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Emergency and Centre-State Relations PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

140 Emergency and Centre-State Relations (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions – page 2 of 2.

📚 140 questionsSSC 95 · Railway 45
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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q101. Which Article allows Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List during a National Emergency?

  1. (a) Article 250
  2. (b) Article 256
  3. (c) Article 254
  4. (d) Article 352
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 250

Article 250 empowers Parliament to make laws on subjects in the State List for any part of India during the operation of a National Emergency.
Article 352 is about proclamation of National Emergency; Article 254 deals with inconsistency between Union and State laws; Article 256 deals with executive direction.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q102. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) If a State law on a Concurrent List subject is reserved for the President and receives assent, it overrides the existing Union law on the same subject in that state.
2) Parliament can later nullify such a State law by passing another law on the same subject.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Article 254(2) provides that a State law on a Concurrent List subject, if reserved for and assented to by the President, prevails over the existing Union law in that State – Statement 1 correct.
The proviso further says Parliament may later add to, amend, vary or repeal such State law – Statement 2 correct.
Hence both statements are correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q103. Article 246A gives power to both Parliament and State to make laws on _____.

  1. (a) Property Rights
  2. (b) Taxation of Goods and Services
  3. (c) Emergency Provisions
  4. (d) Criminal Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Taxation of Goods and Services

Article 246A was inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) to introduce GST.
It gives both Parliament and State Legislatures concurrent power to make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax — i.e., the taxation of goods and services.
Property rights, emergency provisions and criminal law are dealt with by other Articles.
Hence Article 246A pertains to the Taxation of Goods and Services.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 2 · Administrative relations

Q104. Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State legislatures is correct?

  1. (a) The State legislature can legislate on matters enumerated in the Union List
  2. (b) The Union legislature can legislate on matters in the Concurrent List only with State approval
  3. (c) The Union Government can issue directions to the States under Article 256
  4. (d) The Union and States have equal powers on matters in the Union List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Union Government can issue directions to the States under Article 256

Article 256 empowers the Union Government to issue directions to States to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament.
Option 1 — wrong: only Parliament can legislate on the Union List (Article 246).
Option 2 — wrong: Parliament can legislate on Concurrent List subjects without State approval; in case of conflict, Union law prevails.
Option 4 — wrong: Union List subjects are exclusively in the Union's domain.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 3 · Inter-state water disputes and inter-state trade

Q105. Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following interpretations most accurately reflects Parliament's authority regarding inter-State water disputes?

  1. (a) Legislate on river navigation but not bar SC jurisdiction
  2. (b) Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review
  3. (c) Abolish State-level water bodies permanently
  4. (d) Mandate ISC mediation before court action
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review

Article 262 of the Indian Constitution deals with adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers.
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute relating to use, distribution or control of waters of any inter-State river.
Parliament may also by law bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court in respect of such disputes.
Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 was enacted under this article.
Answer: Set up tribunals for water disputes and bar SC review
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 1 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q106. Which of the following commissions recommended the establishment of a Permanent Secretariat for the Inter-State Council to institutionalize Centre–State cooperation?

  1. (a) Rajamannar Committee
  2. (b) Punchhi Commission
  3. (c) Sarkaria Commission
  4. (d) Venkatachelliah Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission

The Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State Relations (1983–88) recommended setting up a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263, with its own permanent secretariat, to institutionalise consultation between the Union and the States.
On its recommendation, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990.
The Rajamannar Committee was a Tamil Nadu state-level committee; the Punchhi and Venkatachelliah commissions dealt with later issues.
Hence the correct answer is the Sarkaria Commission.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q107. Which of the following correctly reflects the legal implication of Article 255 regarding presidential or governor's assent to bills?

  1. (a) State law is void without written Governor assent.
  2. (b) Mention of assent is mandatory for validity.
  3. (c) Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.
  4. (d) President's assent must precede legislative passage to be valid.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.

• Article 255 of Indian Constitution:
• Article 255 states that any act of Parliament or State Legislature shall not be invalid merely because of non-compliance with requirements regarding prior recommendation/sanction IF the required assent is given.
• Key principle: Omission of prior recommendation does NOT invalidate a law if the required assent (President's or Governor's) has been given.
• Answer: Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q108. Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?

  1. (a) Union List
  2. (b) State List
  3. (c) Concurrent List
  4. (d) Judicial List
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Concurrent List

Before the 42nd Amendment (1976), Education was a State subject.
After the 42nd Amendment, Education was shifted to the Concurrent List.
Hence, the answer is Concurrent List.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q109. Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct?
1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST.
2) After the 101st Constitutional Amendment, Article 270 includes provisions for distributing revenue from Union taxes and GST.
3) The GST Compensation Cess is also shared between the Union and States under Article 270.

  1. (a) 1 and 3 only
  2. (b) 1 Only
  3. (c) 1 & 2 only
  4. (d) 2 & 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 & 2 only

Statement 1: Article 270 deals with the distribution of net proceeds of Union taxes between the Union and the States, and after the 101st Amendment also covers GST. Correct.
Statement 2: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 amended Article 270 to bring Union taxes and the Union's share of IGST into the divisible pool for sharing with States. Correct.
Statement 3: The GST Compensation Cess is collected separately under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 and credited to the Compensation Fund — it is not part of the divisible pool under Article 270. Incorrect.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct → option '1 & 2 only'.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q110. Schedule VII of the Constitution contains _____.

  1. (a) Election guidelines
  2. (b) Three legislative lists
  3. (c) Emergency powers
  4. (d) Judicial provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three legislative lists

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists:
Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
Election guidelines are in the Tenth/relevant articles, emergency powers in Articles 352–360, and judicial provisions in Part V/VI — none of these are in Schedule VII.
Hence the correct answer is Three legislative lists.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q111. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by each House within how many months?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 6
  4. (d) 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1

• Indian Polity - Article 352:
• When a National Emergency is proclaimed, it must be approved by both Houses of Parliament.
• The approval must be obtained within ONE MONTH of the proclamation.
• Approval requires a special majority (2/3 of members present and voting + more than 50% of total membership).
• Answer: 1 month
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q112. What is the nature of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Both the Centre and the States can legislate
  2. (b) Exclusively for Union
  3. (c) Only during emergencies
  4. (d) Exclusively for States
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both the Centre and the States can legislate

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q113. The division of subjects between the Union and the States is laid out in which Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Schedule X
  2. (b) Schedule V
  3. (c) Schedule IX
  4. (d) Schedule VII
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Schedule VII

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q114. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States?

  1. (a) Article 246
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 280
  4. (d) Article 240
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 246

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q115. Under Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution, a State law repugnant to a Central law can prevail in the State only if:

  1. (a) it is reserved for the President’s consideration and gets his assent
  2. (b) it is certified by the Governor as necessary for public welfare
  3. (c) it is published in the State Gazette after legislative approval
  4. (d) it is passed by a special majority in the State Legislature
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) it is reserved for the President’s consideration and gets his assent

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q116. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) Banking
  2. (b) Defence
  3. (c) Police
  4. (d) Criminal law
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Criminal law

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q117. Match the financial power/body with its primary function:
List I (Power/Body) — List II (Function)
1. Finance Commission — P. Discretionary grants
2. Art. 282 — Q. Unexpected expenses
3. Consolidated Fund — R. Tax distribution
4. Contingency Fund — S. All Union revenues

  1. (a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
  2. (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
  3. (c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P
  4. (d) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
1. Finance Commission (R – Tax distribution): The Finance Commission (Article 280) is a constitutional body that recommends distribution of central tax revenues between the Union and states, and principles for grants-in-aid. Its primary function is tax devolution/distribution. Match: 1-R.
2. Article 282 (P – Discretionary grants): Article 282 empowers both Union and States to make grants for public purposes even if not within their legislative competence. These are discretionary grants given for special purposes. Match: 2-P.
3. Consolidated Fund of India (S – All Union revenues): Article 266 — all revenues received by the Union government, all loans raised, and all money received in repayment of loans flow into the Consolidated Fund of India. It contains all Union government receipts. Match: 3-S.
4. Contingency Fund of India (Q – Unexpected expenses): Article 267 — the Contingency Fund is placed at the disposal of the President for meeting unforeseen/emergent expenditure pending parliamentary authorization. Match: 4-Q.
Correct: 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q = Option A.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q118. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India?

  1. (a) Article 245
  2. (b) Article 250
  3. (c) Article 256
  4. (d) Article 249
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 245

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q119. Which of the following Amendments made Education a subject in the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 86ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 52ⁿᵈ Amendment
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 1 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q120. The Sarkaria Commission primarily focussed on strengthening which type of federalism in India?

  1. (a) Fiscal federalism
  2. (b) Competitive federalism
  3. (c) Unitary federalism
  4. (d) Co-operative federalism
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Co-operative federalism

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 2 · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q121. What was one recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission regarding Governors?

  1. (a) Governors should be military officers.
  2. (b) Governors should only be politicians.
  3. (c) Governors should be non-partisan.
  4. (d) Governors should be elected by States.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Governors should be non-partisan.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q122. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the legislative allocation of co-operative societies in the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) It is a subject in the Union List.
  2. (b) It falls under the Residuary (Union) List.
  3. (c) It is a subject in the State List.
  4. (d) It is a subject in the Concurrent List.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is a subject in the State List.

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q123. Which of the following subjects was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Education
  3. (c) Police
  4. (d) Public health
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Education

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 August 2025 Shift 2 · Administrative relations

Q124. Who has the power to give directions to the State Government to ensure compliance with Union laws?

  1. (a) Parliament of India
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) Prime Minister of India
  4. (d) Supreme Court of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President of India

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q125. Which level of government generally legislates on matters such as police, public health and agriculture in India?

  1. (a) Union Government
  2. (b) Inter-State Council
  3. (c) Local Bodies
  4. (d) State Legislatures
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) State Legislatures

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 August 2025 Shift 1 · Financial relations

Q126. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with financial relations between the Centre and the States?

  1. (a) Part XIII
  2. (b) Part XII
  3. (c) Part X
  4. (d) Part XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part XII

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q127. In which list of the Seventh Schedule does the Central Government have exclusive power to legislate?

  1. (a) State List
  2. (b) Union List
  3. (c) Residual List
  4. (d) Concurrent List
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Union List

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 2 August 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q128. Identify the correct option based on given statements:
Assertion (A): The Union Government alone can legislate on matters related to the deployment and jurisdiction of armed forces within Indian states.
Reason (R): The Constitution includes the deployment of Union forces in aid of civil power, regulation of cantonments, and control over arms and atomic energy in the Union List.

  1. (a) A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A
  2. (b) A and R both true, but R is not the appropriate explanation for A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A

Correct Answer: Option 1 – A and R are correct, and R is the correct reason for A
Assertion A is CORRECT: Under Entry 1 of the Union List (Seventh Schedule), defense of India and the armed forces are exclusively under the Union Government's legislative jurisdiction.
Reason R is CORRECT and explains A: The Union List specifically includes Entry 2A (deployment of armed forces in aid of civil power), Entry 3 (Army, Navy, Air Force, and other armed forces), Entry 25 (arms, firearms, ammunition and explosives), and Entry 41 (atomic energy). These provisions collectively explain why the Union alone can legislate on armed forces matters.
Since both A and R are true and R correctly explains A, Option 1 is the right answer.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 2 August 2025 Shift 3 · President's Rule (Article 356)

Q129. Which Article allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state?

  1. (a) Article 352
  2. (b) Article 356
  3. (c) Article 360
  4. (d) Article 365
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 356

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Article 356
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to impose President's Rule (also called State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency) in a state if the constitutional machinery in that state has failed. The President can assume executive functions of the state government on the recommendation of the Governor.
Option 1 (Article 352): Pertains to the proclamation of National Emergency (external aggression or armed rebellion).
Option 3 (Article 360): Pertains to the proclamation of Financial Emergency when the financial stability of India or any part thereof is threatened.
Option 4 (Article 365): States that if a state fails to comply with directions given by the Union government, it shall be lawful to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on — this supports Article 356 but is not the article that directly authorizes imposition of President's Rule.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 1 August 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q130. Which of the following topics falls under the State List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Defense and Armed Forces
  2. (b) Foreign affairs and international treaties
  3. (c) Currency, coinage, and legal tender
  4. (d) Police and public order
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Police and public order

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Police and public order
As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the State List (List II) contains subjects under exclusive state jurisdiction. 'Public order' (Entry 1) and 'Police' (Entry 2) are both in the State List.
Option 1 ( Defense and Armed Forces): Entry 1 of the Union List.
Option 2 (Foreign affairs and international treaties): Entry 10 of the Union List.
Option 3 (Currency, coinage, and legal tender): Entry 36 of the Union List.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 1 August 2025 Shift 2 · Financial relations

Q131. In India, which of the following statements is correct about the financial relationship between the Center and the States?

  1. (a) The Union Government has exclusive control over all types of taxation, including state taxes.
  2. (b) The States have no role in the allocation of taxes and resources, and all funds are directly managed by the Union.
  3. (c) The Union Government collects taxes and distributes them between the Union and the States through the Finance Commission.
  4. (d) States have the authority to impose taxes on defense, currency, and foreign trade.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Union Government collects taxes and distributes them between the Union and the States through the Finance Commission.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – The Union Government collects taxes and distributes them between the Union and the States through the Finance Commission.
Under Articles 280-281 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States. Certain central taxes (like income tax and GST) are shared with states based on this formula.
Option 1: Incorrect. States have their own taxing powers under the State List (e.g., land revenue, stamp duty, state GST).
Option 2: Incorrect. States actively participate in resource allocation through the Finance Commission recommendations.
Option 4: Incorrect. Defense, currency, and foreign trade are subjects in the Union List; states have no authority to tax these.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 1 August 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q132. Under which of the following circumstances can the Parliament of India legislate on the matters listed in the State List?

  1. (a) If there is a need to regulate local government elections
  2. (b) If there is a need to impose state-level taxes
  3. (c) If there is a need to appoint new state ministers
  4. (d) If there is a need to implement an international treaty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) If there is a need to implement an international treaty

Correct Answer: Option 4 – If there is a need to implement an international treaty
Article 253 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on any subject, including those in the State List, if necessary for implementing international treaties, agreements, or conventions. This is one of the key exceptions to the federal division of legislative powers.
Option 1 (Regulate local government elections): Local government is a state subject; Parliament cannot normally legislate on this.
Option 2 (Impose state-level taxes): Taxation subjects are distributed between Union and State Lists; Parliament cannot impose state taxes.
Option 3 (Appoint new state ministers): Appointment of state ministers is entirely within the state executive's domain.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 31 July 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q133. Which law prevails in case of a conflict between Union and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) Union law
  2. (b) State law
  3. (c) The latest law
  4. (d) Supreme Court decides every time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union law

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Union law
Under Article 254 of the Indian Constitution, if there is a repugnancy (conflict) between a law made by Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature on a subject in the Concurrent List (Schedule 7), the Parliamentary (Union) law shall prevail and the State law shall be void to the extent of repugnancy. Exception: If a State law on a Concurrent List subject has received the President's assent, the State law may prevail in that state — but Parliament can still override it by making a subsequent law. This principle of 'Union law prevails' maintains national uniformity on subjects listed in the Concurrent List (which includes criminal law, marriage, education, etc.).
Option 2 (State law): State law does NOT generally prevail over Union law on Concurrent List subjects.
Option 3 (The latest law): The 'latest law' doctrine applies only when the State law has received Presidential assent (Article 254(2)) — but even then Parliament can override it later.
Option 4 (Supreme Court decides every time): The Constitution has a clear rule (Article 254) — the Supreme Court interprets it but does not 'decide every time' as a matter of course.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 30 July 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q134. Which of the following subjects are included in the 'Union List/Center List' in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Police and public order
  2. (b) National defense and foreign affairs
  3. (c) Education and local government
  4. (d) Agriculture and rural development
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National defense and foreign affairs

Correct Answer: Option 2 – National defense and foreign affairs
The Union List (List I of the Seventh Schedule, Article 246) contains 97 subjects on which only Parliament can legislate. National defence and foreign affairs are core Union List subjects: Entry 1 ( Defence of India), Entry 10 (Foreign Affairs), Entry 11 (Diplomatic and consular representation), Entry 13 (Participation in international conferences), Entry 14 (Treaties and agreements with foreign countries), etc. These subjects are exclusively under Central Government jurisdiction.
Option 1 (Police and public order): Police (Entry 2) and Public order (Entry 1) are in the State List (List II) — states have exclusive jurisdiction.
Option 3 (Education and local government): Education was moved to the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 25) by the 42nd Amendment (1976). Local government is in the State List.
Option 4 (Agriculture and rural development): Agriculture (Entry 14) and land (Entry 18) are in the State List — states have jurisdiction over these.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 30 July 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q135. Under what circumstances can the Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?

  1. (a) When President issues an ordinance
  2. (b) During Financial Emergency
  3. (c) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
  4. (d) When Lok Sabha is dissolved
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution

Correct Answer: Option 3 – When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (by a 2/3 majority of members present and voting) declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List, Parliament can legislate on that State List subject for up to one year (extendable). Other circumstances where Parliament can legislate on State List subjects: National Emergency (Article 250); Two or more states request Parliament to legislate (Article 252); International treaty implementation (Article 253); President's Rule in a state (Article 356).
Option 1 (Presidential ordinance): Presidential ordinances (Article 123) deal with Parliament's legislative powers during recess — not a mechanism for Parliament to legislate on State List subjects.
Option 2 (Financial Emergency): Financial Emergency (Article 360) allows the Centre to give directions to states on financial matters but does not specifically enable Parliament to legislate on State List subjects.
Option 4 (Lok Sabha dissolved): Lok Sabha dissolution has no bearing on Parliament's jurisdiction over State List subjects.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 26 July 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q136. When there is a disagreement between Union and State laws on a matter listed in the Concurrent List, which law takes precedence?

  1. (a) State Law
  2. (b) Judiciary
  3. (c) President's Order
  4. (d) Union Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Union Law

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Union Law
Under Article 254 of the Indian Constitution, when there is a conflict/repugnancy between a Union (Central) law and a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List (Seventh Schedule), the Union law prevails (Parliamentary law takes precedence). The State law becomes void to the extent of its inconsistency with the Union law. However, if the President assents to a State law that is repugnant to a Central law, the State law may prevail in that state.
Option 1 (State Law): State law yields to Union law in case of conflict on Concurrent List subjects.
Option 2 (Judiciary): The judiciary interprets and adjudicates conflicts but does not legislate; the Constitution itself specifies that Union law prevails.
Option 3 (President's Order): Presidential assent may allow a State law to prevail in specific cases, but the general constitutional rule is that Union law takes precedence.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 24 July 2025 Shift 2 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q137. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the distribution of powers between Union and States?

  1. (a) Sixth Schedule
  2. (b) Seventh Schedule
  3. (c) Eighth Schedule
  4. (d) Tenth Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Seventh Schedule
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution (Article 246) contains three lists that divide legislative powers between the Union and States: Union List (List I) — subjects on which only Parliament can legislate (e.g., Defence , Foreign Affairs, Atomic Energy); State List (List II) — subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate (e.g., Police, Agriculture, Public Health); Concurrent List (List III) — subjects on which both Parliament and States can legislate (e.g., Education, Forests, Criminal Law).
Option 1 (Sixth Schedule): Contains provisions for administration of tribal areas in northeastern states (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram).
Option 3 (Eighth Schedule): Contains the list of 22 officially recognized languages of India.
Option 4 (Tenth Schedule): Contains provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection (Anti-Defection Law, added by 52nd Amendment, 1985).
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 24 July 2025 Shift 3 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q138. In case of a conflict between Central and State law on a Concurrent List subject, the State law prevails only if:

  1. (a) It is passed by a two-thirds majority
  2. (b) It has received Presidential assent
  3. (c) It is supported by a Supreme Court ruling
  4. (d) The Rajya Sabha passes it
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It has received Presidential assent

Correct Answer: Option 2 – It has received Presidential assent
Under Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution, if a State legislature passes a law on a Concurrent List subject that is repugnant to an existing Central law, the State law shall prevail in that state IF it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received Presidential assent. This is the only constitutional mechanism allowing a State law to override a Central law on Concurrent List subjects.
Option 1 (Two-thirds majority): The two-thirds majority requirement applies to Constitutional Amendments (Article 368); not for Concurrent List conflicts.
Option 3 (Supreme Court ruling): The Supreme Court interprets laws but does not grant supremacy to State laws through rulings in this manner.
Option 4 (Rajya Sabha passes it): Rajya Sabha is a Parliament house; its passing a law doesn't grant supremacy to State laws.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 17 June 2025 Shift 1 · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q139. According to Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, parliament has exclusive powers to make laws on subjects mentioned in which of the following lists?

  1. (a) Union List
  2. (b) Concurrent List
  3. (c) State List
  4. (d) Local List
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Union List

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 16 June 2025 Shift 3 · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q140. Which Constitutional Amendment explicitly inserted the term 'Cabinet' into the Indian Constitution in the context of Article 352?

  1. (a) 45ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1980
  2. (b) 44ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
  3. (c) 42ⁿᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
  4. (d) 43ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

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