms in India
Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024is the new aviation law that replaces the outdated Aircraft Act, 1934.
Key Features:
• Modernizes aviation regulations to align with global standards
• Addresses contemporary aviation needs and safety requirements
• Comprehensive re-enactment rather than amendment
Other Options:
Option 1: Deals with aircraft financing and security interests
Option 2: Amends international air carriage liability provisions
Option 4: Focuses on security rules, not comprehensive reform
Answer: Option 3 → Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 1 · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q233. The Supreme Court’s order dated 29 December 2025 was passed in a suo motu matter titled “In Re: Definition of ____ Hills and Ranges and Ancillary Issues.” Which hill range is being referred to?

  1. (a) Shivalik Hills
  2. (b) Aravalli Hills and Ranges
  3. (c) Vindhya Range
  4. (d) Satpura Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aravalli Hills and Ranges

The Supreme Court passed an order on29 December 2025in a suo motu matter.
Case Title:In Re: Definition of Aravalli Hills and Ranges and Ancillary Issues
This case deals with environmental protection and demarcation of theAravalli Hills.
The Aravalli range is crucial for ecological balance in NCR region.
Answer: Option 2 → Aravalli Hills and Ranges
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 19 March 2026 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q234. On which occasion in 2024 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA)?

  1. (a) Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) World Environment Day
  3. (c) Republic Day
  4. (d) Independence Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi

Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA)
Launched by: PM Narendra Modi in 2024
Occasion:Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi (October 2, 2024)
Purpose: Holistic development of tribal villages across India
Focus: Improving infrastructure, healthcare, education in tribal areas
Answer: Option 1 → Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi

Q235. Who is officially authorized to conduct environment audits under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025?

  1. (a) Registered Environment Auditor
  2. (b) Environment Audit Designated Agency
  3. (c) Certified Environment Auditor
  4. (d) Environmental Consultant
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Registered Environment Auditor

Environment Audit Rules, 2025
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, only aRegistered Environment Auditoris officially authorized to conduct environment audits.
Key Points:
• Registration is mandatory with the designated authority
• Auditors must meet prescribed qualifications and experience
• Only registered professionals can legally conduct audits
Answer: Option 1 → Registered Environment Auditor
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q236. In which year did the Union Cabinet approve the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme, named as ‘Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana’?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2021
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2025

Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by Union Cabinet in2025.
Aims to promote employment generation and formalization of jobs.
Part of government's initiative for developed India (Viksit Bharat) vision.
Answer: Option 4 → 2025
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 18 March 2026 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q237. Which significant milestone did the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announce on World Environment Day 2025 regarding pollution?

  1. (a) Ban on all single-use plastics nationwide
  2. (b) Launch of “One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution”
  3. (c) Closure of coal plants
  4. (d) Elimination of non-attainment cities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Launch of “One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution”

World Environment Day 2025 Announcement
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced a major initiative on World Environment Day 2025.
Key Initiative:
Launch of"One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution"campaign to tackle plastic waste across India.
This mission aims to unite the nation in combating plastic pollution through coordinated efforts.
Answer: Option 2 → Launch of "One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution"

Q238. In December 2025, which existing Act does the Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB—G RAM G) Bill, 2025 seek to replace?

  1. (a) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999
  2. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
  3. (c) Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956
  4. (d) Insurance Act, 1938
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

VB-GRAMG Bill, 2025
The Viksit Bharat—Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025 is introduced to replace the existing rural employment guarantee scheme.
It seeks to replaceMGNREGA, 2005(Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act).
The new bill aims to modernize rural employment programs under the Viksit Bharat vision.
Answer: Option 2 → Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

Q239. The revised methodology from 2025 for calculating G̲r̲e̲e̲n ̲ ̲ C̲r̲e̲d̲i̲t ̲ for tree plantation requires certain thresholds before a claim can be submitted. Which is the c̲o̲r̲r̲e̲c̲t ̲ ̲ e̲l̲i̲g̲i̲b̲i̲l̲i̲t̲y ̲ ̲ p̲a̲i̲r ̲?

  1. (a) 5 years of restoration + 60% canopy density
  2. (b) 7 years of restoration + 40% canopy density
  3. (c) 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density
  4. (d) 3 years of restoration + 30% canopy density
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density

The revised methodology for Green Credit requires:
•Minimum 5 years of restoration/maintenance
•Minimum 40% canopy densityachieved
These thresholds ensure sustainable afforestation
before credits can be claimed under the programme .
Answer: Option 3 → 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density

Q240. In December 2025, the PNGRB tariff revamp was expected to cut city gas distribution (CGD) transport costs by how much (in ₹) annually?

  1. (a) 500 crore
  2. (b) 1,000 crore
  3. (c) 750 crore
  4. (d) 2,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1,000 crore

Topic:PNGRB Tariff Revamp (December 2025)
PNGRB = Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
Key Facts:
• Tariff revamp aimed at reducing CGD transport costs
• Expected annual savings:₹1,000 crore
• Benefits city gas distribution companies
Answer: Option 2 → 1,000 crore

Q241. After the Government merged 29 labour laws into four Labour Codes in November 2025, the provision permitting women to work in all establishments including night shifts falls under which of the following Codes?

  1. (a) The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
  2. (b) The Industrial Relations Code, 2020
  3. (c) The Code on Wages, 2019
  4. (d) The Code on Social Security, 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020

Four Labour Codes (2019-2020):
1. Code on Wages, 2019 - minimum wages, payment
2. Industrial Relations Code, 2020 - unions, disputes
3. Social Security Code, 2020 - PF, ESI, gratuity
4.Occupational Safety, Health & Working Conditions Code, 2020
Key Provision:
Women's night shift work (with safety measures) falls under
OSH Code, 2020- covers working conditions, safety norms.
Answer: Option 1 → The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020

Q242. In 2025, which Indian High Court issued the pioneering 'Policy Regarding the Use of AI Tools in District Judiciary', becoming the first in the country to frame comprehensive guidelines for artificial intelligence (AI) use in judicial work?

  1. (a) Delhi High Court
  2. (b) Kerala High Court
  3. (c) Madras High Court
  4. (d) Bombay High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala High Court

The correct answer isKerala High Court.
In 2025, the Kerala High Court issued the"Policy Regarding the Use of AI Tools in District Judiciary", becoming thefirst High Court in Indiato frame a comprehensive and binding policy governing the use of Artificial Intelligence in judicial work. The policy emphasizes that AI may be used only as an assistive tool and must never replace judicial reasoning or decision-making
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 – 16 March 2026 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q243. Under the ELI scheme approved in July 2025, first-time employees will benefit by getting one month’s wage under this scheme, up to what amount?

  1. (a) ₹12,000
  2. (b) ₹15,000
  3. (c) ₹20,000
  4. (d) ₹10,000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹15,000

Approved in: Union Budget July 2025.
Objective: To boost formal employment and support first-time workers.
Key Provisions:
• Part A (for employees): First-time employees in EPFO-registered establishments
receive one month's wage as direct benefit transfer, up to ₹15,000.
(Paid in 3 instalments over 2 years).
• Part B (for employers): Incentive to employers for hiring and retaining new staff.
• Part C: Special focus on manufacturing sector jobs.
Eligibility: Salary ≤ ₹1 lakh/month; must be new EPFO member.
Answer: Option 2 → ₹15,000

Q244. In 2025, the Supreme Court of India (SC) in the case State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu ruled that a State Governor cannot exercise which of the following over a bill duly passed by the State Legislature?

  1. (a) Pocket Veto
  2. (b) Line-item veto
  3. (c) Conditional assent
  4. (d) Veto only on financial bills
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pocket Veto

In State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), the Supreme Court ruled
that a Governor CANNOT exercise Pocket Veto over a State Legislature bill.
Pocket Veto = Indefinitely sitting on a bill without action or communication.
The SC held the Governor must act within reasonable time:
• Give assent, OR • Withhold with reasons, OR • Refer to President.
Related: Article 200 governs Governor's assent to bills.
Answer: Option 1 → Pocket Veto

Q245. The Supreme Court dismissed which state's plea to halt Karnataka's Mekedatu project in November 2025?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Goa
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu

The Supreme Court dismissed the plea of Tamil Nadu to halt Karnataka's Mekedatu project.
The dispute relates to water sharing between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
In November 2025, the court ruled against Tamil Nadu's plea to stop the project.
Hence, Tamil Nadu's plea was dismissed by the Supreme Court.

Q246. In which state was the 22ⁿ ᵈ All India TDS Conference organised to review Income Tax Act amendments?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Maharshtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

The22ⁿᵈ All India TDS Conferencewas organised inMadhya Pradesh.
It focused on reviewingIncome Tax Act amendmentsand improving TDS compliance.
Such conferences help in strengtheningtax administration and awareness.

Q247. The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025, was introduced to achieve which of the following objective?

  1. (a) To increase budget allocation for Olympic sports
  2. (b) To launch a national-level talent hunt program
  3. (c) To improve physical and sports education in schools
  4. (d) To establish rules for recognizing and regulating sports bodies
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To establish rules for recognizing and regulating sports bodies

The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 aims to provide a legal framework.
It establishes rules for recognising and regulating sports bodies in India.
This ensures transparent functioning and accountability of sports organisations.
Hence, option 4 is correct.
RRB Technician Grade III 2025-26 – 9 March 2026 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q248. The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative, launched on 24 June 2025, is for which age group?

  1. (a) 18 - 20 years
  2. (b) 12 - 14 years
  3. (c) 14 - 16 years
  4. (d) 16 - 18 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 16 - 18 years

Solution:
NAVYA initiativeaims to providevocational trainingto adolescent girls.
It specifically targets girls in the16–18 years age group.
The objective is to enhanceskills, employability, and self-reliance.

Q249. The Government has proposed to include which Union Territory under the ambit of Article 240 of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Chandigarh
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Lakshadweep
  4. (d) Puduchery
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandigarh

Article 240 of the Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories by the President.
Lakshadweep is a Union Territory that falls under the ambit of Article 240.
Chandigarh and Puducherry have different administrative provisions.
New Delhi is not a Union Territory but the National Capital Territory.
Hence, the correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Q250. Vice‑President CP Radhakrishnan inaugurated the 30ᵗʰ CII Partnership Summit in which city?

  1. (a) Ahmedabad
  2. (b) Patna
  3. (c) Visakhapatnam
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Visakhapatnam

The 30th CII Partnership Summit was inaugurated by Vice-President CP Radhakrishnan in New Delhi.
New Delhi is the capital of India and a common venue for major government and industry events such as the CII Partnership Summit.
Therefore, the correct city where the summit was held is New Delhi.
Final answer: Option 4
RRB JE CBT-1 2025-26 – 20 February 2026 · Policies, laws and bills

Q251. What is the purpose of the Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024, introduced by the Indian Government?

  1. (a) To establish a framework for ethical governance and athlete welfare in sports federations
  2. (b) To increase commercialization of sports in Urban and Semiurban areas
  3. (c) To centralize all sports decisions under one authority
  4. (d) To eliminate traditional sports from national competitions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To establish a framework for ethical governance and athlete welfare in sports federations

The Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024 aims to improve governance in sports federations.
It focuses on ethical management and protecting athlete welfare.
The bill provides a legal framework to ensure transparency and accountability in sports bodies.
It does not focus on commercialization or centralizing sports decisions.
Nor does it aim to remove traditional sports from competitions.
Hence, the main purpose aligns with option 1.
Final answer: Option 1
SSC MTS 2025 – 11 February 2026 Shift 3 · National elections and census updates

Q252. The reference date for the census 2027 for the Union Territory of Ladakh shall be _____.

  1. (a) 1st day of November 2026
  2. (b) 1st day of December 2026
  3. (c) 1st day of April 2026
  4. (d) 1st day of October 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1st day of October 2026

The correct answer is 1st day of October 2026 (Option 4). For the Census 2027, the reference date for Union Territory of Ladakh (and other high-altitude areas with harsh winter conditions) is 1st October 2026. This is done to facilitate census operations in difficult terrain before heavy snowfall. For the rest of India, the reference date is different. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

Q253. The Vigyan Dhara scheme, launched in January 2025, primarily aims to:

  1. (a) Promote tourism-based science activities in India.
  2. (b) Merge schemes to boost R&D, innovation, and skills.
  3. (c) Set up nuclear labs across various Indian districts.
  4. (d) Create a national health data system for research.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Merge schemes to boost R&D, innovation, and skills.

Vigyan Dhara, launched in January 2025 by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), is an umbrella scheme that merges three earlier DST programmes into one integrated scheme to boost R&D, scientific innovation, and skill development across India.
(1), (3), and (4) do not describe the actual objectives of Vigyan Dhara.

Q254. Read the below statements about Underground Coal Gasification (UCG):
Statement 1: The Ministry of Coal has launched India's first Underground Coal Gasification pilot project in Jharkhand.
Statement 2: UCG chemically converts coal into syngas within its original coal seam.
Statement 3: Syngas mainly contains methane (CH4), hydrogen (H2), CO2, and carbon monoxide (CO).
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only Statement 1 is correct
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all three statements are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 all three statements are correct

All three statements are correct.
Statement 1: The Ministry of Coal launched India's first UCG pilot project in Jharkhand.
Statement 2: UCG gasifies coal in situ by injecting oxidants underground, producing syngas without surface mining.
Statement 3: UCG syngas mainly contains H2, CO, CO2, and CH4 - making all three statements accurate.

Q255. Which ministries jointly organized the National Tribal Health Conclave 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of AYUSH and Ministry of Health
  2. (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  3. (c) Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Social Justice
  4. (d) Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The National Tribal Health Conclave 2025 was jointly organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to address health challenges specific to tribal communities in India, focusing on improving healthcare access, addressing tribal-specific diseases, and strengthening tribal health infrastructure.
(a) Ministry of AYUSH and Ministry of Health: AYUSH focuses on traditional medicine systems; not the primary organizer of the tribal health conclave.
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Social Justice: Home Affairs deals with internal security; not the organizer of this health conclave.
(d) Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Rural Development focuses on rural infrastructure; the health-specific conclave was jointly organized with Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Q256. In February 2025, the Government approved development of tribal homestays under which tourism scheme?

  1. (a) Incredible India 2.0
  2. (b) PRASHAD Scheme
  3. (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme
  4. (d) Dekho Apna Desh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme

The correct answer is (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme.
In February 2025, the Government of India approved the development of tribal homestays under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme (Swadesh Darshan 2.0), which promotes thematic tourism circuits in India. The scheme supports tribal tourism by developing tribal village circuits and homestays to boost community-based tourism and provide livelihood opportunities to tribal communities.
(a) Incredible India 2.0: A branding and marketing campaign by the Ministry of Tourism; not specifically for tribal homestay development.
(b) PRASHAD Scheme: Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive; focuses on development of pilgrimage sites; not tribal homestays.
(d) Dekho Apna Desh: An initiative to encourage Indian citizens to explore their own country; a promotional initiative, not a development scheme for tribal homestays.

Q257. As per the March 2025 update, the Vigyan Dhara scheme came into effect on 16th January 2025 following the merger of how many umbrella schemes of the Department of Science and Technology?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) Three
  3. (c) Four
  4. (d) Five
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three

The correct answer is (b) Three.
The Vigyan Dhara scheme was launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) on 16 January 2025, following the merger of three umbrella schemes: (1) INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research), (2) SERB (Science and Engineering Research Board) programs, and (3) National Science and Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board (NSTEDB) programs. This consolidation aimed to streamline DST's research and innovation funding.
(a) Two: Only two schemes were not merged; Vigyan Dhara merged three DST umbrella schemes.
(c) Four: Not the correct number; three schemes were merged into Vigyan Dhara.
(d) Five: Not the correct number; the merger involved three schemes.

Q258. Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MCGS–MSME), which organisation has been designated to provide a 60% guarantee cover on eligible loans?

  1. (a) SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
  2. (b) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
  3. (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.)
  4. (d) IFCI (Industrial Finance Corporation of India)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.)

The correct answer is (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.).
Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), NCGTC has been designated to provide a 60% guarantee cover on eligible loans (above ₹10 crore and up to ₹100 crore) to manufacturing MSMEs, enabling easier credit access.
(a) SIDBI: Provides refinancing and support to MSMEs but is not the designated entity for this specific 60% guarantee under MCGS-MSME.
(b) NABARD: Primarily focuses on agricultural and rural development credit; not the designated entity for MCGS-MSME.
(d) IFCI: An industrial finance institution; not the designated entity for this scheme.

Q259. The PM Internship Scheme (PMIS) Mela held in February 2025 was organized by which Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
  2. (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
  4. (d) Ministry of Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
The PM Internship Scheme (PMIS) is managed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). The PMIS Mela held in February 2025 was organized by MCA to facilitate internships for youth in top Indian companies. The scheme aims to provide 1 crore internships over 5 years.
(a) Ministry of Labour & Employment: Handles labour welfare policies; not the ministry managing PM Internship Scheme.
(c) Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship: Manages skill training programs like PMKVY; PM Internship Scheme is specifically under MCA.
(d) Ministry of Education: Handles school and higher education; not the organizing ministry for PMIS Mela.

Q260. Which ministry organised the Chintan Shivir held in Udaipur in January 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
  3. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
  4. (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Women and Child Development.
The Chintan Shivir held in Udaipur, Rajasthan in January 2025 was organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Such Chintan Shivirs (brainstorming retreats) are held to discuss policy implementation, new initiatives, and review performance of ministry programs.
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare: Not the organiser of this particular Chintan Shivir in Udaipur, January 2025.
(c) Ministry of Rural Development: Organises its own programs; not the organiser of this specific event.
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment: A different ministry with its own programs; not the organiser of this Chintan Shivir .

Q261. The Young Authors Mentorship Scheme has been launched in three phases: first in May 2021, next in October 2022, and next in:

  1. (a) January 2024
  2. (b) March 2025
  3. (c) December 2024
  4. (d) April 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) March 2025

The Young Authors Mentorship Scheme (YAMS), launched by the National Book Trust (NBT) under the Ministry of Education, has been rolled out in three phases: Phase 1 in May 2021, Phase 2 in October 2022, and Phase 3 in March 2025. The scheme mentors young authors to produce quality literature.
(a) Incorrect: January 2024 is not the correct date for the third phase of the Young Authors Mentorship Scheme.
(b) Incorrect: December 2024 is not the date for the third phase of the scheme.
(c) Incorrect: April 2025 is not the date for the third phase; the scheme's third phase was launched in March 2025.

Q262. The Industry Dialogue on the Promotion of Research and Innovation in the Pharma-MedTech Sector (PRIP) Scheme was held in which city on 13 March 2025?

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

The PRIP Scheme Industry Dialogue was held in Mumbai on 13 March 2025, organized by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
(a) Incorrect: Bengaluru is India's biotech hub, but the PRIP dialogue on 13 March 2025 was held in Mumbai.
(b) Incorrect: Hyderabad has a significant pharmaceutical cluster, but the PRIP dialogue was held in Mumbai.
(d) Incorrect: New Delhi is the administrative capital, but the PRIP scheme dialogue on 13 March 2025 was specifically held in Mumbai.

Q263. What is the typical duration of internships offered under the PM Internship Scheme?

  1. (a) 3 months
  2. (b) 6 months
  3. (c) 12 months
  4. (d) 24 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 12 months

Under the PM Internship Scheme launched by the Government of India, internships are offered for a duration of 12 months. The scheme aims to provide practical work experience to young people in top companies across India.
(a) Incorrect: 3 months is not the duration specified under the PM Internship Scheme; the scheme is designed for a full year.
(b) Incorrect: 6 months is not the designated duration; the PM Internship Scheme runs for 12 months.
(d) Incorrect: 24 months is too long; the scheme is specifically designed for a 12-month internship period.

Q264. Which Union Minister introduced the National Sports Governance Bill to improve accountability in sports in 2025?

  1. (a) Kiren Rijiju
  2. (b) Mansukh Mandaviya
  3. (c) Anurag Thakur
  4. (d) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mansukh Mandaviya

Mansukh Mandaviya, Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, introduced the National Sports Governance Bill in 2025 to bring transparency and accountability to national sports federations.
(a) Incorrect: Kiren Rijiju is the Law Minister, not the Sports Minister.
(c) Incorrect: Anurag Thakur was a former Sports Minister and was not holding that portfolio in 2025.
(d) Incorrect: Rajeev Chandrasekhar is not the Sports Minister.

Q265. YUVA 3.0, launched in March 2025, targeted young writers under the age of:

  1. (a) 20 years
  2. (b) 25 years
  3. (c) 30 years
  4. (d) 35 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 years

YUVA 3.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors), the PM's Mentorship Scheme for Aspiring Authors, launched in March 2025, targeted young writers under the age of 30 years. The scheme aims to develop young writing talent in India.
(a) Incorrect: The age limit is 30, not 20.
(b) Incorrect: 25 years is not the correct threshold.
(d) Incorrect: 35 years is above the scheme's age limit.

Q266. The March 2025 edition of YUVA 3.0 aimed to encourage creative writing in line with which national vision?

  1. (a) "Independent India 2047"
  2. (b) "Skill India Mission 2030"
  3. (c) "Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat"
  4. (d) "Digital India for All"
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) "Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat"

The March 2025 edition of YUVA 3.0 aimed to encourage creative writing aligned with the national vision of 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat,' which promotes national unity, integrity, and cultural integration through literature and other platforms.
(a) Incorrect: 'Independent India 2047' is a separate development-focused vision.
(b) Incorrect: Skill India Mission 2030 focuses on vocational training, not creative writing.
(d) Incorrect: 'Digital India for All' is about technology accessibility.

Q267. In February 2025, a five-day training programme on 'Operation and Management of Rural Water Supply Schemes' was organised by which institution?

  1. (a) Central Water Commission
  2. (b) National Institute of Rural Development (NIRD)
  3. (c) SPM-NIWAS under the Ministry of Jal Shakti
  4. (d) National Mission for Clean Ganga
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) SPM-NIWAS under the Ministry of Jal Shakti

The five-day training programme on Operation and Management of Rural Water Supply Schemes held in February 2025 was organised by SPM-NIWAS ( Swajal Prakalp Mission - National Institute for Water and Sanitation) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The programme aimed to build capacity among officials managing rural drinking water infrastructure under the Jal Jeevan Mission.
(a) Incorrect: Central Water Commission deals with river water regulation and development, not rural water supply training.
(b) Incorrect: NIRD focuses on rural development capacity building broadly, not specifically on rural water supply management.
(d) Incorrect: National Mission for Clean Ganga focuses on river rejuvenation, not rural water supply scheme management.

Q268. Who was the Brand Ambassador of the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025 launched by the Ministry of Education, in collaboration with the Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog?

  1. (a) Ratan Tata
  2. (b) Shubhanshu Shukla
  3. (c) Anand Mahindra
  4. (d) Nandan Nilekani
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shubhanshu Shukla

The correct answer is Shubhanshu Shukla (Option 2).
Shubhanshu Shukla, the Indian astronaut selected for the Axiom Space Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the International Space Station, was designated as the Brand Ambassador for the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025. This initiative by the Ministry of Education and Atal Innovation Mission aimed to inspire young innovators and entrepreneurs across India.
Option 1 - Ratan Tata: Ratan Tata was the legendary industrialist and philanthropist who passed away in October 2024; he was not the Brand Ambassador for this 2025 initiative.
Option 3 - Anand Mahindra: Anand Mahindra is the chairman of Mahindra Group; he was not appointed as Brand Ambassador for the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025.
Option 4 - Nandan Nilekani: Nandan Nilekani is the co-founder of Infosys and architect of Aadhaar; he was not the Brand Ambassador for this specific initiative.

Q269. In January 2025, which Union Minister reviewed the schemes and programmes of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)?

  1. (a) Nitin Gadkari
  2. (b) Jitan Ram Manjhi
  3. (c) Piyush Goyal
  4. (d) Rajnath Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jitan Ram Manjhi

The correct answer is Jitan Ram Manjhi (Option 2).
Union Minister Jitan Ram Manjhi, who heads the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), reviewed the schemes and programmes of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) in January 2025. The KVIC functions under the MSME Ministry.
Option 1 - Nitin Gadkari: Nitin Gadkari heads the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways; KVIC is not under his portfolio.
Option 3 - Piyush Goyal: Piyush Goyal is the Commerce and Industry Minister; he does not oversee KVIC.
Option 4 - Rajnath Singh: Rajnath Singh is the Defence Minister; KVIC is outside his ministerial jurisdiction.

Q270. Which initiative started on 1 January 2025 to provide access to over 13,000 journals for more than 6,300 government academic and R&D institutions?

  1. (a) National Research Library Scheme
  2. (b) One Nation One Subscription
  3. (c) National Digital Library Plus
  4. (d) Open Access India Initiative
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One Nation One Subscription

The correct answer is One Nation One Subscription (Option 2).
The 'One Nation One Subscription' (ONOS) initiative was launched on 1 January 2025. It provides researchers, students, and faculty at over 6,300 government-funded academic and R&D institutions access to more than 13,000 scientific journals from 30 major international publishers, through a centrally negotiated subscription paid by the Government of India.
Option 1 - National Research Library Scheme: This is not the initiative that was launched on 1 January 2025 for journal access to 6,300 institutions.
Option 3 - National Digital Library Plus: The National Digital Library of India exists as a digital repository but is not the initiative described in the question.
Option 4 - Open Access India Initiative: This is not the specific initiative launched on 1 January 2025 providing journal access to over 6,300 institutions.

Q271. On 18th January 2025, the SVAMITVA Scheme marked a major milestone by distributing approximately how many property cards in one day?

  1. (a) 35 lakh
  2. (b) 50 lakh
  3. (c) 65 lakh
  4. (d) 80 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 65 lakh

The correct answer is 65 lakh (Option 3).
On 18th January 2025, the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme achieved a landmark by distributing approximately 65 lakh property cards in a single day. This was part of a massive programme to provide property rights to rural households by mapping inhabited land in villages using drone technology.
Option 1 - 35 lakh: 35 lakh undercounts the number of property cards distributed on this milestone day.
Option 2 - 50 lakh: 50 lakh is also below the actual number of property cards distributed on 18 January 2025.
Option 4 - 80 lakh: 80 lakh overstates the number of property cards distributed on this particular day.

Q272. Which Union Minister attended a programme where the 19th instalment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released?

  1. (a) Narendra Singh Tomar
  2. (b) Hardeep Singh Puri
  3. (c) Arjun Munda
  4. (d) Amit Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hardeep Singh Puri

The correct answer is Hardeep Singh Puri (Option 2).
Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri attended the programme where the 19th instalment of the PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi scheme was released, transferring funds directly to the bank accounts of eligible farmer beneficiaries.
Option 1 - Narendra Singh Tomar: Former Agriculture Minister; he left the Agriculture Ministry after the 2024 general elections.
Option 3 - Arjun Munda: Former Minister of Tribal Affairs; not specifically associated with the 19th PM-KISAN instalment release event.
Option 4 - Amit Shah: Union Home Minister; not specifically associated with this PM-KISAN instalment event.

Q273. The incentive rate approved under the low-value BHIM-UPI P2M scheme for eligible transactions is:

  1. (a) 0.10% of transaction value
  2. (b) 0.15% of transaction value
  3. (c) 0.20% of transaction value
  4. (d) 0.25% of transaction value
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0.15% of transaction value

The correct answer is 0.15% of transaction value (Option 2).
The government approved an incentive rate of 0.15% of the transaction value under the low-value BHIM-UPI Person to Merchant (P2M) scheme. This incentive is aimed at encouraging small merchants and businesses to adopt digital payments for transactions below a certain threshold.
Option 1 - 0.10%: This is lower than the approved incentive rate for low-value BHIM-UPI P2M transactions.
Option 3 - 0.20%: This is higher than the approved incentive rate under this specific scheme.
Option 4 - 0.25%: This exceeds the approved incentive rate for this low-value BHIM-UPI P2M scheme.

Q274. The ' Sahyog ' Portal has been launched to expedite the process of sending notices to IT intermediaries under which legal provision?

  1. (a) Section 66F(b) of the IT Act, 2000
  2. (b) Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000
  3. (c) Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000
  4. (d) Section 87A of the IT Act, 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000

The correct answer is Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000 (Option 3).
The Sahyog Portal was launched by the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) to streamline and expedite the process of sending compliance notices to IT intermediaries (social media platforms, etc.) under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, which relates to the removal of unlawful content.
Option 1 - Section 66F(b): Deals with cyber terrorism offenses; not the provision under which Sahyog Portal operates.
Option 2 - Section 43A: Deals with compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data; not related to IT intermediary notices.
Option 4 - Section 87A: Not the relevant section for IT intermediary notice compliance under the Sahyog Portal framework.

Q275. The 10th-anniversary celebrations of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme are scheduled from:

  1. (a) January 1 to February 15, 2025
  2. (b) January 10 to March 1, 2025
  3. (c) January 22 to March 8, 2025
  4. (d) January 26 to April 1, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) January 22 to March 8, 2025

The correct answer is January 22 to March 8, 2025 (Option 3).
The 10th-anniversary celebrations of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme were scheduled from January 22 to March 8, 2025. The celebration culminated on March 8, International Women's Day, recognizing the scheme's decade-long efforts to address the declining child sex ratio and promote girl-child education.
Option 1 - January 1 to February 15: This period does not align with the official announced dates for the BBBP anniversary celebrations.
Option 2 - January 10 to March 1: This is not the announced period; the celebrations ended on March 8 (International Women's Day).
Option 4 - January 26 to April 1: While starting on Republic Day is plausible, the end date is April 1, which does not align with the International Women's Day culmination.

Q276. Who addressed the second edition of Udyog Samagam 2025 as the chief speaker?

  1. (a) Hardeep Singh Puri
  2. (b) Piyush Goyal
  3. (c) Dharmendra Pradhan
  4. (d) Rajnath Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Piyush Goyal

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal (Option 2).
Piyush Goyal, Union Minister for Commerce and Industry, addressed the second edition of Udyog Samagam 2025 as the chief speaker, emphasizing India's industrial growth and MSME sector development.
Option 1 - Hardeep Singh Puri: He is the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas & Housing and Urban Affairs, not the chief speaker at this event.
Option 3 - Dharmendra Pradhan: He is the Union Minister of Education, not the chief speaker at Udyog Samagam 2025.
Option 4 - Rajnath Singh: He is the Union Minister of Defence , not associated with this commerce event.

Q277. In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the Incentive Scheme for promotion of low-value BHIM-UPI P2M transactions for FY 2024-25 with a total outlay of:

  1. (a) ₹1,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹1,500 crore
  3. (c) ₹2,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹2,500 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹1,500 crore

In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved an outlay of ₹1,500 crore for the Incentive Scheme to promote low-value BHIM-UPI P2M (Person to Merchant) transactions for FY 2024-25, aimed at encouraging digital payments especially for small-value purchases. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: ₹1,000 crore is the incorrect amount; the approved outlay was ₹1,500 crore for this scheme.
Option 3 is wrong: ₹2,000 crore is higher than the actual approved amount of ₹1,500 crore.
Option 4 is wrong: ₹2,500 crore is significantly higher than the ₹1,500 crore approved by the Cabinet for this incentive scheme.

Q278. Who laid the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur in March 2025?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Eknath Shinde
  4. (d) Jagdeep Dhankhar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur, Maharashtra in March 2025, as part of his efforts to promote healthcare infrastructure. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Amit Shah is the Union Home Minister ; he did not lay the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in Nagpur in March 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Eknath Shinde is a Maharashtra politician and former Chief Minister; he was not the dignitary who laid the foundation stone of this centre .
Option 4 is wrong: Jagdeep Dhankhar is the Vice President of India; he was not involved in laying the foundation stone of the Madhav Netralaya Premium Centre in March 2025.

Q279. The Mahila Sashaktikaran Mahasammelan, addressed by the Prime Minister in May 2025, marked the 300th birth anniversary of which historical figure?

  1. (a) Rani Lakshmi Bai
  2. (b) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar
  3. (c) Savitribai Phule
  4. (d) Rani Durgavati
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar

The Mahila Sashaktikaran Mahasammelan addressed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in May 2025 marked the 300th birth anniversary of Devi Ahilyabai Holkar (born May 31, 1725). Ahilyabai Holkar was the remarkable Holkar dynasty ruler of the Malwa Kingdom (present-day Madhya Pradesh) who was known for her just administration, philanthropic work, and restoration of many Hindu temples across India.
Option 1 is incorrect: Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi was born in 1828; her 300th birth anniversary would be in 2128, not 2025.
Option 3 is incorrect: Savitribai Phule was born on January 3, 1831; her 300th birth anniversary would be in 2131, not 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Rani Durgavati (1524-1564) was a warrior queen of Gondwana; her 300th anniversary would have been much earlier.

Q280. In February 2025, who launched the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME)?

  1. (a) Piyush Goyal
  2. (b) Nirmala Sitharaman
  3. (c) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
  4. (d) Jyotiraditya Scindia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nirmala Sitharaman

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman launched the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME) in February 2025. The scheme provides credit guarantees to MSMEs to help them access formal credit without collateral. It was part of the government's broader initiative to support the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises sector, which is the backbone of India's economy.
Option 1 is incorrect: Piyush Goyal serves as Union Commerce Minister; while he oversees MSME policy matters, the MCGS-MSME was launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
Option 3 is incorrect: Rajeev Chandrasekhar has held various Union Ministerial positions; he was not the one who launched MCGS-MSME in February 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Jyotiraditya Scindia has served as Union Minister for Civil Aviation and Steel; he was not involved in launching the MCGS-MSME scheme.

Q281. Under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme, senior citizens aged 70+ are eligible for free treatment benefits up to:

  1. (a) Rs.1 lakh per year
  2. (b) Rs.2 lakh per year
  3. (c) Rs.3 lakh per year
  4. (d) Rs.5 lakh per year
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rs.5 lakh per year

Under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme (Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana for senior citizens aged 70 years and above), all senior citizens aged 70+ are eligible for free health coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per year per family for secondary and tertiary healthcare. This scheme was announced by PM Narendra Modi in 2024 and provides universal health coverage to elderly citizens regardless of their economic status.
Option 1 is incorrect: The coverage under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 1 lakh per year.
Option 2 is incorrect: The coverage is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 2 lakh per year.
Option 3 is incorrect: The coverage is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 3 lakh per year.

Q282. Who inaugurated the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 in May 2025?

  1. (a) Home Minister Amit Shah
  2. (b) President Droupadi Murmu
  3. (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  4. (d) Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 in New Delhi in May 2025. The Summit was organised to promote investment in the eight northeastern states of India (Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura). The event aimed to highlight investment opportunities in sectors like tourism, infrastructure, agriculture, and manufacturing in the region.
Option 1 is incorrect: Home Minister Amit Shah did not inaugurate the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025; it was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Option 2 is incorrect: President Droupadi Murmu did not inaugurate this Summit; PM Modi performed the inauguration.
Option 4 is incorrect: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman may have participated in the event but did not inaugurate it; PM Modi was the inaugurating authority.

Q283. In February 2025, which Union Minister distributed Sanitation Kits and Ayushman Cards under the NAMASTE Scheme in Mumbai?

  1. (a) Jitendra Singh
  2. (b) Ramdas Athawale
  3. (c) Virendra Kumar
  4. (d) Bhupender Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Virendra Kumar

In February 2025, Union Minister Virendra Kumar (Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment) distributed Sanitation Kits and Ayushman Cards under the NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) Scheme in Mumbai. NAMASTE is a scheme aimed at ensuring the welfare and safety of sanitation workers.
Option (a) is incorrect: Jitendra Singh served as Union Minister of State for Science and Technology; he was not associated with this NAMASTE Scheme event.
Option (b) is incorrect: Ramdas Athawale served as Union Minister of State for Social Justice; he was not the minister who distributed these kits at this specific event.
Option (d) is incorrect: Bhupender Yadav served as Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change; he was not associated with the NAMASTE Scheme distribution.

Q284. In February 2025, how many projects were sanctioned under the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) Scheme for FY 2024-25?

  1. (a) 25
  2. (b) 32
  3. (c) 40
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 40

In February 2025, the Government of India sanctioned 40 projects under the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) Scheme for FY 2024-25. The SASCI Scheme provides interest-free 50-year loans to state governments for capital investment projects to boost infrastructure development.
Option (a) is incorrect: 25 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.
Option (b) is incorrect: 32 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.
Option (d) is incorrect: 50 projects is not the number sanctioned under SASCI in February 2025.

Q285. Who inaugurated the National Conference on 'Environment - 2025' held in New Delhi in March 2025?

  1. (a) Amit Shah
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Droupadi Murmu
  4. (d) Bhupender Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Droupadi Murmu

President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the National Conference on 'Environment - 2025' held in New Delhi in March 2025. As the constitutional head of state, the President of India traditionally inaugurates major national conferences of such significance. The conference focused on environmental governance, climate change, and sustainable development.
Option 1 is incorrect: Amit Shah serves as Union Home Minister; while he participates in various conferences, he did not inaugurate the Environment 2025 conference.
Option 2 is incorrect: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was not the inaugurator of this particular conference; it was President Droupadi Murmu.
Option 4 is incorrect: Bhupender Yadav serves as Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change; while he may have been present, the inauguration was done by President Droupadi Murmu.

Q286. In February 2025, the 19th installment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released from which location?

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Bhagalpur
  3. (c) Varanasi
  4. (d) Ranchi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bhagalpur

The 19th installment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released on 24 February 2025 from Bhagalpur, Bihar. Prime Minister Narendra Modi released this installment during a public event in Bhagalpur. Under the PM-KISAN scheme, eligible farmers receive Rs. 6,000 per year in three equal instalments of Rs. 2,000 each, directly transferred to their bank accounts.
Option 1 is incorrect: Patna is the capital of Bihar, but the 19th installment was released from Bhagalpur, not Patna.
Option 3 is incorrect: Varanasi is PM Modi's parliamentary constituency in Uttar Pradesh; the 19th PM-KISAN installment was not released from there.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ranchi is the capital of Jharkhand; the 19th PM-KISAN installment event was not held there.

Q287. The first 'Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra' inaugurated in February 2025 is located in:

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Pune
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

The first 'Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra' (mobile income tax service centre ) was inaugurated in Mumbai in February 2025. This initiative by the Income Tax Department aims to provide mobile/on-the-spot income tax services to taxpayers at their location (offices, housing societies, etc.), improving ease of compliance and reducing the need to visit tax offices.
Option 1 is incorrect: Bengaluru was not the location of the first Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra; Mumbai holds this distinction.
Option 2 is incorrect: Hyderabad was not the location of the first such mobile income tax service centre .
Option 4 is incorrect: Pune is not the location where the first Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra was inaugurated; it was launched in Mumbai.

Q288. In March 2025, PM Modi also disbursed Rs. _____ crore in financial assistance at ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' in Gujarat.

  1. (a) 450
  2. (b) 600
  3. (c) 250
  4. (d) 300
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 450

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 450
In March 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi disbursed Rs. 450 crore in financial assistance to beneficiaries at the ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' held in Gujarat. The Lakhpati Didi initiative aims to empower women Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to earn an annual income of at least Rs. 1 lakh.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (600): Incorrect figure; the disbursed amount was Rs. 450 crore .
Option 3 (250): Incorrect; this is lower than the actual amount disbursed.
Option 4 (300): Incorrect; the actual figure was Rs. 450 crore .
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 30 November 2025 Shift 2 · New government schemes and missions

Q289. Who administers and regulates the NPS Vatsalya scheme launched in September 2024?

  1. (a) Reserve Bank of India
  2. (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  3. (c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
  4. (d) Ministry of Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
The NPS Vatsalya scheme, launched in September 2024, is administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). NPS Vatsalya is a National Pension System variant for minors (below 18 years), allowing parents to invest in their children's future retirement fund.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (RBI): RBI regulates banking and monetary policy; pension schemes are under PFRDA.
Option 2 (SEBI): SEBI regulates the securities market; it has no role in pension fund regulation.
Option 4 (Ministry of Education): NPS Vatsalya is a pension product, not an educational scheme.

Q290. In July 2025, _____ was arrested in connection with the Andaman and Nicobar State Cooperative Bank Limited (ANSCBL) loan irregularities case.

  1. (a) Ashwani Gupta
  2. (b) Kuldeep Sharma
  3. (c) Shashi Singh
  4. (d) Samir Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kuldeep Sharma

Kuldeep Sharma was arrested in July 2025 in connection with the Andaman and Nicobar State Cooperative Bank Limited (ANSCBL) loan irregularities case. The case involved alleged financial fraud and irregular disbursement of loans by the cooperative bank.
Ashwani Gupta, Shashi Singh, and Samir Shah are not associated with this case.

Q291. In May 2025, the Supreme Court set aside which High Court order that had denied maternity leave to a government school teacher for the birth of their third child?

  1. (a) Madras High Court
  2. (b) Delhi High Court
  3. (c) Calcutta High Court
  4. (d) Bombay High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madras High Court

In May 2025, the Supreme Court set aside the Madras High Court order that had denied maternity leave to a government school teacher for the birth of their third child, upholding the right to maternity benefits.
Delhi High Court, Calcutta High Court, and Bombay High Court are not associated with this ruling. Hence, Madras High Court is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 29 November 2025 Shift 3 · New government schemes and missions

Q292. SPREE 2025 is a special initiative aimed at _____ under the Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act.

  1. (a) providing housing support to middle-income families
  2. (b) expanding social security coverage
  3. (c) launching health insurance for gig workers
  4. (d) extending pension benefits to state employees
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) expanding social security coverage

Correct Answer: Option 2 – expanding social security coverage
SPREE 2025 (Special Registration and Enrolment of Employees) is a special initiative under the ESI Act aimed at expanding social security coverage by enrolling eligible unregistered workers and employers under the ESIC scheme.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (housing support): Housing schemes fall under PMAY/PMAY-U, not the ESI Act.
Option 3 (gig workers): While gig worker coverage is under discussion, SPREE 2025 is specifically about expanding existing ESI coverage broadly.
Option 4 (pension to state employees): Pension for state employees is handled under state pension schemes, not the ESI Act.

Q293. In July 2025, The Youth Spiritual Summit culminated in _____.

  1. (a) Varanasi
  2. (b) Surat
  3. (c) Ujjain
  4. (d) Madurai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Varanasi

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Varanasi
The Youth Spiritual Summit in July 2025 culminated in Varanasi, India's spiritual capital. The summit was organised by the Brahma Kumaris organisation and brought together youth from across India to engage in spiritual discourse and leadership development.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (Surat): Surat is a commercial city; the summit was not held there.
Option 3 (Ujjain): While Ujjain is a religious city known for the Mahakaleshwar temple, it was not the venue of this summit.
Option 4 (Madurai): Madurai is a temple city in Tamil Nadu; not the venue of the 2025 Youth Spiritual Summit.

Q294. In July 2024, the National Landslide Forecasting Centre was inaugurated at _____.

  1. (a) Patna
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Bhopal
  4. (d) Raipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kolkata

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Kolkata
The National Landslide Forecasting Centre was inaugurated in Kolkata in July 2024. It operates under the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and aims to issue real-time landslide warnings for vulnerable regions, particularly in the Himalayan and Western Ghats areas.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 (Patna): Patna is the capital of Bihar; the centre was not inaugurated here.
Option 3 (Bhopal): Bhopal is in Madhya Pradesh, which is not a high-risk landslide zone; the candidate incorrectly selected this.
Option 4 (Raipur): Raipur is in Chhattisgarh; it has no connection to this centre .

Q295. In June 2025, EPFO revised its auto-settlement limit. This limit is now Rs. _____ lakh.

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5

In June 2025, the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) revised its auto-settlement limit to Rs. 5 lakh. This means EPFO members can now claim up to Rs. 5 lakh through the automated settlement process without manual intervention, making it faster and easier for members to access their funds.
Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 2 lakh, and Rs. 10 lakh are incorrect figures.

Q296. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has on 4 August 2025 issued a detailed response to certain concerns raised on the impact of _____ percent Ethanol Blended Petrol on mileage and vehicle life.

  1. (a) 20
  2. (b) 40
  3. (c) 60
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 20

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas issued a detailed response on 4 August 2025 regarding concerns about the impact of 20 percent Ethanol Blended Petrol (E20) on mileage and vehicle life. E20 is a blend of 20% ethanol with 80% petrol. The government's Ethanol Blending Programme aims to achieve 20% blending by 2025-26 to reduce import dependence and lower carbon emissions.
40%, 60%, and 50% are incorrect blending percentages in this context.

Q297. In March 2025, ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' was held in the state of _____.

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gujarat

The ' Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' in March 2025 was held in Gujarat. The Lakhpati Didi initiative is a flagship government programme under the Mission Shakti scheme aimed at empowering rural women by helping them earn an annual income of at least Rs. 1 lakh through skill development and self-help groups.
Maharashtra, Bihar, and Tamil Nadu are incorrect options for this event.

Q298. In January 2025, which of the following is NOT among the six cities where the Supreme Court of India banned manual scavenging?

  1. (a) Delhi
  2. (b) Bengaluru
  3. (c) Jaipur
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jaipur

In January 2025, the Supreme Court of India banned manual scavenging in six major cities. The six cities included Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, and Hyderabad.
Jaipur was NOT among the six cities covered under this ban, making it the correct answer to this question.
Delhi, Bengaluru, and Chennai are among the six cities where the ban was imposed.

Q299. The Waqf (Amendment) Bill 2025 aims to:
I. Abolish Waqf board completely
II. Streamline the management of Waqf properties

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

The Waqf (Amendment) Bill 2025 aims to streamline the management of Waqf properties (Statement II) — by enhancing transparency, accountability, and efficiency in the administration of Waqf boards and properties.
Statement I is incorrect: the Bill does NOT aim to abolish the Waqf board completely. The intent is to reform and improve the existing Waqf management structure, not to dismantle it.
Hence, Only II is correct.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 28 November 2025 Shift 1 · New government schemes and missions

Q300. In July 2025, _____ launched a national level initiative SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness).

  1. (a) Ministry of Education
  2. (b) Ministry of Electronics & IT
  3. (c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  4. (d) Ministry of Science & Technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

The SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness) initiative was launched in July 2025 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. This national initiative aims to equip India's workforce with Artificial Intelligence skills to prepare them for an AI-driven economy.
Ministry of Education handles school/university education policy; Ministry of Electronics & IT handles digital infrastructure; Ministry of Science & Technology focuses on research. Hence, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship is correct.
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