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Polity Miscellaneous PYQs – Polity, SSC & Railway

176 Polity Miscellaneous (Polity) questions asked in recent SSC and Railway exams, newest first, with exam, date & shift, answers and solutions – page 2 of 2.

📚 176 questionsSSC 141 · Railway 35
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SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q101. What is the maximum time limit for completing the trial of a case under the POCSO Act?

  1. (a) 2 years
  2. (b) 1 year
  3. (c) 3 years
  4. (d) 6 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 year

The correct answer is option 2. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 , the law mandates that the trial of cases involving sexual offences against children must be completed within one year from the date the offence is reported. This provision ensures speedy justice for child victims and aims to reduce prolonged trauma caused by lengthy trials. The Act emphasizes child-friendly procedures, confidentiality, and time-bound investigation and trial to safeguard the best interests of the child.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q102. According to Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements is correct regarding the trial of offences under Sections 64 to 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Such offences are exclusively triable by Executive Magistrates.
  2. (b) The trial must be conducted by any police officer of the rank of DSP and above.
  3. (c) These offences shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a court presided over by a woman.
  4. (d) These offences must be tried only in a High Court under a male judge.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) These offences shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a court presided over by a woman.

According to Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 , the trial of offences under Sections 64 to 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 —which deal mainly with crimes against women—should, as far as practicable, be conducted in a court presided over by a woman judge . This provision has been made to ensure sensitivity, empathy, and fairness in handling cases involving women victims. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 7 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q103. Which entities are eligible to register under the FCRA?

  1. (a) Political parties
  2. (b) Government departments
  3. (c) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies
  4. (d) Only private companies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies

Under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010 , only certain non-profit entities are eligible to register and receive foreign contributions. These include Section 8 companies (non-profit companies under Companies Act, 2013) , registered trusts , and registered societies . The purpose of allowing these organizations is to ensure that foreign funds are used for charitable, social, educational, cultural, or religious activities . Political parties (Option 1) are prohibited from receiving foreign contributions to prevent political influence. Government departments (Option 2) are ineligible as they are funded by the state. Private companies (Option 4) are also ineligible unless they are incorporated as Section 8 non-profit companies . Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 .
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q104. Which principle of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 ensures that entities collecting personal data must obtain explicit consent from individuals?

  1. (a) Purpose Limitation
  2. (b) Data Localization
  3. (c) Notice and Choice Framework
  4. (d) Storage Reduction Compliance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Notice and Choice Framework

The correct answer is Notice and Choice Framework . Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, this principle requires entities collecting personal data to provide clear notice to individuals about how their data will be used and to obtain their explicit consent before processing it. This ensures that individuals have control over their personal information and can make informed choices. It establishes transparency and accountability for data fiduciaries. Other principles like Purpose Limitation deal with restricting use of data to specific purposes, Data Localization relates to storing data within the country, and Storage Reduction Compliance concerns minimizing data retention. Hence, only Notice and Choice Framework ensures explicit consent from individuals.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q105. Which of the following powers granted under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 extends beyond the scope of its predecessor, the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920?

  1. (a) Restricting identification procedures only to convicts
  2. (b) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data
  3. (c) Limiting law enforcement access to stored data
  4. (d) Allowing only fingerprints for crime investigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data

The correct answer is Permitting collection of biometric and biological data . The Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920 was very limited in scope, allowing only the collection of simple physical measurements like fingerprints and footprints of convicts. In contrast, the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 significantly expands the scope by authorising police and prison officials to collect a wide range of biometric and biological data, including iris scans, retina scans, facial recognition, DNA samples, behavioural attributes, and other modern identification techniques. This makes the 2022 Act more comprehensive and technology-driven, aligning with modern law enforcement requirements. This expansion has been justified on grounds of aiding investigation, improving conviction rates, and keeping pace with evolving crimes, though it has also raised debates regarding privacy and misuse of sensitive personal data.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q106. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, promotes e-filing and virtual trials to expedite the justice delivery system.
Reason (R): The integration of technology aims to reduce case pendency and enhance accessibility to justice.

  1. (a) A is false, but R is true.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has been introduced to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. One of its major reforms is the adoption of technology in the judicial process , including e-filing of cases, digital records, and virtual trials . The objective is to ensure speedy justice, reduce pendency of cases, and improve transparency in the system. The Reason (R) correctly explains the Assertion (A), because the promotion of e-filing and virtual trials (A) is indeed aimed at reducing pendency and enhancing accessibility (R). Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q107. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita introduces community service as a punishment for minor offences.
2. The scope of summary trials has been limited to only serious offences under the new law.
3. The reformative approach aims to ensure societal reintegration of offenders.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 1 and 3 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only . The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) in 2023, introduced several reforms in the criminal justice system. (1) For minor offences, the law has introduced community service as a punishment , marking a shift from purely punitive to reformative justice. (2) The statement about summary trials is incorrect—BNS has actually expanded the scope of summary trials to cover more petty offences for speedy justice, not limited them to serious offences. (3) The law also emphasizes a reformative approach , aiming for the rehabilitation and reintegration of offenders back into society. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while 2 is wrong.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q108. What is the punishment for abetment of an offense under the POCSO Act?

  1. (a) Community service
  2. (b) No punishment
  3. (c) Same punishment as the offense
  4. (d) Half the punishment prescribed for the offense
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Same punishment as the offense

The correct answer is Same punishment as the offense . Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, abetment of an offense is treated with the same seriousness as the commission of the actual offense. Section 16 of the Act defines abetment broadly, including instigation, conspiracy, or aiding the offense. Section 17 of the Act clearly states that the punishment for abetment will be the same as is prescribed for the offense itself . This ensures that individuals who encourage, plan, or support such crimes cannot escape with lesser punishment, reflecting the Act’s strict stance on protecting children from sexual exploitation.
SSC Stenographer 2025 – 6 December 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q109. If "a soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the law". According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, has he committed an offence?

  1. (a) Yes, because he could have disobeyed
  2. (b) No, because he followed public orders
  3. (c) No, because he believed in good faith that he was bound by law
  4. (d) Yes, because violence is punishable
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) No, because he believed in good faith that he was bound by law

According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 , a soldier who fires upon a mob under the lawful command of his superior officer does not commit an offence if the act is done in good faith believing that he is bound by law . The concept of "good faith" means that the soldier genuinely believes he is legally obligated to follow such an order. In such cases, liability rests with the authority that issued the command, not with the soldier who acted in obedience. This principle protects personnel in service from punishment when they act under lawful duty, provided there is no malicious intent.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 30 November 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q110. How many crimes under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 now include increased imprisonment terms?

  1. (a) 33
  2. (b) 43
  3. (c) 63
  4. (d) 13
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 33

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 33
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, increased imprisonment terms for 33 offences compared to the earlier provisions. The BNS also introduced new sections, enhanced punishments for certain crimes, and added provisions for organised crime and terrorism.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (43): Incorrect; the number of offences with increased imprisonment is 33.
Option 3 (63): Incorrect; this figure is higher than the actual number.
Option 4 (13): Incorrect; 13 is too low; the correct figure is 33.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 29 November 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q111. Which law replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
  2. (b) Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023
  3. (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023
  4. (d) Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam, 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, effective from 1 July 2024. It modernises criminal law with updated provisions and introduces new offences.
Why other options are wrong:
Option 2 (BNSS, 2023): The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Option 3 (BSA, 2023): The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Option 4 (Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam): This is not a real law; no such legislation exists.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 21 November 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q112. How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 contain?

  1. (a) 358
  2. (b) 558
  3. (c) 258
  4. (d) 458
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 358

Correct Answer: 358 (Option 1)
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 contains 358 sections. It replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 (which had 511 sections) and came into effect on July 1, 2024. BNS is one of three new criminal laws introduced to replace the colonial-era criminal justice system. The other two are Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 (replacing CrPC) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing Indian Evidence Act).
558, 258, and 458 are incorrect section counts for BNS.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 20 November 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q113. In September 2024, the Supreme Court has affirmed that the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, _____, applies to all women in India regardless of their religion or social background.

  1. (a) 2001
  2. (b) 2003
  3. (c) 2005
  4. (d) 2007
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2005

Correct Answer: 2005 (Option 3)
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was enacted in 2005. In September 2024, the Supreme Court affirmed that this Act applies to all women in India, regardless of their religion or social background, reinforcing its secular and universal character.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - 2001: Incorrect year; no such significant Act was enacted in 2001.
Option 2 - 2003: Incorrect year.
Option 4 - 2007: Incorrect year; the Act was enacted two years earlier.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 19 November 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q114. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been replaced by which law?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
  2. (b) Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023
  3. (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023
  4. (d) Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam, 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023

Correct Answer: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (Option 3)
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023. This is one of three new criminal laws enacted in 2023 to replace the colonial-era laws. BSA deals with evidence in courts and replaces the Indian Evidence Act of 1872.
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023: This replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, not the Evidence Act.
Option 2 - Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023: This replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, not the Evidence Act.
Option 4 - Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam, 2023: No such law exists in this context.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 15 November 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q115. What is the total number of sections in Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023?

  1. (a) 531
  2. (b) 558
  3. (c) 258
  4. (d) 333
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 531

The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, contains 531 sections. It came into force on 1 July 2024. Option 2 (558) is incorrect — this is not the section count of BNSS. Option 3 (258) is incorrect. Option 4 (333) is incorrect.
SSC CHSL Tier-1 2025 – 13 November 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q116. The code on social security extends social security to _____.

  1. (a) only central government employee
  2. (b) only state government employee
  3. (c) only private sector employee
  4. (d) organised or unorganised sector employee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) organised or unorganised sector employee

Correct Answer: organised or unorganised sector employee
The Code on Social Security, 2020 (one of the four Labour Codes) consolidates nine central labour laws related to social security. It extends social security benefits to workers in both the organised sector (formal employment) and the unorganised sector (informal employment), including gig workers, platform workers, and construction workers. This was a landmark expansion from the earlier laws that primarily covered only organised sector employees.
Why other options are wrong:
- Only central government employees: Too restrictive; the code covers both organised and unorganised sectors.
- Only state government employees: Too restrictive.
- Only private sector employees: Too restrictive; includes government workers too.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 October 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q117. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) now makes it mandatory for a police officer to give which type of information to a person arrested without a warrant?

  1. (a) Reason for arrest and right to bail (if applicable).
  2. (b) Details of the arresting officer's family.
  3. (c) Information about the case in a foreign language.
  4. (d) A list of all police stations in the district.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reason for arrest and right to bail (if applicable).

Under BNSS (which replaced CrPC), Section 47 mandates that a police officer arresting a person without a warrant must inform the person of the reason for arrest and their right to bail (if the offence is bailable).
Answer: Option 1
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 24 September 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q118. Which of the following is a key requirement for admissibility of an electronic record under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), even if it's a secondary evidence?

  1. (a) It must be handwritten and notarized
  2. (b) It must be part of a hard drive submitted to court
  3. (c) It must be published in the Gazette
  4. (d) It must be accompanied by a certificate
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It must be accompanied by a certificate

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, an electronic record can be admitted as evidence only when it is accompanied by a certificate (similar to Section 65B of the old Evidence Act).
The certificate authenticates the device and the electronic record.
Handwriting/notarisation, court submission, or Gazette publication are not the requirements.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 24 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q119. What does the term "Zero FIR" imply under the new law?

  1. (a) FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction
  2. (b) FIR can be withdrawn at zero cost
  3. (c) FIR can be digitally deleted if not verified
  4. (d) FIR can be filed without police verification
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction

A "Zero FIR" allows the victim to lodge an FIR at any police station irrespective of where the crime took place; it is later transferred to the police station having jurisdiction.
It is not about cost, deletion or skipping verification.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q120. Under the BSA, 2023, oral evidence must be:

  1. (a) Direct and related to what the witness saw or heard
  2. (b) Based on assumptions
  3. (c) Only admissible if in English
  4. (d) Hearsay only
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Direct and related to what the witness saw or heard

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, oral evidence must be direct — what the witness himself saw, heard or perceived.
Hearsay evidence is generally not admissible.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 23 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q121. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark thecorrectoptions:
Assertion(A): The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam recognizes electronic records as primary evidence.
Reason(R): Section 62 states that electronic records are secondary unless accompanied by a printed certificate.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, R is false.

A is true: under BSA 2023, electronic records are recognised as primary (documentary) evidence.
R is false: Section 62 actually treats electronic records as primary, not secondary.
Hence A is true but R is false.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 22 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q122. Which of the following changes has been introduced to ensure faster trials under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita?

  1. (a) Video recording of statements
  2. (b) Ban on legal representation
  3. (c) Removal of judges
  4. (d) Delay in filing chargesheets
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Video recording of statements

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces several reforms to speed up trials, including mandatory video recording of statements (especially of survivors of certain offences) and time-bound proceedings.
Hence video recording of statements is one such change.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 22 September 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q123. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 has been enacted to replace which previous law?

  1. (a) Indian Penal Code
  2. (b) Contract Act, 1872
  3. (c) Consumer Protection Act
  4. (d) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Evidence Act, 1872

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
The Indian Penal Code was replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
The Contract Act and Consumer Protection Act are unrelated to this reform.
Hence the answer is Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 22 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q124. What is one of the major reforms introduced in BNSS, 2023 with respect to FIRs?

  1. (a) FIRs must be filed by a judge
  2. (b) E-FIRs are permitted for certain offenses
  3. (c) FIRs are no longer required for non-cognizable offenses
  4. (d) FIRs can only be filed physically at police stations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) E-FIRs are permitted for certain offenses

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 allows electronic filing of FIRs (e-FIR/Zero FIR) for certain offences.
This makes registration faster and location-independent.
The other options misstate the law.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q125. Which major legal framework does the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, seek to align with in recognizing electronic evidence?

  1. (a) The Information Technology Act, 2000
  2. (b) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  3. (c) The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008
  4. (d) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Information Technology Act, 2000

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (replacing IEA 1872) updates rules for electronic evidence and aligns with the IT Act, 2000 in recognizing electronic records.
Other Acts are unrelated to electronic evidence frameworks.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 21 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q126. What technological advancement is explicitly incorporated in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 for faster justice delivery?

  1. (a) Use of blockchain in contracts
  2. (b) Electronic recording of witness testimony
  3. (c) Live broadcast of trials
  4. (d) Use of drones for crime scene inspection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electronic recording of witness testimony

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 explicitly provides for electronic/audio-video recording of witness testimony, search and seizure, and statements, to speed up justice delivery.
Blockchain in contracts, live broadcast of trials, and drone use for crime scene inspection are not provisions explicitly included in the BNSS.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q127. Which of the following witness types is formally recognised in the BSA, 2023?

  1. (a) Political representatives
  2. (b) Character witnesses only
  3. (c) Mythological witnesses
  4. (d) Expert witnesses such as forensic analysts
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Expert witnesses such as forensic analysts

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 formally recognises expert witnesses such as forensic analysts under provisions equivalent to Section 45 of the earlier Evidence Act.
The other options are not recognised witness categories.
Hence, Option 4 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 20 September 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q128. Which law replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) Uniform Civil Code
  2. (b) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  3. (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  4. (d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Uniform Civil Code is a proposed civil law, not related to IPC.
Hence, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is the correct answer.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q129. In Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita (BNSS), which court may grant default bail after time limit lapses?

  1. (a) District Court
  2. (b) Magistrate
  3. (c) High Court
  4. (d) Gram Nyayalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Magistrate

Under BNSS, if investigation is not completed within the prescribed time limit (60/90 days), the Magistrate grants default bail. Answer: Magistrate
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 18 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q130. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) was introduced as part of:

  1. (a) The effort to codify personal laws.
  2. (b) The effort to modernize and decolonize India's criminal justice system.
  3. (c) The new taxation policy.
  4. (d) A trade agreement.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The effort to modernize and decolonize India's criminal justice system.

• BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 (a colonial-era law).
• It was introduced to modernize and decolonize India's criminal justice system.
• The reform package includes: BNS (replaced IPC), BNSS (replaced CrPC), BSA (replaced Indian Evidence Act).
• Answer: Effort to modernize and decolonize India's criminal justice system
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 16 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q131. Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS), the period for default bail in minor offences is capped at?

  1. (a) 30 days
  2. (b) 45 days
  3. (c) 60 days
  4. (d) 90 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 60 days

• BNSS (New Criminal Law 2023):
• Default bail (Section 479 BNSS) provisions:
• For minor offences (punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years): If trial is not completed and the accused has been in custody for 1/3 of the maximum period of imprisonment, they are entitled to bail.
• Under BNSS, for minor offences, the maximum custody period before default bail is capped at 60 days.
• Answer: 60 days
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 2 · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q132. Consider the following statements:
1. Delegated legislation is made by administrative authorities.
2. It cannot be challenged in a court of law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Statement 1 is correct – delegated legislation (rules, regulations, by-laws) is framed by executive/administrative authorities under powers conferred by the Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect – delegated legislation can be challenged in courts on grounds such as ultra vires or violation of fundamental rights.
Hence only 1 is correct.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 15 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q133. What is the maximum detention period a Magistrate can authorize under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, for offences punishable with less than 10 years, before default bail applies?

  1. (a) 15 days
  2. (b) 30 days
  3. (c) 60 days
  4. (d) 90 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 60 days

• Under BNSS 2023 (which replaced CrPC), the detention rules are:
• For offences punishable with less than 10 years → Maximum Magistrate-authorized detention = 60 days.
• If investigation is not completed within 60 days, the accused becomes entitled to Default Bail.
• For offences punishable with death, life imprisonment, or 10+ years → the period is 90 days.
• Answer: 60 days
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q134. The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023, consolidates and amends provisions related to which branch of law?

  1. (a) Civil Procedure Law
  2. (b) Criminal Substantive Law
  3. (c) Evidence Law
  4. (d) Contract Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Criminal Substantive Law

The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 replaces the Indian Penal Code, 1860. It defines offences and prescribes punishments — i.e., it is substantive criminal law.
Criminal procedural law has been consolidated under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
Evidence law is covered under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.
Contract law is governed by the Indian Contract Act.
Hence BNS deals with Criminal Substantive Law.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 14 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q135. The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS) now explicitly defines and criminalizes 'organized crime' and 'petty organized crime'. Which of the following is an example of an offense that might fall under 'petty organized crime' under Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS)?

  1. (a) Terrorist Act
  2. (b) Large-scale Drug Trafficking
  3. (c) Theft committed by a gang
  4. (d) Murder for hire
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Theft committed by a gang

Under BNS (which replaced IPC), 'organized crime' covers large-scale criminal enterprises.
'Petty organized crime' covers smaller-scale crimes committed by groups/gangs, such as theft by a gang, pick-pocketing groups, etc.
Terrorist acts and large-scale drug trafficking fall under 'organized crime', not petty.
Murder for hire is also 'organized crime'.
Theft committed by a gang is an example of 'petty organized crime'.
Answer: Theft committed by a gang
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q136. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) aims to align Indian evidence law with advancements in:

  1. (a) Forensic science and digital technology
  2. (b) Traditional agricultural practices
  3. (c) Ancient philosophical texts
  4. (d) Oral storytelling traditions
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Forensic science and digital technology

• Legal/Polity - New Criminal Laws (2023):
• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
• BSA specifically aims to align India's evidence law with modern advancements in forensic science and digital technology.
• It recognizes electronic records, digital evidence, and forensic evidence more comprehensively.
• Answer: Forensic science and digital technology
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 13 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q137. Which section of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) mandates video-recording of search and seizure operations?

  1. (a) Section 50
  2. (b) Section 62
  3. (c) Section 105
  4. (d) Section 176
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 105

Section 105 of the BNSS, 2023 makes audio-video recording (preferably by mobile phone) of search and seizure proceedings mandatory and requires the recording to be forwarded to the District Magistrate/Judicial Magistrate without delay.
Section 50 deals with information to designated officer of arrest; 62 with mode of arrest; 176 with investigation procedure.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q138. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:

  1. (a) Physical exhibits from crime scenes.
  2. (b) Hand-written diaries.
  3. (c) Digital and electronic evidence.
  4. (d) Oral confessions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Digital and electronic evidence.

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaces the Indian Evidence Act and gives detailed provisions for digital/electronic records.
Technology authentication is most relevant to digital and electronic evidence.
Hence, the answer is option 3.
SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 – 12 September 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q139. Which of the following changes has Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) brought to criminal procedure?

  1. (a) Replaced all IPC sections
  2. (b) Video-recorded confessions
  3. (c) Presumption of guilt
  4. (d) Scrapping of all bail rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Video-recorded confessions

• Legal/Polity (Current Affairs 2023-24):
• BNSS replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
• Key change: Introduction of video-recorded confessions and statements to ensure transparency.
• BNSS did NOT replace IPC sections (BNS replaced IPC).
• Bail rights are still present in BNSS.
• Presumption of innocence is maintained — no presumption of guilt.
• Correct answer: Video-recorded confessions
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 9 September 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q140. What is the mandated time for the Public Information Officer (PIO) to provide information?

  1. (a) 10 days for personal requests
  2. (b) 15 days for urgent matters
  3. (c) 30 days generally and 48 hours for life or liberty cases
  4. (d) 60 days for all cases
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 days generally and 48 hours for life or liberty cases

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 September 2025 Shift 1 · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q141. Who is described as the 'permanent executive'?

  1. (a) Members of the elected Parliament
  2. (b) The heads of government and their ministers
  3. (c) Judges of the Supreme Court
  4. (d) The permanent civil servants who manage daily administration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The permanent civil servants who manage daily administration

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 4 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q142. Within how many days must information be provided under the RTI Act for general requests?

  1. (a) 60 days
  2. (b) 30 days
  3. (c) 15 days
  4. (d) 20 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 30 days

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 3 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q143. When was the Mines Act enacted in India?

  1. (a) 1962
  2. (b) 1982
  3. (c) 1972
  4. (d) 1952
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1952

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q144. Which of the following is the primary objective of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005?

  1. (a) To control corruption in the judiciary
  2. (b) To promote transparency and accountability in government functioning
  3. (c) To ensure reservations for backwards classes
  4. (d) To regulate foreign investment in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To promote transparency and accountability in government functioning

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 2 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q145. Who is responsible for implementing the RTI Act in public departments?

  1. (a) Central Vigilance Officer
  2. (b) Director General
  3. (c) District Magistrate
  4. (d) Central Public Information Officer
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Central Public Information Officer

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 1 September 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q146. If an RTI applicant is aggrieved by the Public Information Officer’s decision (or lack of response), within how many days must the first appeal be filed under Section 19 of the RTI Act?

  1. (a) 90 days
  2. (b) 15 days
  3. (c) 30 days
  4. (d) 60 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 days

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q147. Which of the following laws governs criminal offenses in India?

  1. (a) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita
  2. (b) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  3. (c) Civil Procedure Code
  4. (d) Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita

Correct Answer: Option 4 – Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita
The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and governs criminal offences (substantive criminal law) in India — defining crimes and prescribing punishments. It came into effect on July 1, 2024.
Option 1 ( Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita): Replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) — governs criminal procedure (how investigations, trials, and appeals are conducted), not the definition of offences.
Option 2 ( Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam): Replaced the Indian Evidence Act — governs rules of evidence in courts, not criminal offences.
Option 3 (Civil Procedure Code): Governs civil court procedure (disputes between private parties); not criminal offences.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 August 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q148. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, how should every summons issued by a Court be formatted?

  1. (a) In duplicate, signed and sealed or sent via encrypted digital form
  2. (b) Only handwritten and sent via personal messenger from the Court
  3. (c) Verbal instructions delivered by an officer of the Court
  4. (d) Sealed envelope signed by any officer of the police station
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) In duplicate, signed and sealed or sent via encrypted digital form

Correct Answer: Option 1 – In duplicate, signed and sealed or sent via encrypted digital form
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, Section 63 specifies that every summons shall be in writing, in duplicate, signed by the presiding officer or by such other officer as the High Court may direct, and shall bear the seal of the Court. The BNSS also provides for digital/electronic summons — allowing service of summons via electronic communication (encrypted digital form), in keeping with India's digitization of judicial processes.
Option 2 (Only handwritten, personal messenger): BNSS explicitly allows digital summons and does not restrict them to handwritten form or personal messengers only.
Option 3 (Verbal instructions): Summons must be in writing under BNSS — verbal instructions have no legal validity as summons.
Option 4 (Signed by police officer): Summons are issued by the Court and signed by the presiding officer, not by police station officers.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 August 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q149. In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which of the following provisions has been introduced for the first time concerning crimes against women?

  1. (a) Inclusion of community service as a punishment for domestic violence.
  2. (b) Provision for capital punishment in cases of gang rape of a woman under 18 years.
  3. (c) Legalization of marital rape.
  4. (d) Reduction of the age of consent for sexual activities to 16 years.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Provision for capital punishment in cases of gang rape of a woman under 18 years.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Provision for capital punishment in cases of gang rape of a woman under 18 years
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (which replaced the IPC) introduced — for the first time — the provision of capital punishment (death penalty) for gang rape of a woman under 18 years of age (Section 70(2) BNS). Under the IPC, gang rape carried a minimum of 20 years' rigorous imprisonment extendable to life; the BNS now adds death penalty as an option for the aggravated form involving a minor victim.
Option 1 (Community service for domestic violence): Community service was introduced as a general alternative punishment in BNS for certain offences, but it is not specifically a new provision for domestic violence under BNS.
Option 3 (Legalization of marital rape): Neither the IPC nor the BNS legalizes marital rape; marital rape remains an exception to the rape provisions in Indian law (though debated constitutionally).
Option 4 (Age of consent reduced to 16): The age of consent for sexual activities in India remains 18 years under the BNS and POCSO Act; it has not been reduced.
RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 29 August 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q150. The RTI Act empowers citizens of India to seek information from which of the following?

  1. (a) Non-governmental organisations
  2. (b) Foreign embassies
  3. (c) Government departments
  4. (d) Private companies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Government departments

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 28 August 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q151. For the implementation of which of the following did the Central Government estimate a total requirement of ₹2.31 lakh crore over a five year period from 2010-11 to 2014-15?

  1. (a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
  2. (b) Right to Education Act
  3. (c) Right to Information Act
  4. (d) Ayushman Bharat Scheme
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Right to Education Act

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 22 August 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q152. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, allows juveniles aged 16-18 to be tried as adults in cases of:

  1. (a) theft
  2. (b) cybercrime
  3. (c) drug abuse
  4. (d) heinous crimes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) heinous crimes

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 August 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q153. The RTI Act applies to which of the followings in India?

  1. (a) Only Judiciary
  2. (b) Only Central Government
  3. (c) All Public Authorities
  4. (d) Only State Government
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) All Public Authorities

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 1 · Pre-2024 criminal and procedural law (IPC, CrPC, Evidence Act)

Q154. What does Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deal with?

  1. (a) Dowry death
  2. (b) Child marriage
  3. (c) Domestic violence protection
  4. (d) Cruelty by husband or his relatives towards a woman
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cruelty by husband or his relatives towards a woman

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 20 August 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q155. When was the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) enacted to regulate and promote the real estate sector, ensuring transparency and accountability in transactions and protecting the interests of homebuyers?

  1. (a) 2020
  2. (b) 2016
  3. (c) 2018
  4. (d) 2012
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2016

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 18 August 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q156. What is the time limit to receive information from a public authority under the RTI Act?

  1. (a) 30 days
  2. (b) 45 days
  3. (c) 15 days
  4. (d) 60 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 30 days

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 12 August 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q157. Which of the following is the main objective of the Right to Information Act?

  1. (a) To prevent public access to government records
  2. (b) To provide private data to media houses
  3. (c) To ensure secrecy in public administration
  4. (d) To promote transparency and accountability
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To promote transparency and accountability

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 11 August 2025 Shift 3 · Delegated legislation and administrative law

Q158. In February 2021, which of the following was amended, enabling the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to also look after the development of Ropeways and Alternate Mobility Solutions?

  1. (a) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1951
  2. (b) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1971
  3. (c) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1981
  4. (d) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 8 August 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q159. The Right to Public Services legislation was first introduced by which Indian state?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q160. Which of the following Acts aims to prevent money laundering in India?

  1. (a) PMLA
  2. (b) FEMA
  3. (c) SEBI
  4. (d) FCRA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) PMLA

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 – 7 August 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q161. In which of the following years was the Right to Information Act passed?

  1. (a) 1999
  2. (b) 2005
  3. (c) 2007
  4. (d) 1973
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2005

SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 2 August 2025 Shift 2 · Constitutional facts and firsts

Q162. Who hand-calligraphed the original manuscript of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) B.N. Rau
  2. (b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
  3. (c) S.N. Mukherjee
  4. (d) Gopalaswami Ayyangar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Prem Behari Narain Raizada
The original handwritten manuscript of the Indian Constitution was calligraphed in flowing italic script by Prem Behari Narain Raizada (also known as Prem Behari Narain Saxena) in New Delhi. He refused any payment for this work and asked only that his name and his grandfather's name be inscribed on every page of the Constitution.
Option 1 (B.N. Rau): Sir B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor who prepared the initial draft of the Constitution.
Option 3 (S.N. Mukherjee): The chief draftsman who worked on technical aspects under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Option 4 ( Gopalaswami Ayyangar ): A key member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 1 August 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q163. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, for how long can a suspect be detained without a magistrate's approval?

  1. (a) 24 hours
  2. (b) 48 hours
  3. (c) 72 hours
  4. (d) 12 hours
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 24 hours

Correct Answer: Option 1 – 24 hours
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), a police officer cannot detain an arrested person for more than 24 hours without producing them before a magistrate. This provision mirrors Section 57 of the CrPC.
Option 2 (48 hours): Incorrect.
Option 3 (72 hours): Incorrect.
Option 4 (12 hours): Incorrect.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 31 July 2025 Shift 1 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q164. Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita focuses on crimes against women and children?

  1. (a) Chapter III
  2. (b) Chapter V
  3. (c) Chapter VI
  4. (d) Chapter IX
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chapter V

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Chapter V
The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — contains Chapter V dedicated to offences against women and children. This chapter covers sexual assault, rape, stalking, voyeurism, crimes against children (including child trafficking and POCSO-related offences), and other gender-based crimes. The BNS came into effect on July 1, 2024, as part of the three new criminal laws replacing IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act.
Option 1 (Chapter III): Deals with offences against the state — not specifically women and children.
Option 3 (Chapter VI): Covers different categories of offences.
Option 4 (Chapter IX): Not the chapter focused on crimes against women and children.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 31 July 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q165. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita includes a specific provision for 'community service' as a punishment.
Reason (R): This reform aims to reduce jail time by introducing community service for petty offences.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — introduced 'community service' as a new category of punishment (Section 4 of BNS lists punishments including community service). This is a significant reform making India one of the few countries to formally recognise community service as a criminal punishment.
Reason (R) is TRUE and correctly explains A: The rationale behind introducing community service as a punishment is precisely to reduce jail overcrowding and provide an alternative to imprisonment for petty/minor offences. It allows offenders to contribute positively to society rather than serving short jail terms, which can be counterproductive. R directly and correctly explains why community service was included in BNS (Assertion A).
Therefore, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A = Option 1.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 30 July 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q166. Fill in the blank:
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam modernizes _______ by incorporating provisions for technology-based evidence.

  1. (a) Civil laws
  2. (b) Evidence laws
  3. (c) Consumer laws
  4. (d) Tax laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Evidence laws

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Evidence laws
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — thus modernising India's evidence laws. The BSA incorporates significant technology-based updates: recognition of electronic records and digital evidence as primary evidence (equivalent to documentary evidence), electronic signatures, e-mails, server logs, digital images, voice messages, and other electronic evidence are explicitly addressed. The BSA also updates provisions on secondary evidence for electronic records.
Option 1 (Civil laws): Civil laws (civil procedure) are governed by the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) — not replaced by BSA.
Option 3 (Consumer laws): Consumer protection is governed by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 — unrelated to BSA.
Option 4 (Tax laws): Tax laws are governed by Income Tax Act, GST Acts, Customs Act, etc. — not the domain of BSA.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 30 July 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q167. Which of the following statements correctly describes the provisions of the POSH Act, 2013?

  1. (a) The POSH Act, 2013 is designed to prevent child marriage in India.
  2. (b) The POSH Act, 2013 provides protection against sexual harassment of women at the workplace.
  3. (c) The POSH Act, 2013 governs the regulation of orphanages across India.
  4. (d) The POSH Act, 2013 focuses on the harassment of domestic workers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The POSH Act, 2013 provides protection against sexual harassment of women at the workplace.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – The POSH Act, 2013 provides protection against sexual harassment of women at the workplace
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act) was enacted to protect women from sexual harassment at the workplace and provide a redressal mechanism. Key provisions: mandates every employer with 10+ employees to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC); defines sexual harassment broadly; requires organizations to create awareness; imposes penalties on defaulting employers. It gave statutory effect to the Vishaka Guidelines (1997) laid down by the Supreme Court.
Option 1 (Child marriage): Child marriage is governed by the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 — not POSH.
Option 3 (Orphanages): Orphanage regulation falls under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 — not POSH.
Option 4 (Domestic workers): While domestic workers are covered as 'unorganized sector' workers under POSH, the Act is not exclusively focused on them; it covers all women workers across all workplaces.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 July 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q168. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. (a) Oral evidence holds greater importance than documentary evidence.
  2. (b) Digital records require supplementary paper documentation.
  3. (c) Electronic evidence is treated as equal to documentary evidence.
  4. (d) Hearsay evidence is always admissible.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Electronic evidence is treated as equal to documentary evidence.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Electronic evidence is treated as equal to documentary evidence
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) explicitly recognises electronic records and digital evidence as equivalent to documentary evidence. Section 2(1)(d) of BSA defines 'document' to include electronic records. Electronic records — emails, digital files, electronic contracts, SMS, social media records, CCTV footage stored digitally — are admissible as primary evidence. This is a landmark modernisation: electronic evidence no longer requires supplementary paper documentation to be valid.
Option 1 (Oral > Documentary): Under BSA, documentary evidence (including electronic records) generally holds higher evidentiary value than oral testimony since documents are more reliable and permanent. Oral evidence is not superior.
Option 2 (Digital needs paper backup): BSA specifically removes this requirement. Electronic records are self-sufficient as primary evidence under Section 57 of BSA.
Option 4 (Hearsay always admissible): Hearsay evidence is generally NOT admissible. BSA maintains the rule against hearsay with specific exceptions (dying declarations, admissions by parties, etc.).
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 29 July 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q169. Which of the following is considered an admission under the BSA, 2023?

  1. (a) A rumor repeated in court
  2. (b) A statement made by someone not involved in the case
  3. (c) A voluntary statement by a party acknowledging a fact
  4. (d) A statement made under duress
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A voluntary statement by a party acknowledging a fact

Correct Answer: Option 3 – A voluntary statement by a party acknowledging a fact
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), an 'admission' is defined as a statement, oral or documentary or contained in electronic form, which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by a party to the proceeding. Crucially, an admission must be voluntary — a statement made under duress or coercion is not admissible as an admission. Admissions are relevant under Section 15 of BSA and are admissible as evidence against the maker.
Option 1 (A rumour repeated in court): A rumour is hearsay with no identified original source — not an admission. Hearsay is generally inadmissible.
Option 2 (Statement by someone not involved): An admission must be made by a party to the proceeding (or their agent/predecessor in interest). Statements by uninvolved third parties are not admissions under BSA.
Option 4 (Statement under duress): A statement made under coercion, threat, or undue influence lacks voluntariness — it is not considered a valid admission under BSA.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 28 July 2025 Shift 1 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q170. What is a key feature of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam related to electronic evidence?

  1. (a) It excludes electronic records.
  2. (b) It mandates notarization of digital documents.
  3. (c) It recognizes electronic evidence in legal proceedings.
  4. (d) It limits the use of electronic records.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It recognizes electronic evidence in legal proceedings.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – It recognizes electronic evidence in legal proceedings
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. A landmark feature of the BSA is its comprehensive recognition and treatment of electronic evidence in legal proceedings. It broadens the definition of 'documents' to include electronic records, messages, emails, server logs, digital contracts, etc., making them admissible as primary evidence. The BSA modernizes evidentiary law for the digital age.
Option 1 (Excludes electronic records): Directly opposite — BSA explicitly includes and recognizes electronic records.
Option 2 (Mandates notarization): BSA does not mandate notarization for all digital documents; electronic records are admissible under prescribed conditions.
Option 4 (Limits use): BSA expands, not limits, the use and admissibility of electronic records in legal proceedings.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 28 July 2025 Shift 3 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q171. Under the BSA, what is the value of expert opinion in a trial?

  1. (a) Advisory in nature, but holds persuasive value
  2. (b) Used only in civil trials
  3. (c) Treated as conclusive proof
  4. (d) Ignored by the court
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Advisory in nature, but holds persuasive value

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Advisory in nature, but holds persuasive value
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), expert opinion (Section 39–44 of BSA) is treated as advisory in nature — the court is not bound by it — but it holds significant persuasive value. The court considers expert testimony (medical, forensic, handwriting, ballistics, etc.) alongside other evidence to form its judgment. Expert opinion helps the court understand technical matters beyond common knowledge.
Option 2 (Only civil trials): Expert opinion is admissible in both civil AND criminal trials under BSA; it is not restricted to civil proceedings.
Option 3 (Conclusive proof): Expert opinion is never conclusive — the court may accept or reject it. Only certain documentary and legal presumptions constitute conclusive proof.
Option 4 (Ignored by court): Courts actively consider expert testimony; ignoring it without reason would be grounds for appeal.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 25 July 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q172. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
1. The Act applies to courts, including Courts-martial, but excludes affidavits and arbitration.
2. "Document" includes emails, server logs, and smartphone messages.
3. Confessions to police officers are admissible without restriction.
4. The Evidence Act of 1872 is repealed, but pending cases follow the old law.

  1. (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
  3. (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Correct Answer: Option 2 – 1, 2, and 4 only
Statement 1 (TRUE): The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 applies to all judicial proceedings, including Courts-martial, but explicitly excludes affidavits and arbitration proceedings.
Statement 2 (TRUE): BSA significantly expanded the definition of 'Document' to include electronic records such as emails, server logs, smartphone messages, locational evidence, and digital data, reflecting modern evidentiary realities.
Statement 3 (FALSE): Confessions made to police officers are NOT admissible under BSA (just as they were inadmissible under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872). A confession to a police officer is admissible only to the extent that it leads to discovery of facts. This protection against self-incrimination is preserved in BSA.
Statement 4 (TRUE): The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is repealed by BSA, 2023. However, pending cases initiated before BSA's commencement continue to be governed by the old Evidence Act.
Since Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, Option 2 is the answer.
SSC Selection Post 2025 (Phase XIII) – 24 July 2025 Shift 3 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q173. Which of the following is a new offense defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. (a) Criminal intimidation
  2. (b) Adultery
  3. (c) Terrorist act
  4. (d) Sedition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Terrorist act

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Terrorist act
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), introduced 'Terrorist act' (Section 113) as a new, explicitly defined offense. The BNS comprehensively defines terrorism within the main criminal code for the first time.
Option 1 (Criminal intimidation): Was already present in IPC (Section 503); retained in BNS.
Option 2 (Adultery): Was decriminalized by the Supreme Court in 2018 (Joseph Shine v. Union of India); not included in BNS.
Option 4 (Sedition): The BNS removed the colonial-era sedition law (Section 124A IPC); replaced it with Section 152 (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India) — not the same as the old sedition offense.
RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 June 2025 Shift 2 · Constitutions of other countries

Q174. What is a key difference between the Indian Prime Minister and the American President regarding their accountability to the legislature?

  1. (a) The American President is collectively responsible to Congress, while the Indian Prime Minister is not.
  2. (b) The American President can be dismissed by a simple majority in Congress, while the Indian Prime Minister can be removed by a no-confidence motion.
  3. (c) The American President and his cabinet are not members of Congress, whereas the Indian Prime Minister and his ministers must be part of Parliament.
  4. (d) The American President must seek a vote of confidence from Congress, unlike the Indian Prime Minister.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The American President and his cabinet are not members of Congress, whereas the Indian Prime Minister and his ministers must be part of Parliament.

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 21 June 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q175. Labour reforms have remained a key agenda in the post-1991 economic policy landscape. How many labour codes were consolidated by the Indian government under the labour reforms enacted in 2019-2020?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) Four
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Five
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Four

RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 – 14 June 2025 Shift 2 · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q176. By when must an employer deposit employee deductions with a co-operative society if wages are paid daily?

  1. (a) Before the weekly holiday
  2. (b) Within 7 days of deduction
  3. (c) Within 24 hours
  4. (d) Before the next working day
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Within 7 days of deduction

12

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