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Industry and Infrastructure PYQs – Economics, SSC & Railway

350 Industry and Infrastructure (Economics) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions – page 3 of 4.

📚 350 questionsSSC 218 · Railway 132
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SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 25 November 2025 Shift 2 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q201. As per the Industrial policy resolution 1956 of India, industries were divided into how many category ?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) Three
  3. (c) Eight
  4. (d) Ten
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three

India's Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 divided industries into three categories (schedules):
Schedule A: 17 industries exclusively reserved for the public (government) sector.
Schedule B: 12 industries where government would establish new units, but private sector could supplement.
Schedule C: All remaining industries, open to the private sector.
Hence, the industries were divided into three categories.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 25 November 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q202. With a view to boost technical textiles sector in the country, National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) was launched for a period from _____ with an outlay of Rs.1,480 crores.

  1. (a) 2022-23 to 2026-27
  2. (b) 2021-22 to 2024-25
  3. (c) 2020-21 to 2025-26
  4. (d) 2022-23 to 2025-26
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2020-21 to 2025-26

The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) was launched by the Government of India in February 2020 for the period 2020-21 to 2025-26 with a total outlay of Rs.1,480 crores. Its objectives include research, market development, export promotion, and skill development in technical textiles.
Options 2022-23 to 2026-27, 2021-22 to 2024-25, and 2022-23 to 2025-26 are incorrect time periods. Hence, 2020-21 to 2025-26 is correct.

Q203. The National Logistics Policy in India was launched in _____.

  1. (a) 2005
  2. (b) 2010
  3. (c) 2015
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2022

India's National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched on 17 September 2022 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It aims to reduce logistics costs from ~13-14% of GDP to single digits and improve India's Logistics Performance Index ranking.
The years 2005, 2010, and 2015 are incorrect.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 22 November 2025 Shift 3 · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q204. As of July 2025, which of the following public sector enterprise is awarded with " Maharatna " status?

  1. (a) Bharat Electronic Limited
  2. (b) Engineers India Limited
  3. (c) Power Finance Corporation
  4. (d) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Power Finance Corporation

Correct Answer: Power Finance Corporation (Option 3)
Power Finance Corporation (PFC) was awarded the ' Maharatna ' status by the Government of India as of July 2025. Maharatna status is the highest classification given to Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), granting them greater financial and operational autonomy. PFC is India's leading Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) in the power sector, providing financial assistance to the energy sector.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 1 - Bharat Electronic Limited (BEL): BEL holds Navratna status, not Maharatna .
Option 2 - Engineers India Limited (EIL): EIL holds Navratna status.
Option 4 - Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL): RVNL holds Navratna status, not Maharatna .
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 19 November 2025 Shift 1 · Competition Commission of India

Q205. In which year was the Competition Act passed by the Parliament in India?

  1. (a) 1998
  2. (b) 2004
  3. (c) 2000
  4. (d) 2002
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2002

Correct Answer: 2002
The Competition Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2002. It replaced the older Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969. The Competition Act, 2002 aims to prevent anti-competitive practices, promote and sustain competition in markets, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under this Act.
Why other options are wrong:
- 1998: The MRTP Act was still in force; Competition Act was not yet passed.
- 2004: The Competition Act was passed in 2002; certain provisions were implemented/amended around 2004-2009.
- 2000: Two years before the actual passage of the Competition Act.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 18 November 2025 Shift 3 · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q206. As of July 2025, the Power Finance Corporation holds which of the following CPSE status?

  1. (a) Maharatna
  2. (b) Navratna
  3. (c) Miniratna -I
  4. (d) Miniratna -II
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maharatna

Correct Answer: Maharatna (Option 1)
Power Finance Corporation (PFC) Limited holds the Maharatna status as a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) as of July 2025. PFC was granted Maharatna status in 2021. It is a public sector financial institution that provides financial assistance to the Indian power sector. Maharatna is the highest status granted to CPSEs in India, giving them greater operational and financial autonomy.
PFC is not a Navratna , Miniratna -I, or Miniratna -II company — it holds the highest Maharatna classification.

Q207. Which of the following is the target of National Logistics Policy-2022?
I. To increase logistics cost.
II. To develop a data-driven decision support system.

  1. (a) Only I
  2. (b) Only II
  3. (c) Both I and II
  4. (d) Neither I nor II
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only II

Correct Answer: Only II (Option 2)
The National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched in September 2022. Its key targets are:
- To reduce logistics cost in India from ~13-14% of GDP to single digits (comparable to global standards of ~8%)
- To develop a data-driven decision support system (DPIIT Logistics Data Bank)
- To achieve a ranking among the top 25 countries in the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) by 2030
Statement I is INCORRECT: The NLP aims to REDUCE (not increase) logistics cost.
Statement II is CORRECT: Developing a data-driven decision support system IS a stated target of NLP-2022.
Hence Only II is correct.

Q208. The foreign exchange reserve of India dropped to levels that were _____ during 1991 economic crisis.

  1. (a) not sufficient for even a fortnight
  2. (b) not sufficient for twenty days
  3. (c) not sufficient for thirty days
  4. (d) not sufficient for fifty days
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) not sufficient for even a fortnight

During the 1991 Balance of Payments (BOP) crisis, India's foreign exchange reserves had fallen to a critically low level — sufficient for barely two weeks (a fortnight) of imports. The reserves fell to approximately $1.2 billion. This forced India to pledge gold with the IMF, and subsequently led to landmark economic reforms and liberalization under Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister. Why other options are wrong: Option 2 (twenty days): The actual figure was even lower — barely 2 weeks (14 days), not 20 days. Option 3 (thirty days): Overstates how long reserves could sustain imports. Option 4 (fifty days): Significantly overstated; the actual level was much more critical.

Q209. Which of the following is referred as Public sector unit (PSU) disinvestment?

  1. (a) Sale of shares in PSU
  2. (b) Purchase of share in PSU
  3. (c) Allowing direct foreign direct investment in PSU
  4. (d) Allowing indirect foreign direct investment in PSU
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sale of shares in PSU

Correct Answer: Sale of shares in PSU
PSU Disinvestment refers to the process by which the government sells its shareholding (equity) in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). When the government sells shares of a PSU to the private sector or public, it reduces its ownership stake - this is called disinvestment. The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) manages disinvestment in India.
Why other options are wrong:
- Purchase of share in PSU: This would increase government ownership, not reduce it (opposite of disinvestment).
- Allowing direct FDI in PSU: FDI involves foreign investment; disinvestment specifically refers to government selling its own shares.
- Allowing indirect FDI in PSU: Same reason as above; not the definition of PSU disinvestment.

Q210. What was the primary cause of India's 1991 economic crisis?

  1. (a) A major natural disaster.
  2. (b) The government inability to repay foreign borrowings.
  3. (c) The state government inefficiency to not contribute to national economy.
  4. (d) High level of illegal migration from Pakistan and Bangladesh.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The government inability to repay foreign borrowings.

Correct Answer: The government inability to repay foreign borrowings (Option 2)
India's 1991 economic crisis was a severe balance of payments crisis. The primary cause was the government's inability to repay its foreign debt — India's foreign exchange reserves had fallen to just about 2 weeks of import cover (approximately $1.2 billion). The government had to pledge 67 tonnes of gold with the Bank of England and IMF to secure emergency loans. This crisis led to landmark economic reforms initiated by Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister, including liberalisation , privatisation , and globalisation (LPG reforms).
Natural disaster, state government inefficiency, and illegal migration were not the causes of the 1991 economic crisis.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 14 November 2025 Shift 1 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q211. The first industrial policy of Government of India was announced in ________.

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1948
  3. (c) 1958
  4. (d) 1964
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1948

The first Industrial Policy of India was announced on April 6, 1948 by the Government of India. It classified industries into four categories and established the framework for mixed economy in India. It preceded the more comprehensive Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956. The year 1947 saw independence but no formal industrial policy; 1958 and 1964 are incorrect years.

Q212. What was the main purpose of the National Renewal Fund?

  1. (a) To attract foreign direct investment in India.
  2. (b) To help government for seamless external borrowings.
  3. (c) To provide assistance to cover the cost of retraining and redeployment of labour .
  4. (d) To compensate the natural disaster victims.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To provide assistance to cover the cost of retraining and redeployment of labour .

Correct Answer: To provide assistance to cover the cost of retraining and redeployment of labour .
The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established in 1992 by the Government of India during the period of economic liberalisation . Its main purpose was to provide financial assistance for retraining and redeployment of workers who were displaced or affected by industrial restructuring, modernisation , or closure of public sector units.
Why other options are wrong:
- To attract FDI: This is done through investment promotion policies, not the NRF.
- To help with external borrowings: This is the function of bodies like the Finance Ministry and RBI.
- To compensate disaster victims: This is done through the National Disaster Relief Fund (NDRF), not NRF.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 14 November 2025 Shift 2 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q213. Which of the following is NOT the primary goal of Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme?

  1. (a) To attract substantial investments
  2. (b) To incorporate advanced technology
  3. (c) To ensure operational efficiency
  4. (d) To increase the government regulation in the private operation significantly
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To increase the government regulation in the private operation significantly

The PLI scheme was launched to boost domestic manufacturing and exports. Its primary goals include: - Attracting substantial investments in manufacturing - Incorporating advanced technology - Ensuring operational efficiency and boosting exports 'To increase government regulation in private operations significantly' is NOT a goal of PLI. In fact, PLI aims to reduce regulatory burden and encourage private sector participation with incentives.

Q214. In the late 1980s, the government of India approached an international Bank for Reconstruction and Development to tackle the economic crisis. That bank is also known as:

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) Asian Development Bank
  3. (c) World Trade Bank
  4. (d) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Bank

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is commonly known as the World Bank. India approached the World Bank (along with the IMF) in the late 1980s–early 1990s during its balance of payments crisis, which eventually led to the landmark economic reforms of 1991. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) are separate multilateral institutions.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 13 November 2025 Shift 3 · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q215. As of July 2025, which of the following central public sector enterprises is awarded with ' Navratna ' status?

  1. (a) Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited
  2. (b) Steel Authority of India Limited
  3. (c) Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
  4. (d) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited

Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers (RCF) Limited was awarded Navratna status by the Government of India as of July 2025. Navratna status grants CPSEs greater financial and operational autonomy. SAIL and REC already hold Navratna / Maharatna status; HPCL also has its own category — these were granted status at different times.

Q216. The target of National Logistics Policy is to improve India's Logistics performance index ranking to among top 25 countries by ___.

  1. (a) 2027
  2. (b) 2030
  3. (c) 2040
  4. (d) 2047
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2030

The National Logistics Policy (NLP), launched in September 2022, aims to bring India among the top 25 countries in the World Bank's Logistics Performance Index (LPI) by 2030. It also aims to reduce logistics costs from around 13-14% of GDP to below 8% of GDP. Why others are wrong: - 2027: Not the target year mentioned in the NLP. - 2040: Not the target year for the LPI ranking goal. - 2047: This is India's Viksit Bharat (Developed India) vision year, not the NLP LPI target.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 13 November 2025 Shift 2 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q217. What is a capital goods industry?

  1. (a) Industry that deals in external commercial borrowings
  2. (b) Industry that exports food products
  3. (c) Industry that processes raw agricultural products
  4. (d) Industry producing machines and tools
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Industry producing machines and tools

Capital goods are durable goods used in the production of other goods and services. A capital goods industry is one that produces machinery, equipment, tools, and other durable items used in manufacturing — such as machine tools, industrial machinery, and plant equipment. Why others are wrong: - Option : External commercial borrowings relate to finance, not a type of goods-producing industry. - Option : Exporting food products describes an agro -export industry, not a capital goods industry. - Option : Processing raw agricultural products describes agro -processing industries.

Q218. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The 1991 reforms led to the opening of the Indian economy to foreign investors.
Reason(R): The government wanted to increase domestic savings rate rapidly.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Assertion is correct: the 1991 LPG reforms opened the Indian economy to foreign investment.
Reason is false: the reforms were driven by the balance of payments crisis and the need for foreign exchange/efficiency, not primarily to boost domestic savings.
Hence A is true but R is false.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 24 September 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q219. The "Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme" has been introduced for various sectors in India. What is the primary goal behind the implementation of this scheme?

  1. (a) To reduce the fiscal deficit of the government.
  2. (b) To boost domestic manufacturing and attract investments.
  3. (c) To promote exports of agricultural commodities.
  4. (d) To improve the skill development of the workforce.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To boost domestic manufacturing and attract investments.

The PLI scheme provides financial incentives to companies based on incremental sales of domestically manufactured products.
Its primary goal is to boost domestic manufacturing, attract investments and make India a global manufacturing hub.
It is not directly aimed at fiscal deficit, agriculture exports, or skill development.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 1 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q220. What was the main objective of the Industrial Policy of 1956?

  1. (a) Profit Maximization
  2. (b) Growth with equity
  3. (c) Laissez-faire policy
  4. (d) Open market reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Growth with equity

Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 was based on the socialist pattern. Main objective: Growth with equity — development while reducing inequalities.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 1 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q221. Which plan gave prominence to the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, emphasizing the 'commanding heights' doctrine?

  1. (a) First Five Year Plan
  2. (b) Second Five Year Plan
  3. (c) Third Five Year Plan
  4. (d) Fourth Five Year Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Second Five Year Plan

Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), based on Mahalanobis Model, gave prominence to IPR 1956 and the 'commanding heights' doctrine (state control of key industries).

Q222. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): One objective of liberalisation was to remove barriers to entry and growth of firms.
Reason(R): The license raj restricted entrepreneurial freedom and market competition.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion is correct: liberalisation in 1991 aimed at removing entry barriers and easing firm growth.
Reason is correct: the pre-1991 license raj indeed restricted entrepreneurial freedom and competition.
Reason properly explains Assertion — the removal of license-raj barriers was a key reason behind liberalisation.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 3 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q223. What was the central theme of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?

  1. (a) Full privatisation of industry
  2. (b) Import-led growth strategy
  3. (c) State control of commanding heights of the economy
  4. (d) Promoting consumer goods industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State control of commanding heights of the economy

The IPR 1956 (the "economic constitution" of independent India) gave a dominant role to the public sector.
It aimed at state control over the commanding heights of the economy (basic and strategic industries).

Q224. What was the major short-term objective of the stabilization measures in the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Increase agricultural production
  2. (b) Enhance social sector spending
  3. (c) Control inflation and restore balance of payments
  4. (d) Privatize public sector units
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Control inflation and restore balance of payments

The 1991 stabilization measures, undertaken at the height of the balance-of-payments crisis, aimed primarily at controlling inflation and restoring external balance (the BoP situation).
Long-term structural reforms (LPG) addressed the deeper issues.

Q225. Privatization in India through disinvestment refers to:

  1. (a) Complete closure of public enterprises
  2. (b) Issuing bonds to private investors
  3. (c) Selling part of government equity to public or private entities
  4. (d) Merging public and private sectors
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Selling part of government equity to public or private entities

Disinvestment means the government sells part of its shareholding (equity) in a public-sector enterprise.
It is not closure, bond issuance, or merging of sectors.
Hence selling part of government equity is correct.

Q226. Which type of sale allows partial transfer of PSU ownership to private hands?

  1. (a) Minority sale
  2. (b) Complete sale
  3. (c) Auction
  4. (d) Leasing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Minority sale

Minority sale (disinvestment) — government sells less than 50% stake → ownership remains with the government, but a partial share goes to private hands.
Complete sale → full privatization.
Auction and Leasing are different mechanisms.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 3 · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q227. The term 'Navratnas' in public sector reform refers to:

  1. (a) Public enterprises given full privatization
  2. (b) Public enterprises granted autonomy for better performance
  3. (c) Subsidy-driven rural firms
  4. (d) Firms eligible for WTO support
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Public enterprises granted autonomy for better performance

The 'Navratna' status (introduced in 1997) refers to select profitable Central Public Sector Enterprises granted greater operational and financial autonomy to compete in the global market and improve performance.
They are not fully privatised, not subsidy-driven rural firms, and have nothing specific to WTO eligibility.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 2 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q228. Which of the followingcorrectlydescribes a heavy industry?

  1. (a) It uses light raw materials like cotton.
  2. (b) It produces light consumer goods.
  3. (c) Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.
  4. (d) It manufactures cosmetics and toiletries.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.

Heavy industries (e.g., iron and steel, cement, shipbuilding) use bulky raw materials and produce heavy capital goods/machinery.
Light industries use light raw materials (cotton, plastics) and produce consumer goods like cosmetics, toiletries.
Hence, Option 3 correctly describes heavy industry.

Q229. Which international organisations played a crucial role in triggering the 1991 economic reforms in India?

  1. (a) UN and WHO
  2. (b) World Bank and IMF
  3. (c) WTO and UNESCO
  4. (d) ADB and WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Bank and IMF

Facing a Balance of Payments crisis in 1991, India approached the IMF and the World Bank for emergency loans. Their structural adjustment conditions triggered the wide-ranging economic reforms (LPG — Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation).
Hence, World Bank and IMF is correct.

Q230. Which reform enabled MNCs to enter India?

  1. (a) Land Reform
  2. (b) Globalisation
  3. (c) Labour Law
  4. (d) Swadeshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Globalisation

Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG) reforms of 1991 opened the Indian economy to multinational companies.
Globalisation specifically reduced trade barriers and welcomed foreign investment.
Hence the answer isGlobalisation.

Q231. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The disinvestment policy has been widely criticized in India.
Reason(R): It resulted in increased market monopoly by public sector undertakings.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Disinvestment policy has indeed faced criticism on equity, valuation and strategic-asset grounds — A is true.
Disinvestment reduces (rather than increases) PSU monopoly by selling stakes — R is false.
Hence A is true but R is false.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 19 September 2025 Shift 2 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q232. The "National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy" aims to foster creativity and innovation in India. Which of the following is a key objective of this policy?

  1. (a) To discourage the filing of patents by domestic inventors to reduce bureaucratic hurdles.
  2. (b) To create public awareness about the economic, social, and cultural benefits of IPRs.
  3. (c) To solely focus on strengthening the enforcement mechanisms against counterfeiting and piracy.
  4. (d) To advocate for the abolition of international treaties related to intellectual property.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To create public awareness about the economic, social, and cultural benefits of IPRs.

The National IPR Policy 2016 emphasises awareness, generation, administration, enforcement and commercialisation of IPRs.
Creating public awareness about the economic, social and cultural benefits of IPRs is one of its key objectives.
Discouraging patent filing or abolishing international treaties is opposite to its aims, and 'solely' enforcement is too narrow.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 19 September 2025 Shift 3 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q233. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The New Economic Policy of 1991 resulted in the abolition of industrial licensing for most industries.
Reason(R): Licensing was re-imposed to regulate growing private sector monopolies.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

A is true — the 1991 New Economic Policy abolished industrial licensing for most industries (except a few strategic sectors).
R is false — licensing was abolished, not re-imposed; the reform was meant to remove the License Raj.
Hence A is true but R is false.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 1 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q234. Which of the following schemes or initiatives is conceptually different from the others in terms of its sectoral focus?

  1. (a) NSWS
  2. (b) LEADS
  3. (c) Gati Shakti
  4. (d) PMFBY
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) PMFBY

NSWS (National Single Window System), LEADS (Logistics Ease Across Different States), and Gati Shakti all relate to logistics/infrastructure.
PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana) is an agricultural crop insurance scheme — different sector. Answer: PMFBY
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 2 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q235. When was the first Industrial Policy announced in independent India?

  1. (a) 1948
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1951
  4. (d) 1952
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1948

The first Industrial Policy Resolution was announced on6 April 1948.
It defined the roles of the public and private sectors.
Hence the answer is1948.

Q236. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): Globalization led to increased inequality in India.
Reason(R): Growth was unevenly distributed, benefiting mostly urban elite and service sectors.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Globalisation in India did raise income inequality — A is true.
Benefits concentrated in urban/service sectors, leaving rural and informal workers behind — R is true.
R correctly explains why A happened.
Hence option 1 is correct.

Q237. Disinvestment involves selling stakes in?

  1. (a) NGOs
  2. (b) Private firms
  3. (c) Public enterprises
  4. (d) Trade unions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Public enterprises

Disinvestment refers to the government's sale of its equity in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).
It aims to reduce fiscal burden and improve efficiency.
Hence the answer isPublic enterprises.

Q238. . Economic liberalisation mainly affects which sector?

  1. (a) Primary and Tertiary
  2. (b) Primary and Secondary
  3. (c) Secondary and Tertiary
  4. (d) Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary

Economic liberalisation removes restrictions across the economy — opening up agriculture (primary), industry (secondary) and services (tertiary).
It encourages private and foreign investment in all three sectors.
Hence liberalisation affects the Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors.

Q239. . Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A):The 1991 reforms boosted India's foreign exchange reserves significantly.
Reason (R):Liberalized trade policies increased both exports and capital inflows.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

After the 1991 reforms, India's forex reserves rose sharply, so A is true.
Liberalized trade increased exports and attracted FDI/FII inflows, directly raising forex reserves, so R is true and is the correct explanation of A.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 17 September 2025 Shift 2 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q240. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the National Single Window System (NSWS) portal launched by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry?

  1. (a) To streamline pension disbursal mechanisms for unorganized workers
  2. (b) To facilitate industrial clearances and approvals through a single digital platform
  3. (c) To monitor school enrollments across states using Aadhaar linkage
  4. (d) To centralize water quality testing across urban and rural regions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To facilitate industrial clearances and approvals through a single digital platform

The National Single Window System (NSWS) is a digital platform for investors to apply for various central and state approvals, clearances and licenses at a single place.
It is launched by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
The other options describe unrelated initiatives, so they are incorrect.

Q241. The BOP crisis of1991involved a shortage of?

  1. (a) Water
  2. (b) Electricity
  3. (c) Foreign exchange
  4. (d) Labour
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Foreign exchange

The 1991 Balance of Payments (BOP) crisis in India was a severe shortage of foreign exchange reserves.
It led to the historic economic liberalisation reforms of 1991.
Hence the correct answer is Foreign exchange.

Q242. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India had to approach the IMF and World Bank in 1991 for a bailout loan.
Reason (R):Foreign exchange reserves had declined to the point that they could barely finance two weeks of imports.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

A is true — India did approach the IMF and World Bank for a bailout in 1991.
R is also true — forex reserves had fallen to a level that could fund only about two weeks of imports.
The reserve crunch directly caused the bailout approach,so R is the correct explanation of A.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 1 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q243. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The IPR 1956 created an industrial classification into Schedules A, B, and C.
Reason (R): This was to identify sectors for exclusive state control, joint sectors, and private sector operation.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

A is true – the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 divided industries into Schedules A (exclusive State), B (mixed) and C (private).
R is true – the classification’s purpose was to demarcate state, joint and private operation areas.
R correctly explains A.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 3 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q244. Which of the following pairs correctly represents agro -based industries?

  1. (a) Cement and Petrochemicals
  2. (b) Cotton textiles and Sugar
  3. (c) Jute textiles and Steel
  4. (d) Edible oil and Aluminium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Cotton textiles and Sugar

• Agro -based industries use agricultural produce as their primary raw material.
• Cotton Textiles → raw material is cotton (agricultural crop). ✓
• Sugar Industry → raw material is sugarcane (agricultural crop). ✓
• Cement → uses limestone (mineral-based industry). ✗
• Petrochemicals, Steel, Aluminium → all use mineral/metal ores. ✗
• Answer: Cotton textiles and Sugar
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 1 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q245. Which of the following is correctly classified as a consumer goods industry?

  1. (a) Iron and steel
  2. (b) Aluminium smelting
  3. (c) Toothpaste
  4. (d) Copper smelting
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Toothpaste

Consumer goods industries produce finished products for direct use by the end consumer (FMCG, toiletries, food, etc.).
Toothpaste manufacturing is a classic consumer goods (FMCG) industry.
Iron and steel, aluminium smelting and copper smelting are heavy / basic industries that produce intermediate goods, not goods for direct consumption.
Hence Toothpaste is the consumer goods industry.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q246. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The National Single Window System (NSWS) supports investor clearances.
Reason (R): It works as a separate ministry.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Assertion A: NSWS (National Single Window System) is a platform that helps investors obtain approvals and clearances easily. A is TRUE.
Reason R: NSWS is NOT a separate ministry. It is a portal run under the DPIIT (Dept for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade). R is FALSE.
Answer: A is true, but R is false.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 3 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q247. Which of the following statements best defines joint sector industries?

  1. (a) They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors
  2. (b) They are run by village panchayats and municipalities
  3. (c) They are fully financed by foreign companies
  4. (d) They are operated only by self-help groups
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors

Joint sector industries are enterprises that are jointly owned and operated by both the public sector (government) and private sector companies.
This combines government resources with private sector efficiency.
They are not run by panchayats or self-help groups alone.
Answer: They are jointly owned by the public and private sectors
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 1 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q248. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): India Industrial Land Bank provides GIS-based information.
Reason (R): It is managed by the Ministry of Mines.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

A is true: The India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) is a GIS-enabled portal that provides information about industrial plots and clusters across the country.
R is false: IILB is managed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not by the Ministry of Mines.
Since A is true and R is false, the correct option is option 3.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 2 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q249. Which of the following industry pairs is correctly grouped as heavy industries?

  1. (a) Sewing machines and Paint brushes
  2. (b) Shipbuilding and Automobile
  3. (c) Electric bulbs and Fuse wires
  4. (d) Watches and Paint brushes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shipbuilding and Automobile

• Classification of Industries:
• Heavy industries: Use large, heavy raw materials and produce heavy goods (e.g., iron and steel, shipbuilding, heavy machinery, automobiles).
• Light industries: Use lighter materials and produce consumer goods.
• Shipbuilding and Automobile are both heavy industries requiring large capital, heavy raw materials.
• Sewing machines, paint brushes, bulbs, fuse wires, watches = light industries.
• Answer: Shipbuilding and Automobile
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 1 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q250. Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?

  1. (a) Owned and operated by central government agencies.
  2. (b) Operated solely for export purposes.
  3. (c) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses
  4. (d) Maintained by foreign companies with Indian partnerships.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses

Cooperative sector industries are owned, managed and operated by their members (workers/suppliers/consumers) who share the profits and losses.
Examples include AMUL, IFFCO.
Hence, the answer is option 3.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 2 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q251. Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?

  1. (a) They process heavy ores and minerals.
  2. (b) They produce large-scale industrial machinery.
  3. (c) They require bulky and heavy raw materials.
  4. (d) Use light materials to make consumer goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Use light materials to make consumer goods

Light industries use comparatively less raw material, less power and produce small-volume / consumer-oriented goods such as garments, electronics, cosmetics, food products, etc.
Processing heavy ores, producing large-scale machinery and using bulky raw materials are characteristics of heavy industries.
Hence the correct statement is: 'Use light materials to make consumer goods.'
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 3 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q252. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Iron and steel is considered a heavy industry.
Reason (R): It requires lightweight raw materials like cotton and rubber.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

• Geography/Economics - Industry:
• Assertion A: Iron and steel IS a heavy industry — TRUE (uses heavy raw materials like iron ore, coal, limestone).
• Reason R: It does NOT use lightweight materials like cotton and rubber — FALSE. Cotton and rubber are raw materials for textile and rubber industries respectively.
• A is true, R is false → Option C

Q253. What three-part economic strategy defined India’s policy changes in the 1990s?

  1. (a) Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
  2. (b) Devolution, Decentralisation and Deregulation
  3. (c) Urbanisation, Industrialisation and Digitalisation
  4. (d) Nationalisation, Regulation and Protectionism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation

Q254. Why is infrastructure referred to as the 'wheels' of economic growth?

  1. (a) It enables delivery of goods, services and access.
  2. (b) It is part of international trade.
  3. (c) It helps in stabilising inflation.
  4. (d) It supports currency circulation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It enables delivery of goods, services and access.

Q255. What was the major aim of India’s 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) To stabilise India’s economy
  2. (b) To increase government control
  3. (c) To nationalise all companies
  4. (d) To reduce taxes on luxury goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To stabilise India’s economy

Q256. Which sector was most affected by liberalisation in India?

  1. (a) Industry and Services
  2. (b) Public Distribution
  3. (c) Agriculture
  4. (d) IT
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Industry and Services

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 2 · Industrial indices (IIP, core sectors)

Q257. Which of the following is NOT a component of India's core infrastructure sectors (as per Index of Eight Core Industries)?

  1. (a) Cement
  2. (b) Steel
  3. (c) Telecommunications
  4. (d) Electricity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Telecommunications

Q258. How has globalisation helped India’s exports?

  1. (a) Increased exports to other countries
  2. (b) Decreased them
  3. (c) Made no change
  4. (d) Banned exports
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increased exports to other countries

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q259. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme is aimed at boosting manufacturing. Which of the following sectors is NOT covered under the PLI scheme?

  1. (a) Automobiles
  2. (b) Electronics
  3. (c) Tourism
  4. (d) Pharmaceuticals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tourism

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 3 · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q260. Which government-owned organisation is primarily responsible for electricity transmission in India?

  1. (a) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
  2. (b) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
  3. (c) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  4. (d) Central Electricity Authority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited

Q261. In which year did India officially start economic liberalisation?

  1. (a) 1995
  2. (b) 1991
  3. (c) 2000
  4. (d) 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1991

Q262. What is the main aim of globalisation?

  1. (a) Integrate the Indian economy with the world
  2. (b) Increase local production
  3. (c) Limit foreign trade
  4. (d) Reduce employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Integrate the Indian economy with the world

Q263. Which of the following was NOT a part of the New Economic Policy reforms introduced in 1991?

  1. (a) Nationalisation of banks
  2. (b) Liberalisation
  3. (c) Privatisation
  4. (d) Globalisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nationalisation of banks

Q264. How did globalisation impact Indian industries?

  1. (a) Made them weaker
  2. (b) Closed them down
  3. (c) Banned private companies
  4. (d) Gave more competition and modern technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gave more competition and modern technology

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 3 · Industrial indices (IIP, core sectors)

Q265. Infrastructure development is essential for sustaining high growth and reducing regional disparities. Which of the following sectors is NOT typically included in the core infrastructure sectors in India?

  1. (a) Tourism
  2. (b) Electricity
  3. (c) Iron and Steel
  4. (d) Cement
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tourism

Q266. What does globalisation mainly mean in economic terms?

  1. (a) Stopping foreign investment
  2. (b) Limiting trade
  3. (c) Connecting to the world economy
  4. (d) Closing borders
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Connecting to the world economy

Q267. Which of the following was NOT a component of globalisation in India's economic reforms?

  1. (a) Allowing foreign technology
  2. (b) Liberalising imports
  3. (c) Promoting local-only trade
  4. (d) Encouraging foreign direct investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promoting local-only trade

Q268. Which of the following is an example of globalisation in India post-1991?

  1. (a) Licensing requirement for all businesses
  2. (b) Nationalisation of major private banks
  3. (c) Closure of ports
  4. (d) Entry of multinational companies like Amazon and Apple
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Entry of multinational companies like Amazon and Apple

Q269. What was one of the key effects of globalisation on the Indian economy after 1991?

  1. (a) Reduction in foreign exchange reserves
  2. (b) Closure of Indian banks
  3. (c) Decrease in exports
  4. (d) Entry of foreign companies and capital
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Entry of foreign companies and capital

Q270. The foreign exchange crisis forced India to seek external support. Which institution provided India a loan during the 1991 crisis?

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) ADB
  3. (c) IMF
  4. (d) WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) IMF

Q271. Which statement best describes a key feature of a Public-Private Partnership (PPP)?

  1. (a) Government and private entities share responsibilities and risks efficiently.
  2. (b) Only public sector entities can participate in PPPs.
  3. (c) PPPs are only used for purely social (non-commercial) projects.
  4. (d) The public partner fully finances a project, while the private partner has no risk.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Government and private entities share responsibilities and risks efficiently.

Q272. A primary goal of LPG reforms was macroeconomic stabilisation. Which indicator improved significantly post-1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Revenue deficit
  2. (b) Fiscal deficit
  3. (c) Foreign exchange reserves
  4. (d) Rural unemployment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Foreign exchange reserves

Q273. What was a major challenge faced by the Indian manufacturing sector after liberalisation?

  1. (a) Shortage of raw materials
  2. (b) Decline in capital inflow
  3. (c) Increased competition from cheaper imports
  4. (d) High industrial licensing fees
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increased competition from cheaper imports

Q274. What is the most direct impact of poor infrastructure on rural education?

  1. (a) Low awareness about schemes
  2. (b) High student absenteeism
  3. (c) Lack of trained teachers
  4. (d) Poor mid-day meals
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) High student absenteeism

Q275. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The New Economic Policy of 1991 led to more efficient and competitive markets in India.
Reason (R): Privatization reduced government control and improved productivity in public enterprises.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991 — comprising Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) — transformed India's economy. By dismantling the License Raj, opening markets to competition, and integrating with the global economy, it led to more efficient and competitive markets, higher growth rates, and increased FDI.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Privatization (disinvestment of PSUs, allowing private sector competition in previously reserved sectors) reduced government control over commercial enterprises, introduced market discipline, improved productivity, and reduced fiscal burden of loss-making PSUs. Examples: Maruti Suzuki, VSNL, Air India disinvestment process.
R correctly explains A: The privatization and deregulation components of NEP 1991 are directly responsible for creating more efficient and competitive markets — R is the correct explanation of why markets became more efficient (A).
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q276. Which of the following is a private sector organisation in India?

  1. (a) ONGC
  2. (b) Indian Railways
  3. (c) SAIL
  4. (d) TISCO
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) TISCO

Q277. What happened to employment opportunities after the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Only grew in agriculture
  2. (b) Decreased in all sectors
  3. (c) Increased, especially in private and service sectors
  4. (d) Stayed the same
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increased, especially in private and service sectors

Q278. In which of the following years did the Government of India disinvest 51% of shares of Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO) to Sterlite Industries (India) Limited, now Vedanta Limited?

  1. (a) 2001
  2. (b) 2004
  3. (c) 1997
  4. (d) 2008
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2001

Q279. Which of the following sectors has been classified as infrastructure by the Government of India for improved financing access?

  1. (a) Education
  2. (b) Retail
  3. (c) Warehousing
  4. (d) Apparel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Warehousing

Q280. Which of the following sectors contributed significantly to India’s GDP growth after the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Public sector enterprises
  2. (b) Services sector
  3. (c) Cottage industries
  4. (d) Agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Services sector

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 3 · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q281. In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution that gave importance to the public sector adopted?

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1951
  3. (c) 1956
  4. (d) 1991
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1956

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 3 · Industrial indices (IIP, core sectors)

Q282. The government tracks the performance of eight core industries to monitor industrial activity. What is the approximate weight of the core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?

  1. (a) 40%
  2. (b) 20%
  3. (c) 45%
  4. (d) 30%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 40%

Q283. Developing countries have often experienced mixed outcomes from globalisation. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of globalisation for developing economies?

  1. (a) Export growth
  2. (b) Transfer of technology
  3. (c) Unequal income distribution
  4. (d) Job creation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Unequal income distribution

Q284. How did globalisation affect India’s economic growth?

  1. (a) Had no effect
  2. (b) Slowed it down
  3. (c) Made it grow faster
  4. (d) Reduced GDP
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Made it grow faster

Q285. Which organisation’s support was crucial in India’s globalisation process post 1991 economic crisis?

  1. (a) IMF
  2. (b) UNICEF
  3. (c) UNESCO
  4. (d) WHO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IMF

Q286. Liberalisation reduced government control over economic activities. What did liberalisation in 1991 primarily aim to eliminate?

  1. (a) Public sector employment
  2. (b) Industrial licensing and quota system
  3. (c) Banking services
  4. (d) Agricultural subsidies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Industrial licensing and quota system

Q287. What is the primary function of infrastructure in an economy?

  1. (a) Entertainment and tourism
  2. (b) Luxury consumption
  3. (c) Industrial and economic functioning
  4. (d) Political campaigns
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Industrial and economic functioning

Q288. Which of the following best defines globalisation in the context of post 1991 economic reforms in India?

  1. (a) Integration of Indian economy with the global economy
  2. (b) Closing down of multinational companies
  3. (c) Promotion of domestic trade only
  4. (d) Restriction on foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Integration of Indian economy with the global economy

Q289. Which institution played a major role in supporting India’s liberalisation policy during the 1991 crisis?

  1. (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. (b) Election Commission of India
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Q290. What is the key reason governments promote Public-Private Partnerships in infrastructure development?

  1. (a) To privatise all national resources
  2. (b) To improve efficiency and innovation through private sector expertise
  3. (c) Due to lack of trained manpower
  4. (d) To address fiscal constraints and reduce liabilities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To improve efficiency and innovation through private sector expertise

Q291. Which sector in India saw significant growth due to globalisation and outsourcing after the 1990s?

  1. (a) Mining
  2. (b) IT and Services
  3. (c) Real Estate
  4. (d) Agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IT and Services

Q292. Which institution played a key role in influencing the structural reforms of the industrial sector in India post 1991?

  1. (a) RBI
  2. (b) IMF and World Bank
  3. (c) NABARD
  4. (d) WTO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IMF and World Bank

Q293. Why is infrastructure referred to as a 'universal intermediate'?

  1. (a) It is the most profitable sector.
  2. (b) It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.
  3. (c) It is universally available in every country.
  4. (d) It connects urban and rural areas.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.

Q294. Which of the following is considered a major social development outcome of India’s economic reforms since 1991?

  1. (a) Improvement in life expectancy
  2. (b) Widening of fiscal deficit
  3. (c) Increase in poverty rate
  4. (d) Decrease in literacy rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Improvement in life expectancy

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q295. The Make in India initiative aims to boost domestic manufacturing. In which year was the 'Make in India' campaign launched?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2016
  4. (d) 2012
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2014

Q296. Which major Indian company was privatised in the 2000s under the Government of India’s disinvestment policy?

  1. (a) BSNL
  2. (b) Maruti Udyog Limited
  3. (c) ISRO
  4. (d) LIC
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maruti Udyog Limited

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 3 · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q297. Which initiative is intended to encourage domestic manufacturing and attract foreign investment?

  1. (a) Startup India
  2. (b) Digital India
  3. (c) Make in India
  4. (d) Skill India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Make in India

Q298. Privatisation under the 1991 reforms primarily involved:

  1. (a) selling government shares in public sector enterprises
  2. (b) increasing agricultural subsidies
  3. (c) nationalising private companies
  4. (d) reducing bank interest rates
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) selling government shares in public sector enterprises

Q299. Globalisation influenced consumer choices in India. Which trend reflects the impact of globalisation on Indian consumers?

  1. (a) Monopolisation of FMCG
  2. (b) Decline in foreign goods
  3. (c) Wider availability of international brands
  4. (d) Less brand diversity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Wider availability of international brands

Q300. Which Indian Prime Minister is closely associated with initiating the 1991 LPG reforms?

  1. (a) PV Narasimha Rao
  2. (b) Rajiv Gandhi
  3. (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  4. (d) Indira Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) PV Narasimha Rao

1234

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